JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 1 is updated here after the conclusion of the exam. Candidates can download JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper PDF with Answer Key for Feb 1 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main Chemistry Question Paper is divided into two sections, Section A with 20 MCQs and Section B with 10 numerical type questions. Candidates are required to answer all questions from Section A and any 5 questions from section B.

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Feb 1 Shift 1- Download PDF

JEE Main 2023 1 Feb Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution


Question 1:

Which of the following represents the lattice structure of \( A_{0.95}O \) containing \( A^{2+}, A^{3+} \) and \( O^{2-} \) ions?


  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) B only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A only
Correct Answer: (4) A only
View Solution

Question 2:

The correct representation in six-membered pyranose form for the following sugar \( [X] \) is:



Correct Answer: (2).
View Solution

Question 3:

Highest oxidation state of Mn is exhibited in Mn\(_2\)O\(_7\). The correct statements about Mn\(_2\)O\(_7\) are:

(A) Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms

(B) Mn is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms

(C) Contains Mn-O-Mn bridge

(D) Contains Mn-Mn bond


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) A and D only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) B and C only
Correct Answer: (1) A and C only.
View Solution

Question 4:

Decreasing order of dehydration of the following alcohols is:


  • (1) \( a > d > b > c \)
  • (2) \( b > d > c > a \)
  • (3) \( b > a > d > c \)
  • (4) \( d > b > c > a \)
Correct Answer: (2).
View Solution

Question 5:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Amongst He, Ne, Ar, and Kr; 1 g of activated charcoal adsorbs more of Kr.

Reason R: The critical volume \( V_c \) (cm\(^3\) mol\(^{-1}\)) and critical pressure \( P_c \) (atm) is highest for Krypton but the compressibility factor at critical point \( Z_c \) is lowest for Krypton.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is true but R is false
  • (2) A is false but R is true
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1).
View Solution

Question 6:

In the following reaction, ‘A’ is:



Correct Answer: (2).
View Solution

Question 7:

Match List I with List II.


  • (1) (A) - IV, (B) - II, (C) - I, (D) - III
    (2) (A) - II, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - IV
    (3) (A) - III, (B) - I, (C) - II, (D) - IV
    (4) (A) - II, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - III
Correct Answer: (3).
View Solution

Question 8:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chlorine can easily combine with oxygen to form oxides; and the product has a tendency to explode.

Statement II: Chemical reactivity of an element can be determined by its reaction with oxygen and halogens.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both the statements I and II are true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both the Statements I and II are false
Correct Answer: (1) Both the statements I and II are true
View Solution

Question 9:

Resonance in carbonate ion \( (CO_3^{2-}) \) is:



  • (1) All these structures are in dynamic equilibrium with each other.
  • (2) Each structure exists for equal amount of time.
  • (3) \( CO_3^{2-} \) has a single structure i.e., resonance hybrid of the above three structures.
  • (4) It is possible to identify each structure individually by some physical or chemical method.
Correct Answer: (4) All these structures are in dynamic equilibrium with each other.
View Solution

Question 10:

Identify the incorrect option from the following:

%option

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 11:

A solution of \( FeCl_3 \), when treated with \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \), gives a prussian blue precipitate due to the formation of:

  • (1) \( K_3[Fe(CN)_6] \)
  • (2) \( Fe[Fe(CN)_6] \)
  • (3) \( Fe_3[Fe(CN)_6]_2 \)
  • (4) \( Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3 \)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 12:

Which of the following are examples of double salts?


(A) \( FeSO_4.(NH_4)_2SO_4.6H_2O \)

(B) \( CuSO_4.4NH_3.H_2O \)

(C) \( K_2SO_4.Al_2(SO_4)_3.24H_2O \)

(D) \( Fe(CN)_2.4KCN \)


Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) B and D only
Correct Answer: (1) A and C only.
View Solution

Question 13:

Which of the following complex will show largest splitting of d-orbitals?

  • (1) \( [Fe(C_2O_4)_3]^{3-} \)
  • (2) \( [Fe_6(CN)_6] \)
  • (3) \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (4) \( [Fe(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)
Correct Answer: (3).
View Solution

Question 14:

How can photochemical smog be controlled?

  • (1) By using tall chimneys
    (2) By complete combustion of fuel
    (3) By using catalytic converters in the automobiles/industry
    (4) By using catalyst
Correct Answer: (3) By using catalytic converters in the automobiles/industry
View Solution

Question 15:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - I, (B) - IV, (C) - II, (D) - III
  • (2) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (3) (A) - II, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - IV
  • (4) (A) - III, (B) - II, (C) - IV, (D) - I
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - II, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - IV.
View Solution

Question 16:

Choose the correct statement(s):
A. Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature.

B. Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of CO\(_2\).

C. Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in water.

D. Beryllium shows anomalous behavior.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A only
Correct Answer: (2) B, C and D only.
View Solution

Question 17:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In an Ellingham diagram, the oxidation of carbon to carbon monoxide shows a negative slope with respect to temperature.

Reason R: CO tends to get decomposed at higher temperature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) A is correct but R is incorrect
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 18:

But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole of Hydrogen as shown below: \[ B \xrightarrow{Na, liquid NH_3} CH_3 C \equiv CH + H_2 \xrightarrow{Pd/C} A \]
A. A is more soluble than B.

B. The boiling point \& melting point of A are higher and lower than B respectively.

C. A is more polar than B because dipole moment of A is zero.

D. \( Br_2 \) adds easily to B than A.


Identify the incorrect statements from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A, C and D only
  • (4) A and B only
Correct Answer: (3) A, C and D only.
View Solution

Question 19:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Hydrogen is an environment friendly fuel.

Reason R: The atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and it is a very light element.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is true but R is false
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 20:

Match List I with List II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - I, (B) - II, (C) - III, (D) - IV
  • (2) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (3) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - III, (D) - IV
  • (4) (A) - III, (B) - II, (C) - IV, (D) - I
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - III, (D) - IV.
View Solution

Question 21:

The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.0 g mL\(^{-1}\). Molality of the solution is ___\ \( \times 10^{-2} \) m. (Nearest integer)

Given: Molar mass of Na and Cl is 23 and 35.5 g mol\(^{-1}\) respectively.

Correct Answer: (364)
View Solution

Question 22:

Electrons in a cathode ray tube have been emitted with a velocity of 1000 ms\(^{-1}\). The number of following statements which is/are true about the emitted radiation is -----.

Given: \( h = 6 \times 10^{-34} \) Js, \( m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} \) kg.

  • (1) The deBroglie wavelength of the electron emitted is 666.67 nm.
  • (2) The characteristic of electrons emitted depend upon the material of the electrodes of the cathode ray tube.
  • (3) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards anode.
  • (4) The nature of the emitted electrons depends on the nature of the gas present in cathode ray tube.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 23:

Sum of oxidation states of bromine in bromic acid and perbromic acid is -----.

Correct Answer: (12)
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Question 24:

At what pH, given half cell MnO\(_4^-\) (0.1 M) | Mn\(^{2+}\) (0.001 M) will have electrode potential of 1.282 V?
____\ (Nearest Integer)

Given \( E^\circ_{MnO_4^-/Mn^{2+}} = 1.54 \, V, \, \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.059V \)

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 25:

Number of isomeric compounds with molecular formula C\(_9\)H\(_10\)O which (i) do not dissolve in NaOH (ii) do not dissolve in HCl. (iii) do not give orange precipitate with 2, 4 - DNP (iv) on hydrogenation give identical compound with molecular formula C\(_9\)H\(_12\)O is ____.

Correct Answer: (0)
View Solution

Question 26:

(i) X(g) \( \rightleftharpoons \) Y(g) + Z(g), \( K_{p1} = 3 \)

(ii) A(g) \( \rightleftharpoons \) 2B(g), \( K_{p2} = 1 \)

If the degree of dissociation and initial concentration of both the reactants X(g) and A(g) are equal, then the ratio of the total pressure at equilibrium \( \left( \frac{P_1}{P_2} \right) \) is equal to x : 1. The value of x is ____\. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (12)
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Question 27:

The total number of chiral compound/s from the following is _____\ .



Correct Answer: (2)
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Question 28:

A and B are two substances undergoing radioactive decay in a container. The half-life of A is 15 min and that of B is 5 min. If the initial concentration of B is 4 times that of A and they both start decaying at the same time, how much time will it take for the concentration of both of them to be same? _____ min.

Correct Answer: (15)
View Solution

Question 29:

At 25°C, the enthalpy of the following processes are given: \[ H_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2OH(g) \, \Delta H^\circ = 78\, kJ mol^{-1} \] \[ H_2(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \rightarrow H_2O(g) \, \Delta H^\circ = -242\, kJ mol^{-1} \] \[ H_2(g) \rightarrow 2H(g) \, \Delta H^\circ = 436\, kJ mol^{-1} \] \[ \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \rightarrow O(g) \, \Delta H^\circ = 249\, kJ mol^{-1} \]

What would be the value of \( X \) for the following reaction? \[ H_2O(g) \rightarrow H(g) + OH(g) \, \Delta H^\circ = X \, kJ mol^{-1} \]

Correct Answer: (12)
View Solution

Question 30:

25 mL of an aqueous solution of KCl was found to require 20 mL of 1 M AgNO\(_3\) solution when titrated using K\(_2\)CrO\(_4\) as an indicator. What is the depression in freezing point of KCl solution of the given concentration? _____ (Nearest integer).

(Given: \( K_f = 2.0 \, K kg mol^{-1} \))
Assume
1) 100% ionization and
2) density of the aqueous solution as 1 g mL\(^{-1}\)

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

 


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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Analysis Feb 1 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for Chemistry paper scheduled on February 1 Shift 1 will be updated here after the conclusion of the exam. Candidates will be able to check the topics with the highest weightage, difficulty level and memory-based Chemistry questions.

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis Feb 1 Shift 1 (After Exam)

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Chemistry Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main 2022 Question Paper

JEE Main 2023 aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the previous year question papers as well. The table below shows JEE Main 2022 Question Paper PDF for B.E./B.Tech to practice.

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper