JEE Main 2023 April 13 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 13, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 13 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 13 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Find area bounded by the curves \(y\) = \(max\{sin x, cos x\}\) and \(x-axis\) between \(x = -  \pi  \)and \(x =   \pi\)

  • (1) \(2 + \sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(1 + \sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 2:

Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 36x of length 100, making an acute angle with the positive x-axis. Let the ordinate of P be positive and M be the point on the line segment PQ such that PM:MQ = 3:1. Then which of the following points does \(\underline{NOT}\) lie on the line passing through M and perpendicular to the line PQ? 

  • (1) (3,33)
  • (2) (-6, 45)
  • (3) (-3, 43)
  • (4) (6,29)

Question 3:

Let a =\(\^i+4\^j​+2\^k,b=3\^i−2\^j​+7\^k \,\,\,\,and\,\,\.\ c=2\^i−\^j​+4\^k\). Find a vector d satisfies \(\overrightarrow{d}\times{\overrightarrow{b}}=\overrightarrow{c}\times{\overrightarrow{b}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d}.\overrightarrow{a}=24\), then \(|\overrightarrow{d}|^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 323
  • (2) 313
  • (3) 423
  • (4) 413

Question 4:

For the system of linear equations  
2x+4y+2az=b
x+2y+3z=4 
2x-5y+2z=8 
which of the following is NOT correct ?  

  • (1) It has unique solution if a = b = 6
  • (2) It has unique solution if a = b = 8
  • (3) It has infinitely many solution if a = 3, b = 8
  • (4) It has infinitely many solutions if a = 3, b = 6

Question 5:

Let \(y=y_1(x)\) and \(y=y_2(x)\) be the solution curves of the differential equation \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}=y+7\) with initial conditions \(y_1(0)=0\) and \(y_2(0)=1\) respectively. Then the curves \(y=y_1(x)\) and \(y=y_2(x)\) intersect at

  • (1) no point
  • (2) two points
  • (3) infinite number of points
  • (4) one point

Question 6:

A coin is biased so that the head is 3 times as likely to occur as tail. This coin is tossed until a head or three tails occur. If X denotes the number of tosses of the coin, then the mean of X is

  • (1) \(\frac{21}{16}\)<
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{81}{64}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{37}{16}\)

Question 7:

The set of all a∈ R for which the equation x|x-1|+|x-2|+a=0 has exactly one real root is

  • (1) (-∞,-3)
  • (2) (-6,∞)
  • (3) (-∞,∞)
  • (4) (-6,-3)

Question 8:

The integral \(∫^∞_0  \frac{6}{(e^{3x} + 6e^{2x} + 11e{x} + 6)}dx\)

  • (1) ln \(32\)
  • (2) ln \(27\)
  • (3) ln \(\frac{32}{27}\)
  • (4) ln \(\frac{27}{32}\)

Question 9:

Let s1, s2, s3,…..,s10 respectively be the sum to 12 terms of 10 A.P.s whose first terms are 1,2,3, …. ,10 and the common differences are 1, 3, 5, …. , 19 respectively. Then  \(10∑^{10}_{i=1} s_i\) is

  • (1) 7260
  • (2) 7220
  • (3) 7360
  • (4) 7380

Question 10:

Let B =\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 & α \\ 1 & 2& 3 \\ α & α & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) , α>2 be the adjoint of a matrix A and |A| = 2, then [α - 2α α] B\(\begin{bmatrix} α \\ -2α  \\ α \end{bmatrix}\)is equal to

  • (1) 0
  • (2) -16
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 32

Question 11:

The fractional part of the number \(\tfrac{4^{2022}}{15}\) is equal to:


Question 12:

 For \(x \in \mathbb{R}\), two real‐valued functions \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are such that


Question 13:

For differentiable function f: R-{0}⟶ R, let 3f(x)+2f(\(\frac{1}{x}\))-\(\frac{1}{x}\)-10, then |f(3)+f(\(\frac{1}{4}\))| is equal to

  • (1) 7
  • (2) \(\frac{29}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{33}{5}\)
  • (4) 13

Question 14:

\(max\)
\({0≤x≤π}\)
\(\{x−2\,\, sin. x \,\,cos+\frac{1}{3} sin\,\, 3x \}=\)

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi+2-3\sqrt3}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5\pi+2-3\sqrt3}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\pi\)
  • (4) 0

Question 15:

The number of symmetric matrices of order 3, with all the entries from the set \(\{0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9\}\) is :

  • (1) \(10^{9}\)
  • (2) \(9^{10}\)
  • (3) \(10^{6}\)
  • (4) \(6^{10}\)

Question 16:

Let the equation of plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes \(x+2y+az=2\) and \(x-y+z=3\) be \(5x-11y+bz=6a-1\). For \(c\in\mathbb{Z}\), if the distance of this plane from the point \((a,-c,c)\) is \(\dfrac{2}{\sqrt{a}}\), then \(\dfrac{a+b}{c}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-2\)
  • (2) \(4\)
  • (3) \(2\)
  • (4) \(-4\)

Question 17:

The negation of the statement \(((A\land(B\lor C)) ⇒ (A\lor B)) ⇒ A\) is

  • (1) a fallacy
  • (2) equivalent to \(B\lor \sim C\)
  • (3) equivalent to \(\sim A\)
  • (4) equivalent to \(\sim C\)

Question 18:

\((S1) : lim_{n→∞}\frac{1}{ n ^2} ( 2 + 4 + 6 + . . . . + 2n) = 1\)
\((S2):  lim_n→∞\frac{1}{n^{16}}( 1^15 +2^15 +3^15 + . . . . + n^15 ) = \frac{1}{16} \)

  • (1) Only (S1) is true
  • (2) Only (S2) is true
  • (3) Both (S1) and (S2) are true
  • (4) Both (S1) and (S2) are false

Question 19:

Let the tangent and normal at the point \((3\sqrt{3},1)\) on the ellipse \(\frac{ x^2}{36}+\frac{y^2}{4} =1\) meet the y-axis at the points A and B respectively. Let the circle C be drawn taking AB as a diameter and the line x = \(2\sqrt{5}\) intersect C at the points P and Q. If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle intersect at the point (α,β) , then α2 - β2 is equal to 

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 61
  • (3) \(\frac{304}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{314}{5}\)

Question 20:

The distance of the point ( -1,2,3) from the plane \(\overrightarrow{r}( \^i−2 \^j+3 \^k )=10\) parallel to the line of the shortest distance between the lines \(\overrightarrow{r}=(\^i=\^j)+λ(2\^i+\^k)\) and  \(\overrightarrow{r}=(2\^i=\^j)+μ(\^i+\^j+\^k)\)  is 

  • (1) \(3\sqrt5\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt6\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt6\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt5\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21: Let the mean of the data
\(x\)13579
Frequency (\(f\))42428\(\alpha\)8
be 5. If \(m\) and \(\sigma^2\) are respectively the mean deviation about the mean and the variance of the data, then \(\dfrac{3\alpha}{m+\sigma^2}\) is equal to __________.

Question 22:

Let ω = z\(\bar{z}\) + k1z + k2iz + λ(1+i), k1 , k2 ∈ \(\mathbb{R}\). Let Re(ω) = 0 be the circle C of radius 1 in the first quadrant touching the line y =1 and the y-axis. If the curve Im (ω) = 0 intersects C at A and B, then 30 (AB)2 is equal to _____


Question 23:

The number of seven-digit positive integers formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, and 4 only, and whose sum of the digits is 12, is         

  • (1)

    413

  • (2) 311
  • (3) 308
  • (4) 393

  • Question 24:

    If S={ x ∈ R : sin−1\(( \frac{x + 1}{ √ x^ 2 + 2 x + 2} ) \)−-sin−1\((\frac{x}{√x ^2+1 }) = \frac{π}{ 4} \)}
    then \(∑_{x∈R }(sin( (x^2+x+5)\frac{π}{2})−cos( ( x^2+x+5)π ) ) \)is equal to ____.


    Question 25:

    Let for x∈R, S0(x)=x,Sk(x)=Ckx+k\(∫^x_0S_{k−1}\)(t)dt, where C0=1,Ck≡1−\(∫^1_0S_{k−1}\)(x)dx,k==1,2,3,..... Then s2(3)+6c3 is equal to___.


    Question 26:

    Let \(\overrightarrow{a}=3\^i+\^j −\^k\)  and \(\overrightarrow{c}=2\^i+3\^j −3\^k\)  if \(\overrightarrow{b}\) is a vector such that  \(\overrightarrow{a}=\overrightarrow{b}\times\overrightarrow{c}\) and \(|\overrightarrow{b}|=50\) , then \(|72|\overrightarrow{b}+\overrightarrow{c}|^2|\)| |  is equal to _______. 


    Question 27:

    Let α be the constant term in the binomial expansion of \( (√x−\frac{6}{x^{\frac{3}{2}}} )^n ,n≤15.\)  If the sum of the coefficients of the remaining terms in the expansion is 649 and the coefficient of x-n is λα, then λ is equal to _______.


    Question 28:

    Let m1 and m2 be the slopes of the tangents drawn from the point P(4,1) to the hyperbola H : \(\frac{y^2}{25} − \frac{x^2}{16 }\)= 1. If Q is the point from which the tangents drawn to H have slopes |m1| and |m2| and they make positive intercepts α and β on the x-axis, then  \(\frac{( P Q ) ^2}{ α β}\) α β is equal to _____.


    Question 29:

    The sum to 20 terms of the series \(2\cdot2^{2}-3^{2}+2\cdot4^{2}-5^{2}+2\cdot6^{2}-\ldots\ldots\) is equal to __________.


    Question 30:

    Let the image of the point \(\left(\frac{5}{3},\frac{5}{3},\frac{8}{3}\right)\) in the plane x - 2y + z - 2 = 0 be P. If the distance of the point Q(6,-2,α), α > 0, from P is 13, then α is equal to___.


    Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

    Question 31:

    Select the correct graph showing the difference (d) between total energy and potential energy of a particle in linear SHM with position x of the particle (x = 0 is the mean position)

    • (1) the difference (d) between total energy and potential energy of a particle in linear SHM
    • (2) the difference (d) between total energy and potential energy of a particle in linear SHM
    • (3) the difference (d) between total energy and potential energy of a particle in linear SHM
    • (4) the difference (d) between total energy and potential energy of a particle in linear SHM

    Question 32:

    A bullet of 10 g leaves the barrel of gun with a velocity of 600 m/s. If the barrel of gun is 50 cm long and mass of gun is 3 kg, then value of impulse supplied to the gun will be :

    • (1) 12 Ns
    • (2) 3 Ns
    • (3) 6 Ns
    • (4) 36 Ns

    Question 33:

    A planet having mass \(9M_e\) and radius \(4R_e\), where \(M_e\) and \(R_e\) are mass and radius of earth respectively, has escape velocity in km/s given by: (Given escape velocity on earth \(V_e= 11.2 × 10^3 m/s\))

    • (1) 67.2
    • (2) 33.6
    • (3) 16.8
    • (4) 11.2

    Question 34:
    Liquid Density
    The figure shows a liquid of given density flowing steadily in horizontal tube of varying cross - section. Cross sectional areas at A is 1.5 cm², and B is is 25 mm², if the speed of liquid at B is 60 cm/s then \((P_A-P_B)\) is: 
    (Given \(P_A\) and \(P_B\) are liquid pressures at A and B points.
    density \(ρ = 1000 \space kg \space m^{-3}\)
    A and B are on the axis of tube)
    • (1) 27 Pa
    • (2) 175 Pa
    • (3) 135 Pa
    • (4) 36 Pa

    Question 35:

    A vessel of depth 'd' is half filled with oil of refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with water of refractive index n2. The apparent depth of this vessel when viewed from above will be-

    • (1) \(\frac{d\,n_1n_2}{2 (n_1+n_2)}\)
    • (2) \(\frac{d\,n_1n_2}{ (n_1+n_2)}\)
    • (3) \(\frac{2d(n_1+n_2)}{n_1n_2}\)
    • (4) \(\frac{d(n_1+n_2)}{2n_1n_2}\)

    Question 36:

    The difference between threshold wavelengths for two metal surfaces A and B having work function \(Φ_A\)= 9 eV and \(Φ_B\) = 4.5 eV in nm is:
    {Given, hc = 1242 eV nm}

    • (1) 264
    • (2) 540
    • (3) 276
    • (4) 138

    Question 37:

    The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel at particular temperature is \((1+\frac{5}{x})^{\frac{1}{2}} v\), where \(v\) is the average speed of the molecule. The value of x will be : (Take \(π = \frac{22}{7}\))

    • (1) 4
    • (2) 8
    • (3) 27
    • (4) 28

    Question 38:

    The source of time varying magnetic field may be
    (A) a permanent magnet
    (B) an electric field changing linearly with time
    (C) direct current
    (D) a decelerating charge particle
    (E) an antenna fed with a digital signal
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    • (1) (A) only
    • (2) (D) only
    • (3) (C) and (E) only
    • (4) (B) and (D) only

    Question 39:

    Two charges each of magnitude 0.01 C and separated by a distance of 0.4 mm constitute an electric dipole. If the dipole is placed in an uniform electric field of 10 dyne/C making 30º angle with \(\overrightarrow E\), the magnitude of torque acting on dipole is:

    • (1) \(1.0 × 10^{-8} Nm\)
    • (2) \(2.0 × 10^{-10} Nm\)
    • (3) \(4.0 × 10^{-10} Nm\)
    • (4) \(1.5 × 10^{-9} Nm\)

    Question 40:

    A disc is rolling without slipping on a surface. The radius of the disc is R. At t = 0, the top most point on the disc is A as shown in figure. When the disc completes half of its rotation, the displacement of point A from its initial position is

    Rolling Disc
    • (1) \(2R\sqrt{1+4π^2}\)
    • (2) 2R
    • (3) \(R\sqrt{π^2+1}\)
    • (4) \(R\sqrt{π^2+4}\)

    Question 41:

    \(_{92}^{238}A\to\,_{90}^{234}B+\,_{2}^{4}D+Q\)
    In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount of energy released will be:
    [Given, mass of \(_{92}^{238}A=238.05079\times931.5\ \mathrm{MeV/c^2}\), mass of \(_{90}^{234}B=234.04363\times931.5\ \mathrm{MeV/c^2}\), mass of \(_{2}^{4}D=4.00260\times931.5\ \mathrm{MeV/c^2}\)]

    • (1) \(2.12\ \mathrm{MeV}\)
    • (2) \(4.25\ \mathrm{MeV}\)
    • (3) \(3.82\ \mathrm{MeV}\)
    • (4) \(5.9\ \mathrm{MeV}\)

    Question 42:

    Pressure for polytropic process P varies with volume V as P=av-3, find out the bulk modulus.

    • (1) 3V
    • (2) 3P
    • (3) P
    • (4) V

    Question 43:

    Two trains 'A' and 'B' of length \('l'\) and \('4l'\) are travelling into a tunnel of length 'L' in parallel tracks from opposite directions with velocities 108 km/h and 72 km/h, respectively. If train 'A' takes 35s less time than train 'B' to cross the tunnel then. length 'L' of tunnel is:
    (Given L = 60 \(l\))

    • (1) 1800 m
    • (2) 900 m
    • (3) 1200 m
    • (4) 2700 m

    Question 44:

    Which of the following Maxwell's equation is valid for time varying conditions but not valid for static conditions:

    • (1) \(∮\vec{B}.\vec{dl}=μ _0I\)
    • (2) \(∮\vec{E}.\vec{dl}=-\frac{\partialϕ_B}{\partial t}\)
    • (3) \(∮\vec{D}.\vec{dA}=Q\)
    • (4) \(∮\vec{E}.\vec{dl}=0\)

    Question 45:

    Different combination of 3 resistors of equal resistance \(R\) are shown in the figures. The increasing order for power dissipation is:

    • (1) \(P_B\lt P_C\lt P_D\lt P_A\)
    • (2) \(P_C\lt P_B\lt P_A\lt P_D\)
    • (3) \(P_C\lt P_D\lt P_A\lt P_B\)
    • (4) \(P_A\lt P_B\lt P_C\lt P_D\)

    Question 46:

    For the following circuit and given inputs A and B, choose the correct option for output 'Y'
    Logic Gate

    • (1) 1
    • (2) 2
    • (3) 3
    • (4) 4

    Question 47:

    A body of mass \( (5 \pm 0.5) \, \text{kg} \) is moving with a velocity of \( (20 \pm 0.4) \, \text{m/s} \). Its kinetic energy will be:

    • (1) (1000 ± 0.14) J
    • (2) (1000 ± 140) J
    • (3) (500 ± 0.14) J
    • (4) (500 ± 140) J

    Question 48:

    The ratio of powers of two motors is \(\frac{3\sqrt x}{\sqrt x+1}\), that are capable of raising 300 kg water in 5 minutes and 50 kg water in 2 minutes respectively from a well of 100 m deep. The value of x will be

    • (1) 2
    • (2) 4
    • (3) 16
    • (4) 2.4

    Question 49:

    Two bodies having the same linear momentum have a ratio of kinetic energy as 16:9. Find the ratio of masses of these bodies.

    • (1) \(\frac{9}{16}\)
    • (2) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
    • (3) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
    • (4) \(\frac{16}{9}\)

    Question 50:
    Match List-I with List-II
    List- I
    (Layer of atmosphere)
     List- II
    (Approximate height over earth's surface)
    A.F1-Layer I.10 km
    B.D-LayerII.170-190 km
    C.TroposphereIII.100 km
    D.E-layerIV.65-75 km
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    • (1) A-II, B-IV, C- III, D - I
    • (2) A-III, B-IV, C - I, D - II
    • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D - III
    • (4) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D - III

    Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

    Question 51:

    When a resistance of 5Ω is shunted with a moving coil galvanometer, it shows a full scale deflection for a current of 250 mA, however when 1050Ω resistance is connected with it in series, it gives full scale deflection for 25 volt. The resistance of galvanometer is _____Ω .


    Question 52:

    A fish rising vertically upward with a uniform velocity of 8 ms-1, observes that a bird is diving vertically downward towards the fish with the velocity of 12 ms-1. If the refractive index of water is \(\frac{4}{3}\) , then the actual velocity of the diving bird to pick the fish, will be _______ ms-1


    Question 53:

    radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr's model is r1 and that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is represented as r2. Now the ratio\(\frac{ r_2}{r_1} \)is x: 1. The value of x is___.


    Question 54:

    If a wire of resistance R is connected across Vo, then power is Po. The wire is cut into two equal parts and connected with Vo individually, then the sum of power dissipated is P1, then \(\frac{Po}{Pi}\) is \(\frac{1}{x}\). Find the value of x.


    Question 55:

    In the given figure, an inductor and a resistor are connected in series with a battery of emf E volt. \(\frac{E^a}{2b}\) j/s represents the maximum rate at which the energy is stored in the magnetic field (inductor). The numerical value of \(\frac{b}{a}\) will be ______.
     


    Question 56:

    A particle is performing \(SHM\) having position \(x\) = \(A\; cos\; 30°\), and \(A\; = 40 \;cm\). If its kinetic energy at this position is \(200 \;J\), the value of force constant in \((kN/m)\) is?


    Question 57:

    A thin infinite sheet charge and an infinite line charge of respective charge densities +σ and +λ are placed parallel at 5 m distance from each other. Points ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are at \(\frac{3}{π} \)m and \(\frac{4}{π}\) m perpendicular distance from line charge towards sheet charge, respectively. ‘EP’ and ‘EQ’ are the magnitudes of resultant electric field intensities at point ‘P’ and ‘Q’, respectively. If \(\frac{E_p}{E_Q} =\frac{ 4}{a}\) for 2|σ| = |λ|. Then the value of a is _______.


    Question 58:

    A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal plane without slipping. If the ratio of angular momentum about axis of rotation of the sphere to the total energy of moving sphere is π : 22 then, the value of its angular speed will be ______ rad/s.


    Question 59:

    The elastic potential energy stored in a steel wire of length 20 m stretched through 2 cm is 80 J. The cross sectional area of the wire is______ mm2 . (Given, y = 2.0 x 1011 Nm-2)


    Question 60:

    From the given transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE configuration, the value of power gain of this configuration is 10x, for RB = 10 kΩ, and Rc = 1 kΩ. The value of x is_____.


    Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

    Question 61:

    In which of the following options the species changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic and bond order increases.

    • (1) \(N_2→N_{2}^{+}\)
    • (2) \(O_2→O_{2}^{+}\)
    • (3) \(NO→NO^+\)
    • (4) \(O_2→O^+\)

    Question 62:

    Which of the following statements are not correct?
    A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.
    B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of periodic table.
    C. The electronegativity of an atom depends upon the atoms bonded to it.
    D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    • (1) Α, B and D Only
    • (2) A, B, C and D
    • (3) B and D Only
    • (4) A, C and D Only

    Question 63:

    In the following reaction 'X' is
    CH3 (CH2)4 CH3 \(\frac{A n h y . A l C l _3 }{HCL\triangle}X\) major product

    • (1) CH3 (CH2)4 CH2Cl
    • (2) Cl-CH2-(CH2)4-CH2-Cl
    • (3)
    • (4)

    Question 64:

    In the reaction given below ‘A’ is

    • (1)
    • (2)
    • (3)
    • (4)

    Question 65:

    The mismatched combinations are
    A. Chlorophyll - Co 
    B. Water hardness - EDTA 
    C. Photography - [Ag(CN)2]- 
    D. Wilkinson catalyst - [(Ph3P)3 RhCl]  
    E. Chelating ligand-D- Penicillamine

    • (1) A, C and E only
    • (2) A and C only
    • (3) A and E only
    • (4) D and E only

    Question 66:

    ClF5 at room temperature is:

    • (1) Colourless liquid with trigonal bipyramidal geometry.
    • (2) Colourless liquid with square pyramidal geometry
    • (3) Colourless gas with square pyramidal geometry
    • (4) Colourless gas with trigonal bipyramidal geometry.

    Question 67:

    Among the following compounds, the one which shows highest dipole moment is

    • (1)
    • (2)
    • (3)
    • (4)

    Question 68:

    2-Methyl propyl bromide reacts with C2H5O- and gives 'A' whereas on reaction with C2H5OH it gives 'B'. The mechanism followed in these reactions and the products 'A' and 'B' respectively are

    • (1) SN2. A iso-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B = tert- butyl ethyl ether
    • (2) SN1, A tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B = iso- butyl ethyl ether
    • (3) SN1, A = tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B = 2- butyl ethyl ether
    • (4) SN2, A = 2-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B = iso- butyl ethyl ether

    Question 69:

    The pair of lanthanides will exceptionally high 3rd ionisation enthalpy than neighbouring elements:

    • (1) Lu and Yb
    • (2) Eu and Gb
    • (3) Eu and Yb
    • (4) Dy and Yb

    Question 70:

    In the reaction given below ‘B’ is:

    • (1)
    • (2)
    • (3)
    • (4)

    Question 71:

     Left hand side and right hand side rings are named as 'A' and 'B'
    In the above reaction. Left hand side and right hand side rings are named as 'A' and 'B' respectively. They undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this process is:

    • (1) Finally both rings will become six membered each.
    • (2) Finally both rings will become five membered each.
    • (3) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered rings
    • (4) Only 'A' will become 6 membered.

    Question 72:

    D-(+)- Glyceraldehyde  
    The two products formed in above reaction are

    • (1) Two optically active products
    • (2) One optically active and one meso product
    • (3) wo optically inactive products
    • (4) One optically inactive and one meso product.

    Question 73:

    The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is \(-2.18×10^{-18}J\). Its energy in the third Bohr orbit is ____.

    • (1) One third of this value
    • (2) \(\frac{1}{9}\) th of this value
    • (3) Three times of this value
    • (4) \(\frac{1}{27}\) of this value

    Question 74:

    Which of the following free radicals helps in depletion of the ozone layer?

    • (1) NO
    • (2) Cl
    • (3) OH
    • (4) CH3

    Question 75:

    What happens when lyophilic sol is added to lyophobic sol. prevention from coagulation precipitation emulsion electrophoresis

    • (1) Prevention from coagulation
    • (2) Precipitation
    • (3) Emulsion
    • (4) Electrophoresis

    Question 76:

    Which of the following shows an incorrect method of refining?

    • (1) Zinc : Liquation
    • (2) Copper : Electrolysis
    • (3) Titanium : Van Arkel Method
    • (4) Nickel : Mond’s Process

    Question 77:

    Incorrect statement about Borazine is:

    • (1) It has banana shape bonds
    • (2) It has electron delocalisation
    • (3) It reacts with water
    • (4) Cyclic in nature

    Question 78:
    Match the following
    Column-AColumn-B
     Nylon 6Natural Rubber 
    Vulcanized RubberCross Linked 
    cis-1,4-polyisopreneCaprolactam 
    PolychloropreneNeoprene.

    Choose the correct answer from option given below

    • (1) a→ II, b→ III, c→ IV, d→I
    • (2) a→ III, b→II, c→I, d→ IV
    • (3) a→ III, b→ IV, c→I, d→ II
    • (4) a→ IV, b-III, c→ II, d→I

    Question 79:

    Be(OH)2 reacts with Sr(OH)2 to yield an ionic salt. Choose the incorrect option related to this reaction from the following:

    • (1) Both Sr and Be elements are present in the ionic salt.
    • (2) The reaction is an example of acid - base neutralization reaction.
    • (3) The element Be is present in the cationic part of the ionic salt.
    • (4) Be is tetrahedrally coordinated in the ionic salt.

    Question 80:

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Permutit process is more efficient compared to the synthetic resin method for the softening of water.
    Statement II: Synthetic resin method results in the formation of soluble sodium salts.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    • (1) Both the Statements I and II are correct
    • (2) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect
    • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

    Question 81:

    KMnO4 is titrated with ferrous ammonium sulphate hexahydrate in presence of dilute H2SO4. Number of water molecules produced for 2 molecules of KMnO4 is______.


    Question 82:

    An organic compound on combustion gives 0.22 g of CO2 and 0.126 g of H2O. If the percentage of C in given organic compound is 40%, the percentage of H will be?


    Question 83:

    For a first-order reaction, if the value of \(t_{\frac{1}{2}}\) is T, then the value of \(t_{\frac{7}{8}}\) will be_____ T.


    Question 84:

    For the given reaction
    The total number of possible products formed by tertiary carbocation
    The total number of possible products formed by tertiary carbocation of A is____.


    Question 85:

    20 mL of calcium hydroxide was consumed when it was reacted with 10 mL of unknown solution of H2SO4. Also 20 mL standard solution of 0.5 M HCI containing 2 drops of phenolphthalein was titrated with calcium hydroxide the mixture showed pink colour when burette displayed the value of 35.5 mL whereas the burette showed 25.5 mL initially. The concentration of H2SO4 is_____M (Nearest integer)


    Question 86:

    Solution of 12 g of non-electrolyte (A) prepared by dissolving it in 1000 mL of water exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same temperature. The empirical formula of A is CH2O. The molecular mass of A is ____ g. (Nearest integer)


    Question 87:

    A metal surface of 100 cm2 area has to be coated with nickel layer of thickness 0.001mm. A current of 2A was passed through a solution of Ni (NO3)2 for 'x' seconds to coat the desired layer. The value of x is_____ (Nearest integer)
     (PNi (density of Nickel) is 10 gmL-1, Molar mass of Nickel is 60 gmol-1 F = 96500 C mol-1)


    Question 88:

    A2+B2→2AB. \(ΔH^0_f\)= -200 kJ mol-1 AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecule. If the bond enthalpies of A2, B2 and AB are in the ratio 1:0.5:1, then the bond enthalpy of A2 is ___ kJmol-1 (Nearest integer)


    Question 89:

    25.0 mL of 0.050 M Ba(NO3)2 is mixed with 25.0 mL of 0.020 M NaF. Ksp of BaF2 is 0.5 x 10-6 at 298 K. The ratio of [Ba2+] [F-]2 and Ksp is__ (Nearest integer)


    Question 90:

    A certain quantity of real gas occupies a volume of 30.15 dm3 at 100 atm and 500 K when its compressibility factor is 1.07. Its volume at 300 atm and 300K (When its compressibility factor is 1.4) is _____ x 10-4 dm3 (Nearest integer)

    JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

    Particulars Details
    Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
    Paper B.E./B.Tech
    Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
    Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
    Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
    Total Marks 300 marks
    Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
    Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
    Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
    Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

    JEE Main 2023 Physics Paper Analysis April 13 Shift 1

    JEE Main 2023 Physics Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on April 13 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on April 13 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

    JEE Main 2023 Physics Question Paper Pattern

    Feature Question Paper Pattern
    Examination Mode Computer-based Test
    Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
    Exam Duration 3 hours
    Sectional Time Limit None
    Physics Marks 100 marks
    Total Number of Questions Asked 20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
    Total Number of Questions to be Answered 20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
    Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
    Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

    Also Check:

    JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper