JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 8, 2023, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let A = \(\left\{ \theta \in (0, 2\pi) : \frac{1 + 2i \sin \theta}{1 - i \sin \theta} \text{ is purely imaginary} \right\}\). Then the sum of the elements in A is.

  • (1) 2π
  • (2) 3π
  • (3) 4π
  • (4) π

Question 2:

25190 - 19190 - 8190 + 2190 is divisible by

  • (1) both 14 and 34
  • (2) 14 but not 34
  • (3) 34 but not 14
  • (4) neither 14 nor 34

Question 3:

The integral \(\int \left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x + \left(\frac{2}{x}\right)^x \log x \, dx\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x \log_2 \left(\frac{2}{x}\right) + C\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x - \left(\frac{2}{x}\right)^x + C\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x \log_2 \left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + C\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x + \left(\frac{2}{x}\right)^x + C\)

Question 4:

If the probability that the random variable \( X \) takes values \( x \) is given by \( P(X = x) = k(x + 1) 3^{-x}, x = 0, 1, 2, \dots \), where \( k \) is a constant, then \( P(X \geq 2) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{18}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{10}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{20}{27}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{27}\)

Question 5:

Let \( A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7\} \). Then the relation \( R = \{(x, y) \in A \times A : x + y = 7\} \) is:

  • (1) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
  • (2) Transitive but neither symmetric nor reflexive
  • (3) An equivalence relation
  • (4)  Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive

Question 6:

Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be \( \frac{9}{2} \) and 4, respectively. Later on, it was observed that two observations were considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is \( \frac{m}{n} \), where \( m \) and \( n \) are coprime, then \( m + n \) is equal to:

  • (1) 314
  • (2) 315
  • (3) 316
  • (4) 317

Question 7:

The absolute difference of the coefficients of \(x^{10}\) and \(x^7\) in the expansion of \(\left(2x^2 + \frac{1}{2x}\right)^{11}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(10^3 - 10\)
  • (2) \(12^3 - 12\)
  • (3) \(11^3 - 11\)
  • (4) \(13^3 - 13\)

Question 8:

The area of the quadrilateral having vertices as (1,2), (5,6), (7,6), (-1,-6) is?


Question 9:

If the number of words, with or without meaning, which can be made using all the letters of the word MATHEMATICS in which C and S do not come together, is (6!)k , is equal to

  • (1) 5670
  • (2) 1890
  • (3) 595
  • (4) 657

Question 10:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 5 \\ \lambda & 10 \end{bmatrix} \), \( A^{-1} = \alpha A + \beta I \) and \( \alpha + \beta = -2 \), then \( 4\alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \lambda^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 19

Question 11:

If α > β > 0 are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, and \(\lim\limits_{x \to \frac{1}{\alpha}}\left(\frac{1-cos(x^2+bx+a)}{2(1-ax)^2}\right)^{1/2}=\frac{1}{k}\left(\frac{1}{\beta}-\frac{1}{\alpha}\right),\) then k is equal to

  • (1) α
  • (2) β
  • (3) 2α
  • (4) 2β

Question 12:

The value of \( 36 \big(4 \cos^2 9^\circ - 1\big) \big(4 \cos^2 27^\circ - 1\big) \big(4 \cos^2 81^\circ - 1\big) \big(4 \cos^2 243^\circ - 1\big) \) is:

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 54

Question 13:

Let S be the set of all values of θ Ε [-π, π] for which the system of linear equations
x+y+√3z=0
-x+(tanθ)y+ √7z=0
x+y+(tanθ)z = 0 has non-trivial solution.
Then 120/π ∑θθ∈s is equal to

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 40

Question 14:

Let O be the origin and OP and OQ be the tangents to the circle \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x + 4y + 8 = 0 \) at the points P and Q on it. If the circumcircle of the triangle OPQ passes through the point \( \left( \alpha, \frac{1}{2} \right) \), then a value of \( \alpha \) is.

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 15:

Let an be the nth term of the series 5 + 8 + 14 + 23 + 35 + 50 +.... and Sn = \(\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k.\) Then S30 - a40 is equal to

  • (1) 11260
  • (2) 11280
  • (3) 11290
  • (4) 11310

Question 16:

Let the vectors \(\mathbf{u}_1 = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + a\hat{k}, \mathbf{u}_2 = \hat{i} + b\hat{j} + \hat{k}\), and \(\mathbf{u}_3 = c\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}\) be coplanar. If the vectors \(\mathbf{v}_1 = (a + b)\hat{i} + c\hat{j} + c\hat{k}, \mathbf{v}_2 = a\hat{i} + (b + c)\hat{j} + a\hat{k}, \mathbf{v}_3 = b\hat{i} + b\hat{j} + (c + a)\hat{k}\) are also coplanar, then \(6(a + b + c)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12

Question 17:

For \(a, b \in \mathbb{Z}\) and \(|a - b| \leq 10\), let the angle between the plane \(P: ax + y - z = b\) and the line \(L: x - 1 = a - y = z + 1\) be \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\). If the distance of the point \((6, -6, 4)\) from the plane \(P\) is \(3\sqrt{6}\), then \(a^4 + b^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 85

Question 18:

The negation of \( (p \land (\sim q)) \lor (\sim p) \) is equivalent to:

  • (1) \( p \land (\sim q) \)
  • (2) \( p \land q \)
  • (3) \( p \land (q \land (\sim p)) \)
  • (4) \( p \lor (q \lor (\sim p)) \)

Question 19:

Let P be the plane passing through the line \(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{-3}=\frac{z+5}{7}\) and the point (2, 4, –3). If the image of the point (-1, 3, 4) in the plane P is (α, β, γ) then α + β + γ is equal to

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 12

Question 20:

Let \( A(0, 1) \), \( B(1, 1) \), and \( C(1, 0) \) be the midpoints of the sides of a triangle with incentre at the point \( D \). If the focus of the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \) passing through \( D \) is \( (\alpha + \beta \sqrt{3}, 0) \), where \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are rational numbers, then \( \frac{\alpha}{\beta^2} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 9/2
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 12

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If \(\int\limits_0^{2.4}[x^2]dx=α+β√2+γ√3+δ√5,\) then α+β+γ +δ is equal to _____.


Question 22:

Let the area enclosed by the lines \( x + y = 2 \), \( y = 0 \), \( x = 0 \), and the curve \( f(x) = \min \left\{ x^2 + \frac{3}{4}, 1 + [x] \right\} \), where \( [x] \) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \( x \), be \( A \). Then the value of \( 12A \) is ____________.


Question 23:

Let \( m \) and \( n \) be the numbers of real roots of the quadratic equations \( x^2 - 12x + [x] + 31 = 0 \) and \( x^2 - 5|x+2| - 4 = 0 \), respectively, where \( [x] \) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \( x \). Then \( m^2 + mn + n^2 \) is equal to ___________.


Question 24:

Let \( R = \{a, b, c, d, e\} \) and \( S = \{1, 2, 3, 4\} \). Total number of onto functions \( f: R \to S \) such that \( f(a) \neq 1 \), is equal to:

  • (1) 240
  • (2) 180
  • (3) 204
  • (4) 216

Question 25:

Let \( k \) and \( m \) be positive real numbers such that the function} \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} 3x^2 + \frac{k}{\sqrt{x} + 1}, & 0 < x < 1, \\ mx^2 + k^2, & x \geq 1 \end{cases} \] is differentiable for all \( x > 0 \). Then \( 8f'(8) \left(\frac{1}{f(8)}\right) \) is equal to __________


Question 26:

Let the solution curve \( x = x(y) \), \( 0 < y \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \), of the differential equation \[ (\log_e (\cos y))^2 \cos y \, dx - (1 + 3x \log_e (\cos y)) \sin y \, dy = 0 \] satisfy \( x \left( \frac{\pi}{3} \right) = \frac{1}{2 \log_e 2} \). If \( x \left( \frac{\pi}{6} \right) = \frac{1}{\log_e m - \log_e n} \), where \( m \) and \( n \) are co-prime integers, then \( mn \) is equal to ______.


Question 27:

f domain of the function \[ f(x) = \log_e \left(\frac{6x^2 + 5x + 1}{2x - 1}\right) + \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2x^2 - 3x + 4}{3x - 5}\right) \] is \( (\alpha, \beta) \cup (\gamma, \delta) \), then \( 18(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 + \delta^2) \) is equal to __________.


Question 28:

Let P₁ be the plane 3x-y-7z = 11 and P₂ be the plane passing through the points (2,-1,0), (2,0,-1), and (5,1,1). If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (7,4,-1) on the line of intersection of the planes P₁ and P₂ is (α, β, γ), then a + ẞ+ y is equal to


Question 29:

A parabola with focus (3, 0) and directrix x = –3. Points P and Q lie on the parabola and their ordinates are in the ratio 3 : 1. The point of intersection of tangents drawn at points P and Q lies on the parabola

  • (1) y2 = 16x
  • (2) y2 = 4x
  • (3) y2 = 8x
  • (4) x2 = 4y

Question 30:

Let \( 0 < z < y < x \) be three real numbers such that \( \frac{1}{x}, \frac{1}{y}, \frac{1}{z} \) are in an arithmetic progression and \( x, \sqrt{2}y, z \) are in a geometric progression. If \( xy + yz + zx = \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} xyz \), then \( 3(x + y + z)^2 \) is equal to ____________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross section of the cylinder carrying the load is 250 cm². The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is [Assume g = 10 m/s²]:

  • (1) 20 × 10+6 Pa
  • (2) 2 × 10+5 Pa
  • (3) 200 × 10+6 Pa
  • (4) 2 × 10+6 Pa

Question 32:

An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T, when moves with a velocity of:

  • (1) 20 ms-1
  • (2) 2 ms-1
  • (3) 0.5 ms-1
  • (4) 3.2 ms-1

Question 33:

For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular velocity ω, as shown in below figure, the projection of OP on the x-axis at time t is
For particle P revolving round the centre O

  • (1) x(t) = rcos (ωt )
  • (2) x(t) = rcos (ωt - \(\frac{π}{6}\) ω)
  • (3) x(t) = rcos (ωt + \(\frac{π}{6}\))
  • (4) x(t) = rsin (ωt + \(\frac{π}{6}\))

Question 34:

In photo electric effect
A. The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity of incident light.
C. Max. K.E with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the frequency of incident light.
D. The emission of photoelectrons require a minimum threshold intensity of incident radiation.
E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of the frequency of the incident light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) A and E only

Question 35:

A bullet of mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally with speed 400 ms-1 hits a wooden block of mass 3.9 kg kept on a horizontal rough surface. The bullet gets embedded into the block and moves 20m before coming to rest. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is ______.
(Given g = 10 m/s²)

  • (1) 0.25
  • (2) 0.50
  • (3) 0.65
  • (4) 0.90

Question 36:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Area under velocity- time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given time.
Statement II: Area under acceleration-time graph is equal to the change in velocity- in the given time.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is True.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 37:

Which of the following expressions give the value of acceleration due to gravity (g') at the altitude h above the surface of Earth.
(R = radius of Earth, g = acceleration due to gravity at surface of Earth)

  • (1) \( g' = g \left( 1 - \frac{h^2}{2R^2} \right) \)
  • (2) \( g' = g \left( 1 - \frac{2h}{R} \right) \)
  • (3) \( g' = g \left( 1 - \frac{h}{2R} \right) \)
  • (4) \( g' = g \left( 1 - \frac{2h^2}{R^2} \right) \)

Question 38:

The equivalent resistance between \( A \) and \( B \) as shown in the figure is:
The equivalent resistance between

  • (1) 5 Ω
  • (2) 10 Ω
  • (3) 20 Ω
  • (4) 40 Ω

Question 39:

The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high-energy electrons are:

  • (1) X-ray
  • (2) Infrared
  • (3) Microwaves
  • (4) Radiowave

Question 40:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
Reason R : Soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.
In the light of above, statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 41:

Electric potential at a point \( P \) due to a point charge of \( 5 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{C} \) is \( 50 \, \text{V} \). The distance of \( P \) from the point charge is:

  • (1) 90 cm
  • (2) 70 cm
  • (3) 60 cm
  • (4) 50 cm

Question 42:

The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h from earth surface. If the distance of satellite from the earth centre is increased by eight times to its initial value, then the new angular momentum will be

  • (1) 3L
  • (2) 4L
  • (3) 8L
  • (4) 9L

Question 43:

The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at 27°C is

  • (1) 327°C
  • (2) 627°C
  • (3) 927°C
  • (4) 1227°C

Question 44:

The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by y=x-x2/20. Where x and y are measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be

  • (1) 5m
  • (2) 10√2m
  • (3) 10m
  • (4) 200m

Question 45:

The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of 400 nm. The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:

  • (1) 2mm
  • (2) 3mm
  • (3) 4mm
  • (4) 1.33mm

Question 46: Match List I with List II
LIST ILIST II
A.TorqueI.\(\mathrm{ML^{-2}T^{-2}}\)
B.StressII.\(\mathrm{ML^{2}T^{-2}}\)
C.Pressure gradientIII.\(\mathrm{ML^{-1}T^{-1}}\)
D.Coefficient of viscosityIV.\(\mathrm{ML^{-1}T^{-2}}\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 47:

For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE configuration VCC = 1 V, Rc = 1 kΩ, Rb = 100 kΩ and β = 100. Value of base current Ib is

For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE

  • (1) Ib = 0.1 μΑ
  • (2) Ib = 10 μΑ
  • (3) Ib = 1.0 μΑ
  • (4) Ib = 100 μΑ

Question 48:

A radio active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original amount in 3 days.
If 8×10-3 kg of the material is left after 5 days the initial amount of the material is

  • (1) 32g
  • (2) 40g
  • (3) 256g
  • (4) 64g

Question 49:

The power radiated from a linear antenna of length \( l \) is proportional to: (Given, \( \lambda \) = Wavelength of wave):

  • (1) \(\frac{l}{λ}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{l}{λ^2}\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{l}{λ}\right)^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{l^2}{λ}\)

Question 50:

A Carnot engine working between 27°C and 127°C performs 2 kJ of work. The amount of heat rejected is equal to:

  • (1) 4 kJ
  • (2) 8 kJ
  • (3) 6 kJ
  • (4) 12 kJ

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The number density of free electrons in copper is nearly 8 × 1028 m-3. A copper wire has its area of cross section = 2 × 10-6 m² and is carrying a current of 3.2 A. The drift speed of the electrons is _____ ×10-6 ms-1


Question 52:

Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting surface of radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and a point object is placed on the principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the surface. The distance of image from the pole of the surface is _____ cm.


Question 53:

A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of the string producing a fundamental frequency of 180 Hz will be _______ cm.


Question 54:

A body of mass \( 5 \, \text{kg} \) is moving with a momentum of \( 10 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{ms}^{-1} \). Now a force of \( 2 \, \text{N} \) acts on the body in the direction of its motion for \( 5 \, \text{s} \). The increase in the kinetic energy of the body is _____ J.


Question 55:

The ratio of the wavelength of spectral lines \( H_\alpha \) and \( H_\beta \) in the Balmer series is \( \frac{x}{20} \). The value of \( x \) is _______.


Question 56:

A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional area 10-4 m² is heated from 0°C to 200°C without being allowed to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is______ ×104N. (Given Young's modulus of steel = 2×1011 Nm-2, coefficient of linear expansion = 10-5K-1)


Question 57:

A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity 3 m/s (as shown in figure). Maximum height with respect to the initial position covered by it will be_____ cm (take, g = 10 m/s²)

A hollow spherical ball of uniform density


Question 58:

The ratio of magnetic field due to coil at centre and at distance of R from the centre on the axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of ring is : 1x (R is the radius of coil), find the value of x.


Question 59:

A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is _____ μ.J


Question 60:

A series combination of resistor of resistance 100 Ω, inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor of capacitance 6.25 µF is connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be ______


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61: Match List l with List ll.
List I Coordination Complex List II Number of unpaired electrons
(I) [Cr(CN)6]3- (a) 0
(II) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (b) 3
(III) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (c) 2
(IV) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (d) 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 62:

The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is.
 2 Methyl 5 oxohexanoic acid

  • (1) 2 Methyl 5 oxohexanoic acid
  • (2) 2 Formyl 5 methylhexan 6 oic acid
  • (3) 5 Formyl 2 methylhexanoic acid
  • (4) 5 Methyl 2 oxohexan 6 oic acid

Question 63:

Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:

Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:

  • (1)
    Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:
  • (2)
    Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:
  • (3)
    Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:
  • (4)
    Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:

Question 64:

A compound 'X' when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) yields 'Y'. 'Y' is used as an acid/base indicator. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively

  • (1) Toludine, Phenolphthalein
  • (2) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
  • (3) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
  • (4) Anisole, methyl orange

Question 65:

Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements. The graph which represents his observation correctly is
Given v = frequency of X-ray emitted
Z = atomic number

  • (1)
    Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements.
  • (2)
    Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements.
  • (3)
    Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements.
  • (4)
    Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements.

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in pH of the solution.
Statement II: In acid-base titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 67:

In good quality cement ratio of lime total oxides of Si(SiO\(_2\)), Aluminium(Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) and Iron(Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)) should be as close as possible to _____ .


Question 68:

The correct order of reactivity of following haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution with aqueous NaOH is 
 order of reactivity of following haloarenes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A>B>D>C
  • (2) C>A>D>B
  • (3) D>C>B>A
  • (4) D>B>A>C

Question 69:

The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction .

  • (1)
    profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction
  • (2)
    profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction
  • (3)
    profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction
  • (4)
    profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction

Question 70: Match List l with List ll.
List I Natural amino acid List II One letter code
(I) Glutamic acid (a) Q
(II) Glutamine (b) W
(III) Tyrosine (c) E
(IV) Tryptophan (d) Y
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 71:

The product (P) formed from the following multistep reaction is:

The product (P) formed from the following multistep

  • (1)
    The product (P) formed from the following multistep
  • (2)
    The product (P) formed from the following multistep
  • (3)
    The product (P) formed from the following multistep
  • (4)
    The product (P) formed from the following multistep

Question 72:

The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is-
A. CH3COOH
B. F3C-COOH
C. CICH2-COOH
D. FCH2-COOH
E. BrCH2-COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) E>D>B>A>C
  • (2) B>C>D>E>A
  • (3) D>B>A>E>C
  • (4) B>D>C>E>A

Question 73:

Statement-1: Methyl orange is a weak acid 
Statement-2: Benzenoid form of methyl orange is deeply coloured than quinonoid form
Check out which of the above statement is true?

  • (1) Statement-1 is correct and Statement-2 is wrong
  • (2) Both the Statements-1 and Statement-2 are correct
  • (3) Statement-1 is wrong and Statement-2 is correct
  • (4) None of them

Question 74:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Sodium is about 30 times as abundant as potassium in the oceans.
Reason R : Potassium is bigger in size than sodium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 75:

Which of the following have same number of significant figures?
A. 0.00253
B. 1.0003
C. 15.0
D. 163
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) A, B and C only
  • (4) A, C and D only

Question 76:

Arrange the following gases in increasing order of van der Waals constant 'a'
A. Ar
B. CH4
C. H₂O
D. C6H6
Choose the correct option from the following.

  • (1) A, B, C and D
  • (2) D, C, B and A
  • (3) B, C, D and A
  • (4) C, D, B and A

Question 77:

Which of these reactions is not a part of breakdown of ozone in stratosphere?

  • (1) \(CF_2Cl_2(g)\xrightarrow{uv}\dot{C}l(g)+\dot{C}F_2Cl(g)\)
  • (2) \(C\dot{l}(g)+O_3(g)\rightarrow Cl\dot{O}(g)+O_2(g)\)
  • (3) \(Cl\dot{O}(g)+O(g)\rightarrow C\dot{l}(g)+O_2(g)\)
  • (4) \(2Cl\dot{O}\rightarrow ClO_2(g)+C\dot{l}(g)\)

Question 78:

The statement/s which are true about antagonists from the following is/are:
A. They bind to the receptor site.
B. Get transferred inside the cell for their action.
C. Inhibit the natural communication of the body.
D. Mimic the natural messenger.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B
  • (2) A, C and D
  • (3) B only
  • (4) A and C

Question 79:

In Hall - Heroult process, the following is used for reducing Al2O3 :-

  • (1) Na3AlF6
  • (2) Graphite
  • (3) Magnesium
  • (4) CaF2

Question 80:

Which of the following acts as a stabilizer in the decomposition of H2O2?

  • (1) Urea
  • (2) Alkali
  • (3) Glass
  • (4) Dust

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is ______ .
XeF5+, XeO3, XeO2F2, XeF5-, XeO3F2, XeOF4, XeF4


Question 82:

Total spin only magnetic moment of the ion [Mn(SCN)6]x– is 5.92 B.M. Find out the value of x.

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 83:

The solubility product of BaSO₄ is \(1 \times 10^{-10}\) at 298 K. The solubility of BaSO₄ in 0.1 M K₂SO₄(aq) is \(x \times 10^{-9}\) g L⁻¹. Calculate the value of \(x\).


Question 84:

If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio 2:1 and their enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio 1:2, then the boiling point elevation constant of X is m times the boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is ______ (nearest integer).


Question 85:

For complete combustion of ethene,
\(C_2H_4(g) + 3O_2(g) \longrightarrow 2CO_2(g) + 2H_2O (l)\)
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1406 kJ mol-1 at 300K. The minimum value of \(T\Delta S\) needed to reach equilibrium is (-) _____ . kJ.(Nearest integer)
Given: R = 8.3 J K-1 mol-1


Question 86:

The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is ___________.
\(7s,\ 7p,\ 6s,\ 8p,\ 8d\)


Question 87:

Find out the oxidation number of the central metal atom of fe(CO)5 , VO2+, and WO3. Then calculate the sum of their oxidation state.


Question 88:

The number of incorrect statements from the following is _____
A. The electrical work that a reaction can perform at constant pressure and temperature is equal to the reaction Gibbs energy.
B. E°cell is dependent on the pressure.
C. dEθ cell/dT = ΔrSθ/nF
D. A cell is operating reversibly if the cell potential is exactly balanced by an opposing source of potential difference.


Question 89:

What is the ratio of σ and pi bonds in pyrophosphoric acid ?


Question 90:

Coagulating value of the electrolytes AlCl3 and NaCl for As2S3 are 0.09 and 50.04 respectively. The coagulating power of AlCl3 is x times the coagulating power of NaCl. The value of x is ______ .

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics