JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 29, 2025, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2025 January 29 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If the set of all \( a \in \mathbb{R} \), for which the equation \( 2x^2 + (a - 5)x + 15 = 3a \) has no real root, is the interval \( (\alpha, \beta) \), and \( X = \{ x \in \mathbb{Z} : \alpha < x < \beta \} \), then \( \sum_{x \in X} x^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 2109
  • (2) 2129
  • (3) 2139
  • (4) 2119

Question 2:

If \( \sin x + \sin^2 x = 1 \), \( x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \), then the expression
\[ (\cos^2 x + \tan^2 x) + 3(\cos^4 x + \tan^4 x + \cos^4 x + \tan^4 x) + (\cos^6 x + \tan^6 x) \]

is equal to:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1

Question 3:

Let the area enclosed between the curves \( |y| = 1 - x^2 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 = 1 \) be \( \alpha \). If \( 9\alpha = \beta\pi + \gamma \); \( \beta, \gamma \) are integers, then the value of \( |\beta - \gamma| \) equals:

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 33

Question 4:

If the domain of the function \( \log_5 (18x - x^2 - 77) \) is \( (\alpha, \beta) \) and the domain of the function \[ \log_{(x-1)} \left( \frac{2x^2 + 3x - 2}{x^2 - 3x - 4} \right) \]
is \( (\gamma, \delta) \), then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 195
  • (2) 174
  • (3) 186
  • (4) 179

Question 5:

Let the function \(f(x) = (x^2 - 1)|x^2 - ax + 2| + \cos|x| \) be not differentiable at the two points \( x = \alpha = 2 \) and \( x = \beta \). Then the distance of the point \((\alpha, \beta)\) from the line \(12x + 5y + 10 = 0\) is equal to:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 5

Question 6:

Let a straight line \( L \) pass through the point \(P(2, -1, 3)\) and be perpendicular to the lines \[ \frac{x - 1}{2} = \frac{y + 1}{1} = \frac{z - 3}{-2} \quad and \quad \frac{x - 3}{1} = \frac{y - 2}{3} = \frac{z + 2}{4}. \]
If the line \(L\) intersects the yz-plane at the point Q, then the distance between the points P and Q is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (3) 3
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{3}\)

Question 7:

Let \( S = \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\} \). Define a relation \( R \) from \( S \) to \( \mathbb{R} \) by: \[ R = \left\{ (x, y) : \log_e y = x \log_e \left(\frac{2}{5}\right), x \in S, y \in \mathbb{R} \right\}. \]
Then, the sum of all the elements in the range of \( R \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10}{9} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{2} \)

Question 8:

Let the line \(x + y = 1\) meet the axes of x and y at A and B, respectively. A right-angled triangle AMN is inscribed in the triangle OAB, where O is the origin and the points M and N lie on the lines OB and AB, respectively. If the area of the triangle AMN is \(\frac{4}{9}\) of the area of the triangle OAB and \(AN : NB = \lambda : 1\), then the sum of all possible values of \(\lambda\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13}{6}\)
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 2

Question 9:

If \(\alpha x + \beta y = 109\) is the equation of the chord of the ellipse \[ \frac{x^2}{9} + \frac{y^2}{4} = 1 \]
whose midpoint is \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right)\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 37
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 58
  • (4) 72

Question 10:

If all the words with or without meaning made using all the letters of the word "KANPUR" are arranged as in a dictionary, then the word at 440th position in this arrangement is:

  • (1) PRNAKU
  • (2) PRKANU
  • (3) PRKAUN
  • (4) PRNAUK

Question 11:

Let \( \alpha, \beta (\alpha \neq \beta) \) be the values of m, for which the equations \(x + y + z = 1\), \(x + 2y + 4z = m\), and \(x + 4y + 10z = m^2\) have infinitely many solutions. Then the value of \(\sum_{n=1}^{10} (n^4 + n^8)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 440
  • (2) 3080
  • (3) 3410
  • (4) 560

Question 12:

Let \( A = [a_{ij}] \) be a matrix of order 3 \(\times\) 3, with \(a_{ij} = (\sqrt{2})^{i+j}\). If the sum of all the elements in the third row of \( A^2 \) is \( \alpha + \beta\sqrt{2} \), where \(\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{Z}\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 280
  • (2) 168
  • (3) 210
  • (4) 224

Question 13:

Let P be the foot of the perpendicular from the point \( (1, 2, 2) \) on the line \[ \frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y + 1}{-1} = \frac{z - 2}{2} \]
Let the line \( \mathbf{r} = (-\hat{i} + \hat{j} - 2\hat{k}) + \lambda (\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k})\), \( \lambda \in \mathbb{R} \), intersect the line \(L\) at \(Q\). Then \( 2(PQ)^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 29
  • (4) 19

Question 14:

Let a circle C pass through the points (4, 2) and (0, 2), and its centre lie on \(3x + 2y + 2 = 0\). Then the length of the chord of the circle C, whose midpoint is (1, 2), is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) 2\(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 15:

Let \( A = [a_{ij}] \) be a 2 \(\times\) 2 matrix such that \(a_{ij} \in \{0, 1\}\) for all \(i\) and \(j\). Let the random variable X denote the possible values of the determinant of the matrix A. Then, the variance of X is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 16:

Bag 1 contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls, and Bag 2 contains n white balls and 3 black balls. One ball is drawn randomly from Bag 1 and transferred to Bag 2. A ball is then drawn randomly from Bag 2. If the probability that the ball drawn is white is \(\frac{29}{45}\), then n is equal to:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6

Question 17:

The remainder, when \(7^{98}\) is divided by 23, is equal to:

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 6

Question 18:

Let \(f(x) = \int_{1}^{x} (t^2 - 9t + 20) \, dt\), \(1 \leq x \leq 5\). If the range of \(f(x)\) is \( [\alpha, \beta] \), then \(4(\alpha + \beta)\) equals:

  • (1) 157
  • (2) 253
  • (3) 125
  • (4) 154

Question 19:

Let \( \hat{a} \) be a unit vector perpendicular to the vectors \[ \mathbf{b} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \quad and \quad \mathbf{c} = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - \hat{k}, \]
and makes an angle of \( \cos\left( -\frac{1}{3} \right) \) with the vector \( \hat{i} + \alpha \hat{j} + \hat{k} \).
If \( \hat{a} \) makes an angle with the vector \( \hat{i} + \alpha \hat{j} + \hat{k} \),
then the value of \( \alpha \) is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{6} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{6} \)

Question 20:

If for the solution curve \( y = f(x) \) of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} + (\tan x) y = 2 + \sec^2 x, \quad y(\frac{\pi}{3}) = \sqrt{3}, \]
then \( y(\frac{\pi{4}} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{3 + \sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3 + 1}{(1 + \sqrt{3})} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3 + \sqrt{3}}{(4 + \sqrt{3})} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4 - \sqrt{2}}{14} \)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

If \[ 24 \left( \int_0^\frac{\pi}{4} \left[ \sin \left( 4x - \frac{\pi}{12} \right) + [2 \sin x] \right] dx \right) = 2n + \alpha, \]
where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then \( \alpha \) is equal to:


Question 22:

If \( \lim_{t \to \infty} \left( \int_0^{1} \left( 3x + 5 \right)^t dx \right) = \frac{\alpha}{5e} \left( \frac{8}{5} \right)^{\frac{3}{2}}, \) then \( \alpha \) is equal to ____ :


Question 23:

Let \( a_1, a_2, \dots, a_{2024} \) be an Arithmetic Progression such that \[ a_1 + (a_1 + a_0 + a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{2020} + a_{2024}) = 2233. \quad Then \quad a_1 + a_2 + a_3 + \dots + a_{2022} \]
is equal to ____ :


Question 24:

Let integers \( a, b \in [-3,3] \) be such that \( a + b \neq 0 \).

Then the number of all possible ordered pairs \( (a, b) \), for which

\[ \left| \frac{z - a}{z + b} \right| = 1 \]

and

\[ \begin{vmatrix} z+1 & \omega & \omega^2 \\ \omega^2 & 1 & z+\omega \\ \omega^2 & 1 & z+\omega \end{vmatrix} = 1, \]

is equal to:


Question 25:

Let \( y^2 = 12x \) be the parabola and \( S \) its focus. Let \( PQ \) be a focal chord of the parabola such that \( (SP)(SQ) = \frac{147}{4} \).

Let \( C \) be the circle described taking \( PQ \) as a diameter. If the equation of a circle \( C \) is

\[ 64x^2 + 64y^2 - \alpha x - 64\sqrt{3}y = \beta, \]

then \( \beta - \alpha \) is equal to:


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

The difference of temperature in a material can convert heat energy into electrical energy. To harvest the heat energy, the material should have:

  • (1) low thermal conductivity and low electrical conductivity
  • (2) high thermal conductivity and high electrical conductivity
  • (3) low thermal conductivity and high electrical conductivity
  • (4) high thermal conductivity and low electrical conductivity

Question 27:

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): With the increase in the pressure of an ideal gas, the volume falls off more rapidly in an isothermal process in comparison to the adiabatic process.

Reason (R): In an isothermal process, \( PV = constant \), while in an adiabatic process \( PV^\gamma = constant \). Here, \( \gamma \) is the ratio of specific heats, \( P \) is the pressure and \( V \) is the volume of the ideal gas.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 28:

An electric dipole is placed at a distance of 2 cm from an infinite plane sheet having positive charge density \( \sigma \). Choose the correct option from the following.

  • (1) Torque on dipole is zero and net force is directed away from the sheet.
  • (2) Torque on dipole is zero and net force acts towards the sheet.
  • (3) Potential energy of dipole is minimum and torque is zero.
  • (4) Potential energy and torque both are maximum.

Question 29:

In an experiment with photoelectric effect, the stopping potential:

  • (1) increases with increase in the wavelength of the incident light
  • (2) increases with increase in the intensity of the incident light
  • (3) is \( \frac{1}{e} \) times the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
  • (4) decreases with increase in the intensity of the incident light

Question 30:

A point charge causes an electric flux of \( -2 \times 10^4 \, Nm^2C^{-1} \) to pass through a spherical Gaussian surface of 8.0 cm radius, centered on the charge. The value of the point charge is:

  • (1) \( 17.7 \times 10^{-7} \, C \)
  • (2) \( 15.7 \times 10^{-7} \, C \)
  • (3) \( 17.7 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (4) \( 15.7 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)

Question 31:

A poly-atomic molecule (C\(_3\)R, \(C_v = 4R\), where \(R\) is gas constant) goes from phase space point A (\(P_A = 10^4 \, Pa, V_A = 4 \times 10^{-3} \, m^3\)) to point B (\(P_B = 5 \times 10^4 \, Pa, V_B = 6 \times 10^{-7} \, m^3\)) to point C (\(P_C = 10^4 \, Pa, V_C = 8 \times 10^{-3} \, m^3\)). A to B is an adiabatic path and B to C is an isothermal path. The net heat absorbed per unit mole by the system is:

  • (1) 500R(\( \ln 3 + \ln 4 \))
  • (2) 450R(\( \ln 3 \))
  • (3) 500R(\( \ln 2 \))
  • (4) 400R ln 2

Question 32:

Two identical symmetric double convex lenses of focal length \( f \) are cut into two equal parts \( L_1, L_2 \) by the AB plane and \( L_3, L_4 \) by the XY plane as shown in the figure respectively. The ratio of focal lengths of lenses \( L_1 \) and \( L_3 \) is:

  • (1) 1 : 4
  • (2) 1 : 1
  • (3) 2 : 1
  • (4) 1 : 2

Question 33:

A plane electromagnetic wave propagates along the \( +x \) direction in free space. The components of the electric field \( \vec{E} \) and magnetic field \( \vec{B} \) vectors associated with the wave in Cartesian frame are:

  • (1) \( E_x, B_x \)
  • (2) \( E_y, B_z \)
  • (3) \( E_z, B_y \)
  • (4) \( E_x, B_y \)

Question 34:

Two concave refracting surfaces of equal radii of curvature and refractive index 1.5 face each other in air as shown in figure. A point object O is placed midway, between P and B. The separation between the images of O, formed by each refracting surface is:

  • (1) 0.214R
  • (2) 0.114R
  • (3) 0.411R
  • (4) 0.124R

Question 35:

Two bodies A and B of equal mass are suspended from two massless springs of spring constant \( k_1 \) and \( k_2 \), respectively. If the bodies oscillate vertically such that their amplitudes are equal, the ratio of the maximum velocity of A to the maximum velocity of B is:

  • (1) \( \frac{k_1}{k_2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{k_2}{k_1} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{\frac{k_2}{k_1}} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{k_1}{k_2}} \)

Question 36:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).




Three identical spheres of the same mass undergo one-dimensional motion as shown in the figure with initial velocities \( v_A = 5 \, m/s, v_B = 2 \, m/s, v_C = 4 \, m/s \). If we wait sufficiently long for elastic collision to happen, then \( v_A = 4 \, m/s, v_B = 2 \, m/s, v_C = 5 \, m/s \) will be the final velocities.

Reason (R): In an elastic collision between identical masses, two objects exchange their velocities.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 37:

A sand dropper drops sand of mass \( m(t) \) on a conveyor belt at a rate proportional to the square root of the speed \( v \) of the belt, i.e., \( \frac{dm}{dt} \propto \sqrt{v} \). If \( P \) is the power delivered to run the belt at constant speed, then which of the following relationships is true?

  • (1) \( P \propto v^3 \)
  • (2) \( P \propto \sqrt{v} \)
  • (3) \( P \propto v \)
  • (4) \( P \propto v^5 \)

Question 38:

A convex lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5) has a focal length of 24 cm in air. When it is totally immersed in water (refractive index = 1.33), its focal length changes to:

  • (1) 72 cm
  • (2) 96 cm
  • (3) 24 cm
  • (4) 48 cm

Question 39:

A capacitor, \( C_1 = 6 \, \mu F \), is charged to a potential difference of \( V_1 = 5 \, V \) using a 5V battery. The battery is removed and another capacitor, \( C_2 = 12 \, \mu F \), is inserted in place of the battery. When the switch 'S' is closed, the charge flows between the capacitors for some time until equilibrium condition is reached. What are the charges \( q_1 \) and \( q_2 \) on the capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) when equilibrium condition is reached?

  • (1) \( q_1 = 15 \, \mu C, \, q_2 = 30 \, \mu C \)
  • (2) \( q_1 = 30 \, \mu C, \, q_2 = 15 \, \mu C \)
  • (3) \( q_1 = 10 \, \mu C, \, q_2 = 20 \, \mu C \)
  • (4) \( q_1 = 20 \, \mu C, \, q_2 = 10 \, \mu C \)

Question 40:

Three equal masses \( m \) are kept at vertices (A, B, C) of an equilateral triangle of side \( a \) in free space. At \( t = 0 \), they are given an initial velocity \( \vec{V_A} = V_0 \hat{AC}, \, \vec{V_B} = V_0 \hat{BA}, \, \vec{V_C} = V_0 \hat{CB} \).



Here, \( \hat{AC}, \hat{CB}, \hat{BA} \) are unit vectors along the edges of the triangle. If the three masses interact gravitationally, then the magnitude of the net angular momentum of the system at the point of collision is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} a m v_0 \)
  • (2) \( 3 am v_0 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} am v_0 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} am v_0 \)

Question 41:

Match List-I with List-II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Question 42:

Match List-I with List-II.





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 43:

The truth table for the circuit given below is:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 44:

A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in \( t \) minutes when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by the similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at the same room temperature is:

  • (1) \( \frac{13}{5} t \)
  • (2) \( \frac{10}{13} t \)
  • (3) \( \frac{13}{10} t \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{13} t \)

Question 45:

The number of spectral lines emitted by atomic hydrogen that is in the 4th energy level is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 1

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

The magnetic field inside a 200 turns solenoid of radius 10 cm is \( 2.9 \times 10^{-4} \) Tesla. If the solenoid carries a current of 0.29 A, then the length of the solenoid is:


Question 47:

A parallel plate capacitor consisting of two circular plates of radius 10 cm is being charged by a constant current of 0.15 A. If the rate of change of potential difference between the plates is \( 7 \times 10^6 \, V/s \), then the integer value of the distance between the parallel plates is:


Question 48:

A physical quantity \( Q \) is related to four observables \( a \), \( b \), \( c \), and \( d \) as follows: \[ Q = \frac{a b^4}{c d^2} \]
Where:
- \( a = (60 \pm 3) \, Pa \),
- \( b = (20 \pm 0.1) \, m \),
- \( c = (40 \pm 0.2) \, N·s/m^2 \),
- \( d = (50 \pm 0.1) \, m \).

Then the percentage error in \( Q \) is:


Question 49:

Two planets, A and B are orbiting a common star in circular orbits of radii \( R_A \) and \( R_B \), respectively, with \( R_B = 2R_A \). The planet B is \( \sqrt{2} \) times more massive than planet A. The ratio \( \frac{L_B}{L_A} \) of angular momentum (\( L \)) of planet B to that of planet A (\( L_A \)) is closest to integer:


Question 50:

Two cars P and Q are moving on a road in the same direction. Acceleration of car P increases linearly with time whereas car Q moves with a constant acceleration. Both cars cross each other at time \( t = 0 \), for the first time. The maximum possible number of crossing(s) (including the crossing at \( t = 0 \)) is:


Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

The calculated spin-only magnetic moments of \( K_3[Fe(OH)_6] \) and \( K_4[Fe(OH)_6] \) respectively are:

  • (1) 4.90 and 4.90 B.M.
  • (2) 5.92 and 4.90 B.M.
  • (3) 3.87 and 4.90 B.M.
  • (4) 4.90 and 5.92 B.M.

Question 52:

For hydrogen-like species, which of the following graphs provides the most appropriate representation of \( E \) vs \( Z \) plot for a constant \( n \)?

  • (1)
     most  appropriate representation of E vs Z plot for a constant n
  • (2)
     most  appropriate representation of E vs Z plot for a constant n
  • (3)
     most  appropriate representation of E vs Z plot for a constant n
  • (4)
     most  appropriate representation of E vs Z plot for a constant n

Question 53:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): In partition chromatography, the stationary phase is a thin film of liquid present in the inert support.

Statement (II): In paper chromatography, the material of paper acts as a stationary phase.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 54:

Identify the essential amino acids from below:

(A) Valine  (B) Proline  (C) Lysine  (D) Threonine  (E) Tyrosine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (E) only
  • (4) (C), (D) and (E) only

Question 55:

Which among the following halides will generate the most stable carbocation in a nucleophilic substitution reaction?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 56:

Consider the equilibrium: \[ CO(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CH_4(g) + H_2O(g) \]
If the pressure applied over the system increases by two fold at constant temperature then:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Question 57:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): NaCl is added to the ice at \( 0^\circ C \), present in the ice cream box to prevent the melting of ice cream.

Statement (II): On addition of NaCl to ice at \( 0^\circ C \), there is a depression in freezing point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 58:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): On nitration of m-xylene with \( HNO_3 \), \( H_2SO_4 \), followed by oxidation, 4-nitrobenzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid is obtained as the major product.

Statement (II): CH\(_3\) group is o/p-directing while NO\(_2\) group is m-directing group.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 59:

0.1 M solution of KI reacts with excess of \( H_2SO_4 \) and KIO\(_3\), according to the equation: \[ 5I^- + 6H^+ \rightarrow 3I_2 + 3H_2O \]
Identify the correct statements:
(A) 200 mL of KI solution reacts with 0.004 mol of KIO\(_3\)
(B) 200 mL of KI solution reacts with 0.006 mol of H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
(C) 0.5 L of KI solution produced 0.005 mol of I\(_2\)
(D) Equivalent weight of KIO\(_3\) is equal to:
\[ \frac{Molecular weight}{5} \]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (C) and (D) only

Question 60:

Match List-I with List-II:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Question 61:

O\(_2\) gas will be evolved as a product of electrolysis of:


(A) an aqueous solution of AgNO\(_3\) using silver electrodes.


(B) an aqueous solution of AgNO\(_3\) using platinum electrodes.


(C) a dilute solution of H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) using platinum electrodes.


(D) a high concentration solution of H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) using platinum electrodes.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (A) and (C) only

Question 62:

Identify the homoleptic complexes with odd number of d-electrons in the central metal:


(A) \([FeO_4]^{2-}\)


(B) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)


(C) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{2-}\)


(D) \([CoCl_4]^{2-}\)


(E) \([Co(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

Question 63:

Total number of sigma (\( \sigma \)) and pi (\( \pi \)) bonds respectively present in hex-1-en-4-yne are:

  • (1) 13 and 3
  • (2) 11 and 3
  • (3) 13 and 13
  • (4) 14 and 3

Question 64:

If \[ C(diamond) \rightarrow C(graphite) + X \, kj mol^{-1} \] \[ C(diamond) + O_2(g) \rightarrow CO(g) + Y \, kj mol^{-1} \] \[ C(graphite) + O_2(g) \rightarrow CO(g) + Z \, kj mol^{-1} \]
At constant temperature. Then:

  • (1) \( X = Y + Z \)
  • (2) \( X - Y = Z \)
  • (3) \( X = Y - Z \)
  • (4) \( X = Y + Z \)

Question 65:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): It is impossible to specify simultaneously with arbitrary precision, the linear momentum and the position of a particle.

Statement (II): If the uncertainty in the measurement of position and uncertainty in measurement of momentum are equal for an electron, then the uncertainty in the measurement of velocity is \( \geq \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}} \times \frac{1}{2m} \).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Question 66:

Which one of the following reaction sequences will give an azo dye?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 67:

Drug X becomes ineffective after 50% decomposition. The original concentration of drug in a bottle was 16 mg/mL which becomes 4 mg/mL in 12 months. The expiry time of the drug in months is ____ .
Assume that the decomposition of the drug follows first order kinetics.

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 6

Question 68:

The type of oxide formed by the element among Li, Na, Be, Mg, B and Al that has the least atomic radius is:

  • (1) \( A_2O_3 \)
  • (2) \( AO_2 \)
  • (3) \( A_2O \)
  • (4) \( A_2O_4 \)

Question 69:

First ionisation enthalpy values of the first four group 15 elements are given below. Choose the correct value for the element that is a main component of the apatite family:

  • (1) 1012 \, \(kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (2) 1402 \, \( kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (3) 834 \, \( kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (4) 947 \, \( kJ mol^{-1}\)

Question 70:

Which one of the following, with HBr, will give a phenol?

  • (1)
    aromatic ether with HBr
  • (2)
    aromatic ether with HBr
  • (3)
    aromatic ether with HBr
  • (4)
    aromatic ether with HBr

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

Consider the following low-spin complexes \[ K_3[Co(NO_3)_6], \, K_4[Fe(CN)_6], \, K_3[Fe(CN)_6], \, Cu_2[Fe(CN)_6], \, Zn_2[Fe(CN)_6] \]
The sum of the spin-only magnetic moment values of complexes having yellow colour is: \[ B.M. (answer is nearest integer) \]


Question 72:

Isomeric hydrocarbons \( \rightarrow \) negative Baeyer's test (Molecular formula \( C_9H_{12} \)).
The total number of isomers from above with four different non-aliphatic substitution sites is -


Question 73:

In the Claisen-Schmidt reaction to prepare dibenzalacetone from 5.3 g benzaldehyde, a total of 3.51 g of product was obtained. The percentage yield in this reaction was _____.


Question 74:

In the sulphur estimation, 0.20 g of a pure organic compound gave 0.40 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the compound is


Question 75:

Total number of non-bonded electrons present in \( NO_2 \); ion based on Lewis theory is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

JEE Main 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 75 Questions
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 Paper Analysis- Check Difficulty Level and Good Score

The question paper consisted of a total of 75 questions, divided equally across the three subjects:

  • The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2025 29 Jan Shift 2 Question Paper was Tough with 8 questions coming majorly from topics like Integration, Probability, etc.
  • Physics was Moderate with 12 questions coming majorly from topics like Ray Optics, Gravity, Magnetism, etc.
  • Chemistry was Moderate with 9 questions coming majorly from topics like Organic Chemistry, Physical Chemistry, etc.

Each section included a mix of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and numerical value-based questions, offering a balanced challenge for students.

Check: JEE Main 29th Jan Shift 1 Question Paper

JEE Main 2025: Shift-Wise Analysis

Session Shift Difficulty Trend 
(Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics)
Overall Difficulty
January 22nd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy (NCERT-based)
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 22nd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Easy to Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Moderate, Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate
  • Chemistry: Easy but Tricky
  • Mathematics: Tough and Lengthy
Moderate
January 23rd January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy
  • Mathematics: Tough with Long Calculations
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, easier than last four shifts
  • Chemistry: Easier than last four shifts
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate
January 24th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Easy, more focus on Organic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-consuming
Moderate
January 28th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate, Application Based
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic
  • Mathematics: Tough, time-taking
Tough
January 28th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Mdoerate, more focus on Inorganic and Physical
  • Mathematics: Tough,Calculation-Based
Tough
January 29th January Shift 1
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough
January 29th January Shift 2
  • Physics: Moderate to Tough
  • Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
  • Mathematics: Tough
Moderate to Tough