JEE Main 2018 April 15 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) first shift on April 15, 2018, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2018 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2018 April 15 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2018 April 15 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The value of the integral \(\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \sin^4 x\left(1+\log\left(\frac{2+\sin x}{2-\sin x}\right)\right)dx\) is :

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{8}\pi\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{16}\pi\)

Question 2:

If \(\tan \, A\) and \(\tan \, B\) are the roots of the quadratic equation, \(3x^2 - 10x - 25 = 0\), then the value of 3 \, \sin^2(A + B) -10 \, \sin ( A + B)?\cos(A + B)-25 \cos^2(A+B) is :

  • (1) -10
  • (2) 10
  • (3) -25
  • (4) 25

Question 3:

In a triangle ABC, coordinates of A are \((1, 2)\) and the equations of the medians through B and C are respectively, \(x + y = 5\) and \(x = 4\). Then area of \(\Delta\) ABC (in sq. units) is :

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 9

Question 4:

If a right circular cone, having maximum volume, is inscribed in a sphere of radius 3 cm, then the curved surface area (in cm2) of this cone is :

  • (1) \(6\sqrt{2}\,\pi\)
  • (2) \(6\sqrt{3}\,\pi\)
  • (3) \(8\sqrt{2}\,\pi\)
  • (4) \(8\sqrt{3}\,\pi\)

Question 5:

Let \(S = \{(\lambda, \mu) \in \mathbf{R}\times\mathbf{R} : f(t) = (|\lambda|e^{|t|} - \mu)\cdot\sin(2|t|),\ t\in\mathbf{R},\) is a differentiable function\(\}\). Then S is a subset of :

  • (1) \(\mathbf{R}\times[0,\infty)\)
  • (2) \([0,\infty)\times\mathbf{R}\)
  • (3) \(\mathbf{R}\times(-\infty,0)\)
  • (4) \((-\infty,0)\times\mathbf{R}\)

Question 6:

If \(f(x)=\begin{vmatrix}\cos x & x & 1\\ 2\sin x & x^2 & 2x\\ \tan x & x & 1\end{vmatrix}\), then \(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f'(x)}{x}\)

  • (1) does not exist.
  • (2) exists and is equal to 2.
  • (3) exists and is equal to 0.
  • (4) exists and is equal to \(-2\).

Question 7:

Let S be the set of all real values of k for which the system of linear equations
\(x+y+z=2\)
\(2x+y-z=3\)
\(3x+2y+kz=4\)
has a unique solution. Then S is :

  • (1) an empty set
  • (2) equal to \(\{0\}\)
  • (3) equal to \(\mathbf{R}\)
  • (4) equal to \(\mathbf{R}-\{0\}\)

Question 8:

If \(f\left(\frac{x-4}{x+2}\right)=2x+1\), \((x\in\mathbf{R}-\{1,-2\})\), then \(\int f(x)\,dx\) is equal to :
(where C is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(12\log_e|1-x|+3x+C\)
  • (2) \(-12\log_e|1-x|-3x+C\)
  • (3) \(12\log_e|1-x|-3x+C\)
  • (4) \(-12\log_e|1-x|+3x+C\)

Question 9:

If b is the first term of an infinite \(G.P\). whose sum is five, then b lies in the interval :

  • (1) \(( - \infty , - 10] \)
  • (2) \(( - 10 , 0 ) \)
  • (3) \((0 , 10)\)
  • (4) \([10 , \infty)\)

Question 10:

If \(\vec{a},\vec{b}\), and \(\vec{c}\) are unit vectors such that \(\vec{a}+2\vec{b}+2\vec{c}=\vec{0}\), then \(|\vec{a}\times\vec{c}|\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{15}}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{15}}{16}\)

Question 11:

The area (in sq. units) of the region \(\{x\in\mathbf{R}: x\ge0,\ y\ge0,\ y\ge x-2\ \text{and}\ y\le\sqrt{x}\}\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{13}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{3}\)

Question 12:

If \(\lambda\in\mathbf{R}\) is such that the sum of the cubes of the roots of the equation, \(x^2+(2-\lambda)x+(10-\lambda)=0\) is minimum, then the magnitude of the difference of the roots of this equation is :

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{7}\)
  • (4) 20

Question 13:

If the tangents drawn to the hyperbola \(4y^2 = x^2 + 1\) intersect the co-ordinate axes at the distinct points \(A\) and \(B\) , then the locus of the mid point of \(AB\) is :

  • (1) \(x^2 - 4y^2 + 16x^2y^2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 - 4y^2 - 16x^2y^2 = 0\)
  • (3) \(4x^2 - y^2 + 16x^2y^2 = 0 \)
  • (4) \(4x^2 - y^2 - 16x^2y^2 = 0\)

Question 14:

If \(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n\) and \(\frac{1}{h_1},\frac{1}{h_2},\ldots,\frac{1}{h_n}\) are two A.P.s such that \(x_3=h_2=8\) and \(x_8=h_7=20\), then \(x_5\cdot h_{10}\) equals :

  • (1) 2560
  • (2) 2650
  • (3) 3200
  • (4) 1600

Question 15:

Let \(A\) be a matrix such that \(A\cdot\begin{bmatrix}1&2\\0&3\end{bmatrix}\) is a scalar matrix and \(|3A|=108\). Then \(A^2\) equals :

  • (1) \(\begin{bmatrix}4&-32\\0&36\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{bmatrix}36&0\\-32&4\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{bmatrix}4&0\\-32&36\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{bmatrix}36&-32\\0&4\end{bmatrix}\)

Question 16:

The set of all \(\alpha \epsilon R\), for which \(w = \frac{1 + (1 - 8 \alpha)z}{1 - z}\) is a purely imaginary number, for all \(z \neq 1\), is :

  • (1) an empty set
  • (2) \(\{ 0 \}\)
  • (3) \(\left\{0 , \frac{1}{4} , - \frac{1}{4} \right\}\)
  • (4) equal to R

Question 17:

The mean of set of 30 observations is 75. If each observation is multiplied by a non-zero number \(\lambda\) and then each of them is decreased by 25, their mean remains the same. Then \(\lambda\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac13\)
  • (2) \(\frac23\)
  • (3) \(\frac43\)
  • (4) \(\frac{10}{3}\)

Question 18:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=f(x)\), where \(f(x)=\begin{cases}1, & x\in[0,1]\\ 0, & \text{otherwise}\end{cases}\) If \(y(0)=0\), then \(y\left(\frac32\right)\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{e^2+1}{2e^4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2e}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{e^2-1}{e^3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{e^2-1}{2e^3}\)

Question 19:

A box 'A' contains 2 white, 3 red and 2 black balls. Another box 'B' contains 4 white, 2 red and 3 black balls. If two balls are drawn at random, without replacement, from a randomly selected box and one ball turns out to be white while the other ball turns out to be red, then the probability that both balls are drawn from box 'B' is :

  • (1) \(\frac{9}{16}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{32}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 20:

If \(x^2 + y^2 + \sin y = 4\), then the value of \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) at the point \((-2, 0)\) is :

  • (1) \(-34\)
  • (2) \(-32\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(-2\)

Question 21:

Consider the following two binary relations on the set \(A = \{a, b, c\}\) :
\(R_1 = \{(c, a), (b, b), (a, c), (c, c), (b, c), (a, a)\}\) and
\(R_2 = \{(a, b), (b, a), (c, c), (c, a), (a, a), (b, b), (a, c)\}\).
Then :

  • (1) both \(R_1\) and \(R_2\) are not symmetric.
  • (2) \(R_1\) is not symmetric but it is transitive.
  • (3) \(R_2\) is symmetric but it is not transitive.
  • (4) both \(R_1\) and \(R_2\) are transitive.

Question 22:

\(n\)-digit numbers are formed using only three digits 2, 5 and 7. The smallest value of \(n\) for which 900 such distinct numbers can be formed, is :

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 9

Question 23:

If \(n\) is the degree of the polynomial,
\(\left[\frac{2}{\sqrt{5x^3+1}-\sqrt{5x^3-1}}\right]^8 + \left[\frac{2}{\sqrt{5x^3+1}+\sqrt{5x^3-1}}\right]^8\)
and \(m\) is the coefficient of \(x^n\) in it, then the ordered pair \((n, m)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \((24, (10)^8)\)
  • (2) \((8, 5(10)^4)\)
  • (3) \((12, (20)^4)\)
  • (4) \((12, 8(10)^4)\)

Question 24:

Two parabolas with a common vertex and with axes along x-axis and y-axis, respectively, intersect each other in the first quadrant. If the length of the latus rectum of each parabola is 3, then the equation of the common tangent to the two parabolas is :

  • (1) \(4(x + y) + 3 = 0\)
  • (2) \(3(x + y) + 4 = 0\)
  • (3) \(8(2x + y) + 3 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x + 2y + 3 = 0\)

Question 25:

If \((p \wedge \sim q) \wedge (p \wedge r) \rightarrow\ \sim p \vee q\) is false, then the truth values of \(p, q\) and \(r\) are, respectively :

  • (1) F, T, F
  • (2) T, F, T
  • (3) T, T, T
  • (4) F, F, F

Question 26:

A circle passes through the points \((2, 3)\) and \((4, 5)\). If its centre lies on the line, \(y - 4x + 3 = 0\), then its radius is equal to :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt5\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt2\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 27:

An angle between the plane, \(x + y + z = 5\) and the line of intersection of the planes, \(3x + 4y + z - 1 = 0\) and \(5x + 8y + 2z + 14 = 0\), is :

  • (1) \(\sin^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{3}{17}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{3}{17}}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{17}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{17}\right)\)

Question 28:

An aeroplane flying at a constant speed, parallel to the horizontal ground, \(\sqrt{3} \, km\) above it, is observed at an elevation of \(60^{\circ}\) from a point on the ground. If, after five seconds, its elevation from the same point, is \(30^{\circ}\), then the speed (in km/hr) of the aeroplane, is :

  • (1) 1500
  • (2) 1440
  • (3) 750
  • (4) 720

Question 29:

If \(\beta\) is one of the angles between the normals to the ellipse, \(x^2 + 3y^2 = 9\) at the points \((3\cos\theta, \sqrt3\sin\theta)\) and \((-3\sin\theta, \sqrt3\cos\theta)\); \(\theta \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\); then \(\frac{2\cot\beta}{\sin2\theta}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt3}{4}\)

Question 30:

A variable plane passes through a fixed point (3, 2, 1) and meets x, y and z axes at A, B and C respectively. A plane is drawn parallel to yz-plane through A, a second plane is drawn parallel zx-plane through B and a third plane is drawn parallel to xy-plane through C. Then the locus of the point of intersection of these three planes, is :

  • (1) \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{y}{2} + \frac{z}{1} = 1 \)
  • (2) \( x + y + z = 6 \)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = \frac{11}{6} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{x} + \frac{2}{y} + \frac{1}{z} = 1 \)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

The energy required to remove the electron from a singly ionized Helium atom is 2.2 times the energies required to remove an electron from Helium atom. The total energy required to ionize the Helium atom completely is :

  • (1) \(20\ eV\)
  • (2) \(34\ eV\)
  • (3) \(79\ eV\)
  • (4) \(109\ eV\)

Question 32:

One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its pressure at room temperature, \(27^\circ C\). The work done on the gas will be :

  • (1) \(300R\)
  • (2) \(300R\,\ln6\)
  • (3) \(300R\,\ln2\)
  • (4) \(300R\,\ln7\)

Question 33:

The velocity-time graphs of a car and a scooter are shown in the figure. (i) The difference between the distance travelled by the car and the scooter in \(15\, s\) and (ii) the time at which the car will catch up with the scooter are, respectively.

  • (1) 112.5 m and 22.5 s
  • (2) 337.5 m and 25 s
  • (3) 112.5 m and 15 s
  • (4) 225.5 m and 10 s

Question 34:

A planoconvex lens becomes an optical system of 28 cm focal length when its plane surface is silvered and illuminated from left to right as shown in Fig-A.
If the same lens is instead silvered on the curved surface and illuminated from other side as in Fig-B, it acts like an optical system of focal length 10 cm. The refractive index of the material of lens is :

  • (1) 1.50
  • (2) 1.55
  • (3) 1.75
  • (4) 1.51

Question 35:

Take the mean distance of the moon and the sun from the earth to be \(0.4\times10^6\) km and \(150\times10^6\) km respectively. Their masses are \(8\times10^{22}\) kg and \(2\times10^{30}\) kg respectively. The radius of the earth is 6400 km. Let \(\Delta F_1\) be the difference in the forces exerted by the moon at the nearest and farthest points on the earth and \(\Delta F_2\) be the difference in the force exerted by the sun at the nearest and farthest points on the earth. Then, the number closest to \(\frac{\Delta F_1}{\Delta F_2}\) is :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(10^{-2}\)
  • (3) 0.6
  • (4) 6

Question 36:

A charge Q is placed at a distance \(a/2\) above the center of the square surface of edge \(a\) as shown in the figure.

The electric flux through the square surface is

  • (1) \(\frac{Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{Q}{2\epsilon_0}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{Q}{3\epsilon_0}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{Q}{6\epsilon_0}\)

Question 37:

A body of mass \(m\) is moving in a circular orbit of radius \(R\) about a planet of mass \(M\). At some instant, it splits into two equal masses. The first mass moves in a circular orbit of radius \(\frac{R}{2}\), and the other mass, in a circular orbit of radius \(\frac{3R}{2}\). The difference between the final and initial total energies is :

  • (1) \(-\frac{GMm}{2R}\)
  • (2) \(+\frac{GMm}{6R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{GMm}{2R}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{GMm}{6R}\)

Question 38:

A Helmholtz coil has a pair of loops, each with \(N\) turns and radius \(R\). They are placed coaxially at distance \(R\) and the same current \(I\) flows through the loops in the same direction. The magnetic field at \(P\), midway between the centers \(A\) and \(C\), is given by [Refer to figure given below] :

  • (1) \(\frac{8N\mu_0 I}{5^{1/2}R}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8N\mu_0 I}{5^{3/2}R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4N\mu_0 I}{5^{1/2}R}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4N\mu_0 I}{5^{3/2}R}\)

Question 39:

Two electrons are moving with non-relativistic speed perpendicular to each other. If corresponding de Broglie wavelength are \(\lambda_1\) and \(\lambda_2\), their de Broglie wavelength in the frame of reference attached to their center of masses :

  • (1) \(\lambda_{CM}=\lambda_1=\lambda_2\)
  • (2) \(\lambda_{CM}=\frac{2\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\sqrt{\lambda_1^2+\lambda_2^2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\lambda_{CM}}=\frac{1}{\lambda_1}+\frac{1}{\lambda_2}\)
  • (4) \(\lambda_{CM}=\left(\frac{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}{2}\right)\)

Question 40:

An ideal capacitor of capacitance \(0.2 \, \mu F\) is charged to a potential difference of \(10\, V.\) The charging battery is then disconnected. The capacitor is then connected to an ideal inductor of self inductance \(0.5\, mH.\) The current at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is \(5\, V,\) is :

  • (1) \(0.34\, A\)
  • (2) \(0.25\, A\)
  • (3) \(0.17\, A\)
  • (4) \(0.15\, A\)

Question 41:

A thin uniform tube is bent into a circle of radius \(r\) in the vertical plane. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids, whose densities are \(\rho_1\) and \(\rho_2\) \((\rho_1 \gt \rho_2)\), fill half the circle. The angle \(\theta\) between the radius vector passing through the common interface and the vertical is :

  • (1) \(\theta=\tan^{-1}\pi\left(\frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\theta=\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\theta=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\rho_1-\rho_2}{\rho_1+\rho_2}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\theta=\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{\rho_1+\rho_2}{\rho_1-\rho_2}\right)\)

Question 42:

In a screw gauge, \(5\) complete rotations of the screw cause it to move a linear distance of \(0.25\, cm\). There are \(100\) circular scale divisions. The thickness of a wire measured by this screw gauge gives a reading of \(4\) main scale divisions and \(30\) circular scale divisions. Assuming negligible zero error, the thickness of the wire is :

  • (1) \(0.4300\, cm\)
  • (2) \(0.2150\, cm\)
  • (3) \(0.3150\, cm\)
  • (4) \(0.0430\, cm\)

Question 43:

A monochromatic beam of light has a frequency \(\nu=\frac{3}{2\pi}\times10^{12}\,\mathrm{Hz}\) and is propagating along the direction \(\frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt2}\). It is polarized along the \(\hat k\) direction. The acceptable form for the magnetic field is :

  • (1) \(\frac{E_0}{C}\frac{(\hat i-\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cos\left[10^4\frac{(\hat i+\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cdot\vec r-(3\times10^{12})t\right]\)
  • (2) \(\frac{E_0}{C}\frac{(\hat i-\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cos\left[10^4\frac{(\hat i-\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cdot\vec r-(3\times10^{12})t\right]\)
  • (3) \(\frac{E_0}{C}\hat k\cos\left[10^4\frac{(\hat i+\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cdot\vec r+(3\times10^{12})t\right]\)
  • (4) \(\frac{E_0}{C}\frac{(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)}{\sqrt3}\cos\left[10^4\frac{(\hat i+\hat j)}{\sqrt2}\cdot\vec r+(3\times10^{12})t\right]\)

Question 44:

Light of wavelength \(550\, nm\) falls normally on a slit of width \(22.0 \times 10^{-5} \, cm\). The angular position of the second minima from the central maximum will be (in radians) :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{8} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{4} \)

Question 45:

The B-H curve for a ferromagnet is shown in the figure. The ferromagnet is placed inside a long solenoid with 1000 turns/cm. The current that should be passed in the solenoid to demagnetise the ferromagnet completely is :

  • (1) \(1\, mA\)
  • (2) \(2\, mA\)
  • (3) \(20 \, \mu A\)
  • (4) \(40 \, \mu A\)

Question 46:


A uniform rod \(AB\) is suspended from a point \(X\), at a variable distance \(x\) from \(A\), as shown. To make the rod horizontal, a mass \(m\) is suspended from its end \(A\). A set of \((m, x)\) values is recorded. The appropriate variables that give a straight line, when plotted, are :

  • (1) \(m,\ x\)
  • (2) \(m,\ \frac{1}{x}\)
  • (3) \(m,\ \frac{1}{x^2}\)
  • (4) \(m,\ x^2\)

Question 47:

In a meter bridge, as shown in the figure, it is given that resistance \(Y=12.5 \, \Omega\) and that the balance is obtained at a distance \(39.5\, cm\) from end \(A\) (by Jockey \(J\)). After interchanging the resistances \(X\) and \(Y\), a new balance point is found at a distance \(l_2\) from end \(A\). What are the values of \(X\) and \(l_2\) ?

  • (1) \(8.16 \, \Omega\) and \(60.5\, cm\)
  • (2) \(19.15 \, \Omega\) and \(39.5\, cm\)
  • (3) \(8.16 \, \Omega\) and \(39.5\, cm\)
  • (4) \(19.15 \, \Omega\) and \(60.5\, cm\)

Question 48:

A tuning fork vibrates with frequency \(256\, Hz\) and gives one beat per second with the third normal mode of vibration of an open pipe. What is the length of the pipe ? (Speed of sound in air is \(340\, ms^{-1}\))

  • (1) 220 cm
  • (2) 190 cm
  • (3) 180 cm
  • (4) 200 cm

Question 49:

A body of mass \(M\) and charge \(q\) is connected to a spring of spring constant \(k\). It is oscillating along x-direction about its equilibrium position, taken to be at \(x = 0\), with an amplitude \(A\). An electric field \(E\) is applied along the x-direction. Which of the following statements is correct ?

  • (1) The new equilibrium position is at a distance \(\frac{qE}{2k}\) from \(x = 0 \)
  • (2) The total energy of the system is \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2 + \frac{1}{2} \frac{q^2 E^2}{k}\)
  • (3) The total energy of the system is \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2 - \frac{1}{2} \frac{q^2 E^2}{k}\)
  • (4) The new equilibrium position is at a distance \(\frac{2 q E}{k}\) from \(x = 0 \)

Question 50:

An automobile, travelling at \(40\ \mathrm{km/h}\), can be stopped at a distance of \(40\ \mathrm{m}\) by applying brakes. If the same automobile is travelling at \(80\ \mathrm{km/h}\), the minimum stopping distance, in metres, is (assume no skidding) :

  • (1) 45 m
  • (2) 100 m
  • (3) 150 m
  • (4) 160 m

Question 51:

The relative error in the determination of the surface area of sphere is \(\alpha\). Then the relative error in the determination of its volume is :

  • (1) \(\frac32\alpha\)
  • (2) \(\frac23\alpha\)
  • (3) \(\frac52\alpha\)
  • (4) \(\alpha\)

Question 52:

A given object takes \(n\) times more time to slide down a \(45^\circ\) rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down a perfectly smooth \(45^\circ\) incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2-n^2}\)
  • (2) \(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{n^2}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{1-n^2}}\)

Question 53:

The equivalent capacitance between \(A\) and \(B\) in the circuit given below, is :

  • (1) \(2.4\,\mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (2) \(4.9\,\mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (3) \(3.6\,\mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (4) \(5.4\,\mu\mathrm{F}\)

Question 54:

In the given circuit all resistances are of value \(R\) ohm each. The equivalent resistance between \(A\) and \(B\) is :

  • (1) \(2R\)
  • (2) \(3R\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5R}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5R}{2}\)

Question 55:

A particle is oscillating on the \(X\)-axis with an amplitude \(2\ \mathrm{cm}\) about the point \(x_0=10\ \mathrm{cm}\), with a frequency \(\omega\). A concave mirror of focal length \(5\ \mathrm{cm}\) is placed at the origin (see figure).

Identify the correct statements.

  • (1) The image executes periodic motion.
  • (2) The image executes non-periodic motion.
  • (3) The turning points of the image are asymmetric w.r.t. the image of the point at \(x=10\ \mathrm{cm}\).
  • (4) The distance between the turning points of the oscillation of the image is \(\frac{100}{21}\ \mathrm{cm}\).

Question 56:

A force of \(40\ \mathrm{N}\) acts on a point \(B\) at the end of an \(L\)-shaped object, as shown in the figure. The angle \(\theta\) that will produce maximum moment of the force about point \(A\) is given by :

  • (1) \(\tan\theta=\frac12\)
  • (2) \(\tan\theta=2\)
  • (3) \(\tan\theta=4\)
  • (4) \(\tan\theta=\frac14\)

Question 57:

A Carnot's engine works as a refrigerator between \(250\ \mathrm{K}\) and \(300\ \mathrm{K}\). It receives \(500\) cal heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of work done in each cycle to operate the refrigerator is :

  • (1) 420 J
  • (2) 772 J
  • (3) 2100 J
  • (4) 2520 J

Question 58:

In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that \(R_L\) is the load resistance and \(R_{BE}\) is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then, voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given, respectively, by :
\(\beta\) is current gain, \(I_B\), \(I_C\) and \(I_E\) are respectively base, collector and emitter currents.

  • (1) \(\beta\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}},\ \frac{\Delta I_C}{\Delta I_B},\ \beta^2\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}}\)
  • (2) \(\beta\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}},\ \frac{\Delta I_E}{\Delta I_B},\ \beta^2\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}}\)
  • (3) \(\beta^2\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}},\ \frac{\Delta I_C}{\Delta I_E},\ \beta^2\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}}\)
  • (4) \(\beta^2\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}},\ \frac{\Delta I_C}{\Delta I_B},\ \beta\frac{R_L}{R_{BE}}\)

Question 59:

The number of amplitude modulated broadcast stations that can be accommodated in a 300 kHz band width for the highest modulating frequency 15 kHz will be :

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 8

Question 60:

A solution containing active cobalt \(^{60}_{27}Co\) having activity of \(0.8 \, \mu Ci\) and decay constant \(\lambda\) is injected in an animal?s body. If \(1 \, cm^3\) of blood is drawn from the animal?s body after 10 hrs of injection, the activity found was 300 decays per minute. What is the volume of blood that is flowing in the body ? (\(1 \, Ci=3.7 \times 10^{10}\) decays per second and at \(t=10 hrs e^{- \lambda t} =0.84\))

  • (1) 6 liters
  • (2) 7 liters
  • (3) 4 liters
  • (4) 5 liters

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

The reagent(s) required for the following conversion are :

(Reactant: cyclohexane ring with \(\mathrm{CO_2Et}\), \(\mathrm{CO_2H}\) and \(\mathrm{CN}\) substituents at positions 1, 3 and 5; product: cyclohexane ring with \(\mathrm{CH_2OH}\), \(\mathrm{CO_2H}\) and \(\mathrm{CHO}\) at those positions.)

  • (1) (i) \(\mathrm{B_2H_6}\); (ii) \(\mathrm{SnCl_2/HCl}\); (iii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)
  • (2) (i) \(\mathrm{LiAlH_4}\); (ii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)
  • (3) (i) \(\mathrm{B_2H_6}\); (ii) DIBALH; (iii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)
  • (4) (i) \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\); (ii) Raney Ni/\(\mathrm{H_2}\); (iii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)

Question 62:

Which of the following will most readily give the dehydrohalogenation product ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

The major product of the following reaction is :

(3-Methoxyphenol treated with (i) \(\mathrm{ClCH_2CH_2COCl}\), (ii) \(\mathrm{AlCl_3}\) (anhyd.).)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 64:

The increasing order of nitration of the following compounds is :

(a) aniline (\(\mathrm{C_6H_5NH_2}\)), (b) chlorobenzene (\(\mathrm{C_6H_5Cl}\)), (c) anisole (\(\mathrm{C_6H_5OCH_3}\)), (d) toluene (\(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_3}\))

  • (1) (b) \(\lt\) (a) \(\lt\) (c) \(\lt\) (d)
  • (2) (a) \(\lt\) (b) \(\lt\) (c) \(\lt\) (d)
  • (3) (b) \(\lt\) (a) \(\lt\) (d) \(\lt\) (c)
  • (4) (a) \(\lt\) (b) \(\lt\) (d) \(\lt\) (c)

Question 65:

Which of the following is the correct structure of Adenosine?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 66:

Identify the pair in which the geometry of the species is \(T\)-shape and square-pyramidal, respectively :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{ClF_3}\) and \(\mathrm{IO_4^-}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{ICl_2^-}\) and \(\mathrm{ICl_5}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{XeOF_2}\) and \(\mathrm{XeOF_4}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{IO_3^-}\) and \(\mathrm{IO_2F_2^-}\)

Question 67:


\(\mathrm{H{-}N\cdots N\cdots N}\) (the first N-N bond is marked (I) and the second N-N bond is marked (II))
In hydrogen azide (above) the bond orders of bond (I) and (II) are :

  • (1) (I) \(\lt\) 2, (II) \(\gt\) 2
  • (2) (I) \(\gt\) 2, (II) \(\lt\) 2
  • (3) (I) \(\gt\) 2, (II) \(\gt\) 2
  • (4) (I) \(\lt\) 2, (II) \(\lt\) 2

Question 68:

The main reduction product of the following compound with \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\) in methanol is :

(A cyclohexene ring bearing a ketone C=O and, on the adjacent carbon, a \(\mathrm{CONMe_2}\) group.)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69: The correct match between items of List-I and List-II is :
List - IList - II
(A) Coloured impurity(P) Steam distillation
(B) Mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol(Q) Fractional distillation
(C) Crude Naphtha(R) Charcoal treatment
(D) Mixture of glycerol and sugars(S) Distillation under reduced pressure
  • (1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
  • (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
  • (3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(Q), (D)-(S)
  • (4) (A)-(P), (B)-(S), (C)-(R), (D)-(Q)

Question 70:

An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in Figure.

\(\Delta U_{BC}=-5\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\), \(q_{AB}=2\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\), \(W_{AB}=-5\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\), \(W_{CA}=3\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\). Heat absorbed by the system during process \(CA\) is :

  • (1) \(-5\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \(+5\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \(18\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \(-18\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\)

Question 71:

Which of the following will not exist in zwitter ionic form at pH=7 ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

In the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, \(\mathrm{N_2^+}\), the number of electrons in the \(\sigma_{2p_z}\) molecular orbital is :

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 73:

Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped by applying \(0.5\, V\) when the radiation of \(250\, nm\) is used. The work function of the metal is :

  • (1) 4 eV
  • (2) 4.5 eV
  • (3) 5 eV
  • (4) 5.5 eV

Question 74:

The minimum volume of water required to dissolve 0.1 g lead (II) chloride to get a saturated solution (\(K_{sp}\) of \(\mathrm{PbCl_2} = 3.2 \times 10^{-8}\), atomic mass of Pb = 207 u) is :

  • (1) 0.36 L
  • (2) 17.98 L
  • (3) 0.18 L
  • (4) 1.798 L

Question 75:

The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

  • (1) 4-methyl-3-ethylhex-4-ene
  • (2) 3-ethyl-4-methylhex-4-ene
  • (3) 4-ethyl-3-methylhex-2-ene
  • (4) 4, 4- diethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene

Question 76:

Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

  • (1) \(PH_{3}\)
  • (2) \(B(CH_3)_3\)
  • (3) \(NaH\)
  • (4) \(NF_3\)

Question 77:

In graphite and diamond, the percentage of p-characters of the hybrid orbitals in hybridisation are respectively :

  • (1) 33 and 25
  • (2) 33 and 75
  • (3) 50 and 75
  • (4) 67 and 75

Question 78:

For \(Na^{+}, Mg^{2+}, F^{-}\) and \(O^{2-}\); the correct order of increasing ionic radii is :

  • (1) \(O^{2-} < F^{-} < Na^{+} < Mg^{2+}\)
  • (2) \(Na^{+} < Mg^{2+} < F^{-} < O^{2-}\)
  • (3) \(Mg^{2+} < Na^{+} < F^{-} < O^{2-}\)
  • (4) \(Mg^{2+} < O^{2-} < Na^{+} < F^{-}\)

Question 79:

When an electric current is passed through acidified water, \(112\, mL\) of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. was collected at the cathode in \(965\) seconds. The current passed, in ampere, is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 0.1
  • (4) 2

Question 80:

The decreasing order of bond angles in \(BF_{3} , NH_{3} , PF_{3}\) and \(I_{3}{^{-}}\) is

  • (1) \(I_3{^{-}} > NH_3 > PF_3 > BF_3\)
  • (2) \(I_3{^{-}} > BF_3 > NH_3 > PF_3\)
  • (3) \(BF_3 > I_3{^{-}} > PF_3 > NH_3\)
  • (4) \(BF_3 > NH_3 > PF_3 > I_3{^{-}}\)

Question 81:

For which of the following reactions, \(\Delta H\) is equal to \(\Delta U\) ?

  • (1) \(N_2(g) + 3H2(g) -> 2NH_3(g)\)
  • (2) \(2HI(g) -> H_2(g) + I_2(g)\)
  • (3) \(2NO_2(g) -> N_2O_4(g)\)
  • (4) \(2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) -> 2SO_3(g)\)

Question 82:

\(N_2O_5\) decomposes to \(NO_2\) and \(O_2\) and follows first order kinetics. After \(50\) minutes, the pressure inside the vessel increases from \(50\, mm\, Hg\) to \(87.5\, mm\, Hg.\) The pressure of the gaseous mixture after \(100\) minute at constant temperature will be :

  • (1) \(175.0 \,mm\,Hg\)
  • (2) \(116.25 \,mm\,Hg\)
  • (3) \(136.25 \,mm\,Hg\)
  • (4) \(106.25\, mm\,Hg\)

Question 83:

In which of the following reactions, an increase in the volume of the container will favour the formation of products ?

  • (1) \(2 NO _{2}( g ) \rightleftharpoons 2 NO ( g )+ O _{2}( g )\)
  • (2) \(H_2(g) + I_2(g)\rightleftharpoons2HI(g)\)
  • (3) \(4NH_3(g) + 5O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons4NO(g) + 6H_2O(l)\)
  • (4) \(3O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2O_3(g)\)

Question 84:

A sample of \(NaClO_3\) is converted by heat to NaCl with a loss of \(0.16\, g\) of oxygen. The residue is dissolved in water and precipitated as \(AgCl\). The mass of \(AgCl\) (in g) obtained will be : (Given : Molar mass of \(AgCl = 143.5\, g\, mol^{-1}\))

  • (1) 0.35
  • (2) 0.41
  • (3) 0.48
  • (4) 0.54

Question 85:

The correct combination is :

  • (1) \([\mathrm{Ni(CN)_4}]^{2-}\) - tetrahedral ; \([\mathrm{Ni(CO)_4}]\) - paramagnetic
  • (2) \([\mathrm{NiCl_4}]^{2-}\) - paramagnetic ; \([\mathrm{Ni(CO)_4}]\) - tetrahedral
  • (3) \([\mathrm{NiCl_4}]^{2-}\) - square-planar ; \([\mathrm{Ni(CN)_4}]^{2-}\) - paramagnetic
  • (4) \([\mathrm{NiCl_4}]^{2-}\) - diamagnetic ; \([\mathrm{Ni(CO)_4}]\) - square-planar

Question 86:

Which of the following arrangements shows the schematic alignment of magnetic moments of antiferromagnetic substance ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 87:

Which of the following statements about colloids is False?

  • (1) Freezing point of colloidal solution is lower than true solution at same concentration of a solute.
  • (2) Colloidal particles can pass through ordinary filter paper.
  • (3) When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium iodide solution, a negatively charged colloidal solution is formed.
  • (4) When excess of electrolyte is added to colloidal solution, colloidal particle will be precipitated.

Question 88:

Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis produces compounds ?X? and ?Y?. Compounds ?X? and ?Y? and the oxidation state of Xe are respectively :

  • (1) \(XeO_2(+4)\) and \(XeO_3(+6)\)
  • (2) \(XeOF_4(+6)\) and \(XeO_3(+6)\)
  • (3) \(XeO_2F_2(+6)\) and \(XeO_2(+4)\)
  • (4) \(XeOF4(+6)\) and \(XeO2F2(+6)\)

Question 89:

The copolymer formed by addition polymerization of styrene and acrylonitrile in the presence of peroxide is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 90:

A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When silver nitrate solution is added to the aformentioned solution, a white precipitate is obtained which does not dissolve in dil. nitric acid. The anion is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CO_3^{2-}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{SO_4^{2-}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Cl^-}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{S^{2-}}\)

JEE Main 2018 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2018 April 15 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

In terms of difficulty level, the JEE Main B.E./B.Tech question paper was of moderate level.

JEE Main B.E./B.Tech Question Paper Shift 1 Analysis

  • Chemistry had moderate to difficult type questions.
  • Mathematics had the highest number of easy questions among all.
  • Each section had 30 questions each.

For every correct answer, the candidate got 4 marks and for each wrong attempt 1 mark was deducted.