JEE Main 2019 January 12 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on January 12, 2019, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 January 12 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 January 12 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The product of three consecutive terms of a G.P. is 512. If 4 is added to each of the first and the second of these terms, the three terms now form an A.P. Then the sum of the original three terms of the given G.P. is :

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 24

Question 2:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation, \(x\frac{dy}{dx} + y = x\log_e x,\ (x > 1)\). If \(2y(2) = \log_e 4 - 1\), then \(y(e)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-\frac{e}{2}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{e^2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{e^2}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{e}{4}\)

Question 3:

Let \(S = \{1, 2, 3, \ldots, 100\}\). The number of non-empty subsets \(A\) of \(S\) such that the product of elements in \(A\) is even is :

  • (1) \(2^{50} - 1\)
  • (2) \(2^{50}(2^{50} - 1)\)
  • (3) \(2^{100} - 1\)
  • (4) \(2^{50} + 1\)

Question 4:

In a random experiment, a fair die is rolled until two fours are obtained in succession. The probability that the experiment will end in the fifth throw of the die is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{150}{6^5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{175}{6^5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{200}{6^5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{225}{6^5}\)

Question 5:

A ratio of the 5th term from the beginning to the 5th term from the end in the binomial expansion of \(\left(2^{1/3} + \frac{1}{2(3)^{1/3}}\right)^{10}\) is :

  • (1) \(1 : 2(6)^{1/3}\)
  • (2) \(1 : 4(6)^{1/3}\)
  • (3) \(2(36)^{1/3} : 1\)
  • (4) \(4(36)^{1/3} : 1\)

Question 6:

Let \(f\) and \(g\) be continuous functions on \([0, a]\) such that \(f(x) = f(a - x)\) and \(g(x) + g(a - x) = 4\), then \(\int_0^a f(x)g(x)\,dx\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(4\int_0^a f(x)\,dx\)
  • (2) \(-3\int_0^a f(x)\,dx\)
  • (3) \(\int_0^a f(x)\,dx\)
  • (4) \(2\int_0^a f(x)\,dx\)

Question 7:

If \(\frac{z-\alpha}{z+\alpha} \left(\alpha\in R\right) \) is a purely imaginary number and \(|z| = 2\), then a value of \(\alpha\) is :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 8:

Let \(S\) be the set of all points in \((-\pi, \pi)\) at which the function, \(f(x) = \min\{\sin x, \cos x\}\) is not differentiable. Then \(S\) is a subset of which of the following ?

  • (1) \(\left\{-\frac{\pi}{2}, -\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right\}\)
  • (2) \(\left\{-\frac{3\pi}{4}, -\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{4}\right\}\)
  • (3) \(\left\{-\frac{\pi}{4}, 0, \frac{\pi}{4}\right\}\)
  • (4) \(\left\{-\frac{3\pi}{4}, -\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{4}\right\}\)

Question 9:

Let \(P(4, -4)\) and \(Q(9, 6)\) be two points on the parabola, \(y^2 = 4x\) and let \(x\) be any point on the arc \(POQ\) of this parabola, where \(O\) is the vertex of this parabola, such that the area of \(\Delta PXQ\) is maximum. Then this maximum area (in sq. units) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{625}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{125}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{75}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{125}{2}\)

Question 10:

Consider three boxes, each containing \(10\) balls labelled \(1,2,....,10\). Suppose one ball is randomly drawn from each of the boxes. Denote by \(n_i\), the label of the ball drawn from the \(i^{th}\) box, (\(i = 1, 2, 3\)). Then, the number of ways in which the balls can be chosen such that \(n_1 < n_2 < n_3\) is :

  • (1) 82
  • (2) 240
  • (3) 164
  • (4) 120

Question 11:

The integral \(\int \cos( \log \; x)dx\) is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(\frac{x}{2} \left[\sin\left(\log_{e} x\right)-\cos\left(\log_{e}x\right)+C\right]\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x}{2}\left[\cos\left(\log_{e}x\right) + \sin\left(\log_{e} x\right)\right]+C\)
  • (3) \(x [\cos (\log_e x) + \sin (\log_e x )] + C \)
  • (4) \(x [\cos (\log_e x) - \sin (\log_e x )] + C \)

Question 12:

An ordered pair \((\alpha, \beta)\) for which the system of linear equations
\((1 + \alpha)x + \beta y + z = 2\)
\(\alpha x + (1 + \beta)y + z = 3\)
\(\alpha x + \beta y + 2z = 2\)
has a unique solution, is :

  • (1) \((-3, 1)\)
  • (2) \((1, -3)\)
  • (3) \((-4, 2)\)
  • (4) \((2, 4)\)

Question 13:

Let \(P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0\\ 3 & 1 & 0\\ 9 & 3 & 1\end{bmatrix}\) and \(Q = [q_{ij}]\) be two \(3 \times 3\) matrices such that \(Q - P^5 = I_3\). Then \(\frac{q_{21} + q_{31}}{q_{32}}\) is equal to :

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 135
  • (4) 10

Question 14:

If \(\lambda\) be the ratio of the roots of the quadratic equation in \(x\), \(3m^2x^2 + m(m - 4)x + 2 = 0\), then the least value of \(m\) for which \(\lambda + \frac{1}{\lambda} = 1\), is

  • (1) \(-2 + \sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(4 - 3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(2 - \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(4 - 2\sqrt{3}\)

Question 15:

The maximum value of \(3\cos\theta + 5\sin\left(\theta - \frac{\pi}{6}\right)\) for any real value of \(\theta\) is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{34}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{31}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{19}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{79}}{2}\)

Question 16:

Considering only the principal values of inverse functions, the set \(A = \{ x \ge 0 : \tan^{-1} (2x) + \tan^{-1} (3x) = \frac{\pi}{4} \}\)

  • (1) is an empty set
  • (2) Contains more than two elements
  • (3) Contains two elements
  • (4) is a singleton

Question 17:

\(\displaystyle\lim_{x \to \pi/4} \frac{\cot^3 x - \tan x}{\cos\left(x + \frac{\pi}{4}\right)}\) is :

  • (1) \(8\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(4\)
  • (3) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(8\)

Question 18:

For \(x > 1\), if \((2x)^{2y} = 4e^{2x - 2y}\), then \(\left( 1 +\log_{e} 2x\right)^{2} \frac{dy}{dx} \) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\log_e 2x\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x \log_{e} 2x +\log_{e} 2}{x} \)
  • (3) \(x \log_e 2x\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x \log_{e} 2x - \log_{e} 2}{x} \)

Question 19:

If the vertices of a hyperbola be at \((-2, 0)\) and \((2, 0)\) and one of its foci be at \((-3, 0)\), then which one of the following points does not lie on this hyperbola?

  • (1) \((6, 5\sqrt{2})\)
  • (2) \((2\sqrt{6}, 5)\)
  • (3) \((-6, 2\sqrt{10})\)
  • (4) \((4, \sqrt{15})\)

Question 20:

If the sum of the deviations of \(50\) observations from \(30\) is \(50\), then the mean of these observation is :

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 51
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 31

Question 21:

If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (1, 0, 3) on a line passing through (\( \alpha \), 7, 1) is \( \left( {{5 \over 3},{7 \over 3},{{17} \over 3}} \right) \), then \( \alpha \) is equal to______.


Question 22:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the parabola, \(y = x^2 + 2\) and the lines, \(y = x + 1\), \(x = 0\) and \(x = 3\), is

  • (1) \(\frac{15}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{21}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{17}{4}\)

Question 23:

The maximum area (in sq. units) of a rectangle having its base on the x-axis and its other two vertices on the parabola, \(y = 12 - x^2\) such that the rectangle lies inside the parabola, is :

  • (1) \(36\)
  • (2) \(20\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(18\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(32\)

Question 24:

The Boolean expression \((p \wedge \sim q) \Rightarrow (q \vee \sim p)\) is equivalent to :

  • (1) \(q \Rightarrow p\)
  • (2) \(p \Rightarrow q\)
  • (3) \(\sim q \Rightarrow p\)
  • (4) \(p \Rightarrow \sim q\)

Question 25:

A tetrahedron has vertices \(P(1, 2, 1)\), \(Q(2, 1, 3)\), \(R(-1, 1, 2)\) and \(O(0, 0, 0)\). The angle between the faces OPQ and PQR is :

  • (1) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{17}{31}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{35}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{19}{35}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{31}\right)\)

Question 26:

Let \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) be the centres of the circles \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 2y - 2 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 6y + 14 = 0\) respectively. If P and Q are the points of intersection of these circles, then the area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral \(PC_1QC_2\) is :

  • (1) \(4\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(9\)
  • (4) \(8\)

Question 27:

The sum of the distinct real values of \(\mu\), for which the vectors, \(\mu\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k},\ \hat{i} + \mu\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \mu\hat{k}\) are co-planar, is :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(-1\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 28:

The perpendicular distance from the origin to the plane containing the two lines, \(\frac{x+2}{3} = \frac{y-2}{5} = \frac{z+5}{7}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y-4}{4} = \frac{z+4}{7}\), is :

  • (1) \(6\sqrt{11}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{11}{\sqrt{6}}\)
  • (3) \(11\)
  • (4) \(11\sqrt{6}\)

Question 29:

If a variable line, \(3x + 4y - \lambda = 0\) is such that the two circles \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 2y + 1 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 18x - 2y + 78 = 0\) are on its opposite sides, then the set of all values of \(\lambda\) is the interval :

  • (1) \((23, 31)\)
  • (2) \((2, 17)\)
  • (3) \([13, 23]\)
  • (4) \([12, 21]\)

Question 30:

Let \(S_k = \frac{1 + 2 + 3 + \dots + k}{k}\). If \(S_1^2 + S_2^2 + \dots + S_{10}^2 = \frac{5}{12}A\), then A is equal to :

  • (1) \(283\)
  • (2) \(156\)
  • (3) \(301\)
  • (4) \(303\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

A particle of mass \(m\) moves in a circular orbit under the central potential field, \(U(r) = -\frac{C}{r}\), where \(C\) is a positive constant. The correct radius – velocity graph of the particle's motion is: 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 32:

There is a uniform spherically symmetric surface charge density at a distance \(R_0\) from the origin. The charge distribution is initially at rest and starts expanding because of mutual repulsion. The figure that represents best the speed \(V(R(t))\) of the distribution as a function of its instantaneous radius \(R(t)\) is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 33:

Two light identical springs of spring constant k are attached horizontally at the two ends of a uniform horizontal rod AB of length \(\ell\) and mass m. The rod is pivoted at its centre 'O' and can rotate freely in horizontal plane. The other ends of the two springs are fixed to rigid supports as shown in figure. The rod is gently pushed through a small angle and released. The frequency of resulting oscillation is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{3k}{m}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{6k}{m}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{2k}{m}}\)

Question 34:

A proton and an \(\alpha\)-particle (with their masses in the ratio of \(1 : 4\) and charges in the ratio of \(1 : 2\)) are accelerated from rest through a potential difference \(V\). If a uniform magnetic field (B) is set up perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the radii \(r_p : r_\alpha\) of the circular paths described by them will be :

  • (1) \(1 : \sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(1 : 2\)
  • (3) \(1 : 3\)
  • (4) \(1 : \sqrt{3}\)

Question 35:

A passenger train of length \(60\,m\) travels at a speed of \(80\, km/hr\). Another freight train of length \(120\, m\) travels at a speed of \(30\, km/hr\). The ratio of times taken by the passenger train to completely cross the freight train when : (i) they are moving in the same direction, and (ii) in the opposite directions is :

  • (1) 44683
  • (2) 25-Nov
  • (3) 44622
  • (4) 44870

Question 36:

The galvanometer deflection, when key \(K_1\) is closed but \(K_2\) is open, equals \(\theta_0\) (see figure). On closing \(K_2\) also and adjusting \(R_2\) to \(5\,\Omega\), the deflection in galvanometer becomes \(\frac{\theta_0}{5}\). The resistance of the galvanometer is, then, given by [Neglect the internal resistance of battery] :

  • (1) \(5\,\Omega\)
  • (2) \(25\,\Omega\)
  • (3) \(12\,\Omega\)
  • (4) \(22\,\Omega\)

Question 37:

What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination shown in figure? \((f_1, f_2\) are focal lengths)

  • (1) \(70 \,cm\) from point \(B\) at left; virtual
  • (2) \(40\, cm\) from point \(B\) at right; real
  • (3) \(20/3 \,cm\) from point \(B\) at right , real
  • (4) \(70\,cm\) from point \(B\) at right, real

Question 38:

A straight rod of length \(L\) extends from \(x = a\) to \(x = L + a\). The gravitational force is exerts on a point mass \('m'\) at \(x = 0\), if the mass per unit length of the rod is \(A + Bx^2\), is given by:

  • (1) \(Gm\left[A\left(\frac{1}{a + L} - \frac{1}{a}\right) - BL\right]\)
  • (2) \(Gm\left[A\left(\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{a + L}\right) + BL\right]\)
  • (3) \(Gm\left[A\left(\frac{1}{a + L} - \frac{1}{a}\right) + BL\right]\)
  • (4) \(Gm\left[A\left(\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{a + L}\right) - BL\right]\)

Question 39:

The position vector of the centre of mass \(\vec{r}_{cm}\) of an asymmetric uniform bar of negligible area of crosssection as shown in figure is :

  • (1) \(\vec{r}_{cm} = \frac{11}{8}L\,\hat{x} + \frac{8}{8}L\,\hat{y}\)
  • (2) \(\vec{r}_{cm} = \frac{5}{8}L\,\hat{x} + \frac{13}{8}L\,\hat{y}\)
  • (3) \(\vec{r}_{cm} = \frac{13}{8}L\,\hat{x} + \frac{5}{8}L\,\hat{y}\)
  • (4) \(\vec{r}_{cm} = \frac{3}{8}L\,\hat{x} + \frac{11}{8}L\,\hat{y}\)

Question 40:

A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the equation \(y (x, t) = 10^{-3} sin (50 t + 2x)\), where \(x\) and \(y\) are in meter and \(t\) is in seconds. Which of the following is a correct statement about the wave? The wave is propagating along the

  • (1) negative x-axis with speed \(25\,ms^{-1}\)
  • (2) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed \(25\,ms^{-1}\)
  • (3) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed \(100\, ms^{-1}\)
  • (4) The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed \(100\, ms^{-1}\)

Question 41:

For the given cyclic process \(CAB\) as shown for a gas, the work done is :

  • (1) 1 J
  • (2) 5 J
  • (3) 10 J
  • (4) 30 J

Question 42:

A point source of light, S is placed at distance L in front of the centre of plane mirror of width d which is hanging vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror, at a distance 2L as shown below. The distance over which the man can see the image of the light source in the mirror is

  • (1) \(d\)
  • (2) \(\frac{d}{2}\)
  • (3) \(3d\)
  • (4) \(2d\)

Question 43:

An ideal gas occupies a volume of \(2\,m^3\) at a pressure of \(3 \times 10^6\, Pa\). The energy of the gas is:

  • (1) \(3 \times 10^6 J\)
  • (2) \( 10^8 J\)
  • (3) \(6 \times 10^4 J\)
  • (4) \(9 \times 10^{-6} J \)

Question 44:

The least count of the main scale of a screw gauge is 1 mm. The minimum number of divisions on its circular scale required to measure 5 \(\mu\)m diameter of a wire is :

  • (1) \(500\)
  • (2) \(100\)
  • (3) \(200\)
  • (4) \(50\)

Question 45:

A simple pendulum, made of a string of length \(l\) and a bob of mass m, is released from a small angle \(\theta_0\). It strikes a block of mass \(M\), kept on a horizontal surface at its lowest point of oscillations, elastically. It bounces back and goes up to an angle \(\theta_1\). Then M is given by :

  • (1) \(\frac{m}{2}\left(\frac{\theta_{0} - \theta_{1}}{\theta_{0} + \theta_{1}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{m}{2}\left(\frac{\theta_{0} + \theta_{1}}{\theta_{0} - \theta_{1}}\right)\)
  • (3) \(m\left(\frac{\theta_{0} + \theta_{1}}{\theta_{0} - \theta_{1}}\right)\)
  • (4) \(m\left(\frac{\theta_{0} - \theta_{1}}{\theta_{0} + \theta_{1}}\right)\)

Question 46:

In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance \(R = 5\,\Omega\) and an inductance with \(L = 2\,\text{mH}\). An ideal battery of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will be the current through the battery long after the switch is closed ?

  • (1) \(6\ \text{A}\)
  • (2) \(7.5\ \text{A}\)
  • (3) \(3\ \text{A}\)
  • (4) \(5.5\ \text{A}\)

Question 47:

A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. If 4 % of light gets reflected and the amplitude of the electric field of the incident light is 30 V/m, then the amplitude of the electric field for the wave propagating in the glass medium will be :

  • (1) \(6\ \text{V/m}\)
  • (2) \(10\ \text{V/m}\)
  • (3) \(30\ \text{V/m}\)
  • (4) \(24\ \text{V/m}\)

Question 48:

A person standing on an open ground hears the sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from north at an angle \(60^\circ\) with ground level. But he finds the aeroplane right vertically above his position. If \(\upsilon\) is the speed of sound, speed of the plane is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2\upsilon}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (2) \(\upsilon\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\upsilon}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\upsilon\)

Question 49:

The output of the given logic circuit is :

  • (1) \(\bar{A}B\)
  • (2) \(A\bar{B}\)
  • (3) \(AB + \bar{AB}\)
  • (4) \(A\bar{B} + \bar{A}B\)

Question 50:

As shown in the figure, two infinitely long, identical wires are bent by \(90^\circ\) and placed in such a way that the segments LP and QM are along the x-axis, while segments PS and QN are parallel to the y-axis. If OP = OQ = 4 cm, and the magnitude of the magnetic field at O is \(10^{-4}\) T, and the two wires carry equal currents (see figure), the magnitude of the current in each wire and the direction of the magnetic field at O will be (\(\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \mathrm{NA^{-2}}\)) :

  • (1) 40 A, perpendicular into the page
  • (2) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page
  • (3) 20 A, perpendicular into the page
  • (4) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page

Question 51:

In the figure shown, after the switch \('S'\) is turned from position \('A'\) to position \('B'\), the energy dissipated in the circuit in terms of capacitance \('C'\) and total charge \('Q'\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{8}\frac{Q^2}{C}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{3}\frac{Q^2}{C}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{8}\frac{Q^2}{C}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{8}\frac{Q^2}{C}\)

Question 52:

Let the moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of length \(30\, cm\) (inner radius \(10\, cm\) and outer radius \(20\, cm\)), about its axis be 1. The radius of a thin cylinder of the same mass such that its moment of inertia about its axis is also \(I\), is:

  • (1) 12 cm
  • (2) 18 cm
  • (3) 16 cm
  • (4) 14 cm

Question 53:

Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three charges, placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle, as shown in the figure:

  • (1) \(\left(ql \right)\frac{\hat{i} + \hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{3}ql\frac{\hat{j} - \hat{I}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (3) \(-\sqrt{3}ql\hat{j}\)
  • (4) \(2ql\hat{j}\)

Question 54:

A particle A of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V. Another particle B of mass '4 m' and charge 'q' is accelerated by a potential difference of 2500 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths \(\dfrac{\lambda_A}{\lambda_B}\) is close to :

  • (1) 4.47
  • (2) 10.00
  • (3) 14.14
  • (4) 0.07

Question 55:

A satellite of mass \(M\) is in a circular orbit of radius \(R\) about the centre of the earth. A meteorite of the same mass, falling towards the earth, collides with the satellite completely inelastically. The speeds of the satellite and the meteorite are the same, just before the collision. The subsequent motion of the combined body will be :

  • (1) in a circular orbit of a different radius
  • (2) in the same circular orbit of radius R
  • (3) in an elliptical orbit
  • (4) such that it escapes to infinity

Question 56:

In a meter bridge, the wire of length \(1\, m\) has a non-uniform cross-section such that, the variation \(\frac{dR}{dl}\) of its resistance \(R\) with length \(l\) is \(\frac{dR}{dl} \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{l}}\). Two equal resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at point \(P\). What is the length \(AP\) ?

  • (1) 0.25 m
  • (2) 0.3 m
  • (3) 0.35 m
  • (4) 0.2 m

Question 57:

Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and (100 W, 220 V), are connected in series across a 220 V voltage source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) respectively, then :

  • (1) \(P_1 = 4\ \mathrm{W},\ P_2 = 16\ \mathrm{W}\)
  • (2) \(P_1 = 16\ \mathrm{W},\ P_2 = 4\ \mathrm{W}\)
  • (3) \(P_1 = 9\ \mathrm{W},\ P_2 = 16\ \mathrm{W}\)
  • (4) \(P_1 = 16\ \mathrm{W},\ P_2 = 9\ \mathrm{W}\)

Question 58:

A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is \(K_1\) and the of the outer cylinder is \(K_2\). Assuming no loss of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing along the length of the cylinder is :

  • (1) \(K_1 + K_2\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{K_1 + 3K_2}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{K_1 + K_2}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{2K_1 + 3K_2}{5}\)

Question 59:

A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal. What is the modulation index ?

  • (1) 0.5
  • (2) 0.6
  • (3) 0.4
  • (4) 0.3

Question 60:

An ideal battery of \(4\, V\) and resistance \(R\) are connected in series in the primary circuit of a potentiometer of length \(1\, m\) and resistance \(5\Omega\). The value of \(R\), to give a potential difference of \(5 \,mV\) across \(10\, cm\) of potentiometer wire, is :

  • (1) \(490\Omega\)
  • (2) \(480\Omega\)
  • (3) \(395\Omega\)
  • (4) \(495\Omega\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Two solids dissociate as follows \( {A(s) <=> B(g) + C(g) ; K_{p_1} = x \; atm^2}\) \( {D(s) <=> C(g) + E(g) ; K_{p_2} = y \; atm^2}\) The total pressure when both the solids dissociate simultaneously is :

  • (1) \(x^2 + y^2 \; atm\)
  • (2) \( 2 x^2 + y^2 \; atm\)
  • (3) \(2 (\sqrt{x + y} ) atm\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{x + y} \,atm\)

Question 62:

In the following reaction, products A and B are \(-\)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of \(0.05\ \mu\mathrm{g/year}\). How many year are required for the decomposition of \(5\ \mu\mathrm{g}\) of X into \(2.5\ \mu\mathrm{g}\)?

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 40

Question 64:

Freezing point of a \(4\%\) aqueous solution of \(X\) is equal to freezing point of \(12\%\) aqueous solution of \(Y\). If molecular weight of \(X\) is \(A\), then molecular weight of \(Y\) is :

  • (1) A
  • (2) 3A
  • (3) 4A
  • (4) 2A

Question 65:

\( {Mn_2(CO)_{10}}\) is an organometallic compound due to the presence of :

  • (1) Mn - Mn bond
  • (2) Mn - C bond
  • (3) Mn - O bond
  • (4) C - O bond

Question 66:

The hardness of a water sample containing \(10^{-3}\) M \(\mathrm{MgSO_4}\) expressed as \(\mathrm{CaCO_3}\) equivalents (in ppm) is ______.
(molar mass of \(\mathrm{MgSO_4}\) is 120.37 g/mol)


Question 67:

The increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards reaction with alkyl halides directly is

(The figure shows four structures labelled (A) benzamide, (B) phthalimide, (C) 2-aminobenzonitrile, (D) aniline.)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{A} \lt \mathrm{B} \lt \mathrm{C} \lt \mathrm{D}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{B} \lt \mathrm{A} \lt \mathrm{C} \lt \mathrm{D}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{B} \lt \mathrm{A} \lt \mathrm{D} \lt \mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{A} \lt \mathrm{C} \lt \mathrm{D} \lt \mathrm{B}\)

Question 68: In the following reaction :
\(\text{Aldehyde} + \text{Alcohol} \xrightarrow{\ \mathrm{HCl}\ } \text{Acetal}\)
AldehydeAlcohol
HCHOtBuOH
\(\mathrm{CH_3CHO}\)MeOH
The best combination is
  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_3CHO}\) and MeOH
  • (2) HCHO and MeOH
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CH_3CHO}\) and tBuOH
  • (4) HCHO and tBuOH

Question 69:

Among the following compounds most basic amino acid is :

  • (1) Lysine
  • (2) Asparagine
  • (3) Serine
  • (4) Histidine

Question 70:


can not be prepared by \(-\)
(The structure shown is \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2C(OH)(Ph)CH_3}\), i.e. 2-phenylbutan-2-ol.)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2COCH_3 + PhMgX}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{PhCOCH_3 + CH_3CH_2MgX}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{PhCOCH_2CH_3 + CH_3MgX}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{HCHO + PhCH(CH_3)CH_2MgX}\)

Question 71:

The pair of metal ions that can give a spin only magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the complex \(\mathrm{[M(H_2O)_6]Cl_2}\), is \(-\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{V^{2+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{V^{2+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Co^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Co^{2+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Cr^{2+}}\) and \(\mathrm{Mn^{2+}}\)

Question 72:

The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a \(-\)

  • (1) Alkaline earth metal
  • (2) Alkali metal
  • (3) Transition metal
  • (4) Inner transition metal

Question 73:

What is the work function of the metal if the light of wavelength \(4000\ \mathrm{\AA}\) generates photoelectrons of velocity \(6\times 10^{5}\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\) from it ?
(Mass of electron = \(9\times 10^{-31}\) kg;
Velocity of light = \(3\times 10^{8}\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\)
Plank's constant = \(6.626\times 10^{-34}\) Js;
Charge of electron = \(1.6\times 10^{-19}\ \mathrm{JeV^{-1}}\))

  • (1) 4.0 eV
  • (2) 0.9 eV
  • (3) 2.1 eV
  • (4) 3.1 eV

Question 74:

Among the following four aromatic compounds, which one will have the lowest melting point ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 75:

\(50\, mL\) of \(0.5\, M\) oxalic acid is needed to neutralize \(25\, mL\) of sodium hydroxide solution. The amount of \(NaOH\) in \(50\, mL\) of the given sodium hydroxide solution is :

  • (1) 40 g
  • (2) 20 g
  • (3) 80 g
  • (4) 4 g

Question 76:

The major product of the following reaction is \(-\)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 77:

In reaction \(A + 2B {\rightleftharpoons} 2C + D\), initial concentration of \(B\) was \(1.5\) times of \([A]\), but at equilibrium the concentrations of \(A\) and \(B\) became equal. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 6

Question 78:

For diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the following plots does not correctly describe the relation between various thermodynamic quantities ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 79:

The correct order for acid strength of compounds :
\(\mathrm{CH\equiv CH}\), \(\mathrm{CH_3{-}C\equiv CH}\) and \(\mathrm{CH_2{=}CH_2}\) is as follows

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH\equiv CH \gt CH_2{=}CH_2 \gt CH_3{-}C\equiv CH}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_3{-}C\equiv CH \gt CH_2{=}CH_2 \gt HC\equiv CH}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{HC\equiv CH \gt CH_3{-}C\equiv CH \gt CH_2{=}CH_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_3{-}CH\equiv CH \gt CH\equiv CH \gt CH_2{=}CH_2}\)

Question 80:

The major product of the following reaction is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 81:

The standard electrode potential \(E^\circ\) and its temperature coefficient \(\left(\frac{dE^\circ}{dT}\right)\) for a cell are 2 V and \(-5\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{VK^{-1}}\) at 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is
\(\mathrm{Zn(s) + Cu^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow Zn^{2+}(aq) + Cu(s)}\)
The standard reaction enthalpy \((\Delta_rH^\circ)\) at 300 K in \(\mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\) is, [Use \(R = 8\ \mathrm{JK^{-1}mol^{-1}}\) and \(F = 96{,}000\ \mathrm{C\ mol^{-1}}\)]

  • (1) \(-412.8\)
  • (2) \(-384.0\)
  • (3) \(192.0\)
  • (4) \(206.4\)

Question 82:

The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the ligands in \( {K_3[Co(CN)_6]}\) are :

  • (1) \(d_{xz}, d_{yz}\) and \(d_{z^2}\)
  • (2) \(d_{xy}, d_{xz}\) and \(d_{yz}\)
  • (3) \(d_{xy}\) and \(d_{x^2-y^2}\)
  • (4) \(d_{x^2-y^2}\) and \(d_{z^2}\)

Question 83:

The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. The compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than that of gas B at same temperature. The pressures of the gases for equal number of moles are -

  • (1) \(2P_A = 3P_B\)
  • (2) \(3P_A = 2P_B\)
  • (3) \(P_A = 3P_B\)
  • (4) \(P_A = 2P_B\)

Question 84:

Given below are the critical temperatures of some of the gases :

GasCritical temperature (K)
He5.2
CH4190.0
CO2304.2
NH3405.5

The gas showing least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal is

  • (1) He
  • (2) CH4
  • (3) CO2
  • (4) NH3

Question 85:

In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out of :

  • (1) Platinum
  • (2) Carbon
  • (3) Pure aluminium
  • (4) Copper

Question 86:

Poly-\(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate-co-\(\beta\) hydroxyvalerate (PHBV) is a copolymer of___.

  • (1) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic acid
  • (2) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
  • (3) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 2-hydroxypentanoic acid
  • (4) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid

Question 87:

Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 18 ppm, respectively are :

  • (1) Clean and Highly polluted
  • (2) Highly polluted and Clean
  • (3) Highly polluted and Highly polluted
  • (4) Clean and Clean

Question 88:

A metal on combustion in excess air forms X. X upon hydrolysis with water yields \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\) and \(\mathrm{O_2}\) along with another product. The metal is :

  • (1) Rb
  • (2) Mg
  • (3) Na
  • (4) Li

Question 89:

Iodine reacts with concentrated \({HNO_3}\) to yield \(Y\) along with other products. The oxidation state of iodine in \(Y\), is :

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 7

Question 90:

The molecule that has minimum /no role in the formation of photochemical smog, is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_2{=}O}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{O_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{N_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{NO}\)

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 January 12 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech was the last day of the January session. It was held from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The exam was rated moderate. The question paper was distributed among the three sections (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics). Each section carried a total of 120 marks divided between 30 questions. Each question was accountable for holding 4 marks.

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Paper Analysis

  • Chemistry section was the easiest section among all the sections. Most of the questions were related to Inorganic Chemistry. The listed questions in the Check section were less time-consuming
  • The Physics section was the most difficult aspect of the question paper. The candidates found the questions tricky and more complex than any other section. NCERT was proven a helpful tool for the students
  • The difficulty level of the Mathematics section falls between easy and difficult. The question paper was a combination of both complex and easy questions

A score between 75-80 would be considered a good score.