JEE Main 2019 April 10 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on April 10, 2019, from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 April 10 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 April 10 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The number of real roots of the equation x|x-2| + 3|x-3| + 1 = 0 is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3

Question 2:

The sum of the real roots of the equation
\(\begin{vmatrix} x & -6 & -1 \\ 2 & -3x & x-3 \\ -3 & 2x & x+2 \end{vmatrix}=0\)
is equal to :

  • (1) \(-4\)
  • (2) \(0\)
  • (3) \(1\)
  • (4) \(6\)

Question 3:

In an A.P., the sixth term a6​=2. If the product a1​a4​a5 is the greatest, then the common difference of the A.P. is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{8}\)

Question 4:

Minimum number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one head is more than 99% is :

  • (1) \(6\)
  • (2) \(5\)
  • (3) \(8\)
  • (4) \(7\)

Question 5:

Suppose that \(20\) pillars of the same height have been erected along the boundary of a circular stadium. If the top of each pillar has been connected by beams with the top of all its non-adjacent pillars, then the total number beams is :

  • (1) 210
  • (2) 190
  • (3) 170
  • (4) 180

Question 6:

Let \(\lambda\) be a real number for which the system of linear equations \(x+y+z=6,\; 4x+\lambda y-\lambda z=\lambda-2,\; 3x+2y-4z=-5\) has infinitely many solutions. Then \(\lambda\) is a root of the quadratic equation :

  • (1) \(\lambda^2+\lambda-6=0\)
  • (2) \(\lambda^2-\lambda-6=0\)
  • (3) \(\lambda^2-3\lambda-4=0\)
  • (4) \(\lambda^2+3\lambda-4=0\)

Question 7:

If \(\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2-ax+b}{x-1}=5\), then \(a+b\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(-4\)
  • (3) \(-7\)
  • (4) \(5\)

Question 8:

If \(\displaystyle\int x^5e^{-x^2}\,dx=g(x)e^{-x^2}+c\), where \(c\) is a constant of integration, then \(g(-1)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(-1\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9:

The distance of the point having position vector \(-\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+6\hat{k}\) from the straight line passing through the point \((2,3,-4)\) and parallel to the vector \(6\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-4\hat{k}\) is :

  • (1) \(6\)
  • (2) \(7\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{13}\)
  • (4) \(4\sqrt{3}\)

Question 10:

A spherical iron ball of radius 10 cm is coated with a layer of ice of uniform thickness that melts at a rate of 50 cm\(^3\)/min. When the thickness of the ice is 5 cm, then the rate at which the thickness (in cm/min) of the ice decreases, is :

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{6\pi}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{9\pi}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{36\pi}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{18\pi}\)

Question 11:

Let z1 and z2 be two complex numbers such that 

\(z_1=iz_2 \,and \,arg(\frac{z_1}{z_2})=π.\)

  • (1) \(arg \,z_2=(\frac{\pi}{4})\)
  • (2) \(arg \,z_2=-(\frac{3\pi}{4})\)
  • (3) \(arg \,z_1=(\frac{\pi}{4})\)
  • (4) \(arg \,z_1=-(\frac{3\pi}{4})\)

Question 12:

Let \(f(x)=\log_e(\sin x)\), \((0\lt x\lt\pi)\) and \(g(x)=\sin^{-1}(e^{-x})\), \((x\ge 0)\). If \(\alpha\) is a positive real number such that \(a=(f\circ g)^{\prime}(\alpha)\) and \(b=(f\circ g)(\alpha)\), then :

  • (1) \(a\alpha^2+b\alpha-a=-2\alpha^2\)
  • (2) \(a\alpha^2+b\alpha+a=0\)
  • (3) \(a\alpha^2-b\alpha-a=0\)
  • (4) \(a\alpha^2-b\alpha-a=1\)

Question 13:

If both the mean and the standard deviation of 50 observations \(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_{50}\) are equal to 16, then the mean of \((x_1-4)^2,(x_2-4)^2,\ldots,(x_{50}-4)^2\) is :

  • (1) \(400\)
  • (2) \(480\)
  • (3) \(380\)
  • (4) \(525\)

Question 14:

The \(4^{\text {th }}\) term of \(G P\) is \(500\) and its common ratio is \(\frac{1}{m}, m \in N\) Let \(S_n\) denote the sum of the first \(n\) terms of this GP If \(S_6>S_5+1\) and \(S_7< S_6+\frac{1}{2}\), then the number of possible values of \(m\) is


Question 15:

The integral \(\displaystyle\int_{\pi/6}^{\pi/3}\sec^{2/3}x\;\mathrm{cosec}^{4/3}x\,dx\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(3^{5/3}-3^{1/3}\)
  • (2) \(3^{5/6}-3^{2/3}\)
  • (3) \(3^{4/3}-3^{1/3}\)
  • (4) \(3^{7/6}-3^{5/6}\)

Question 16:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curves \(y=2^x\) and \(y=|x+1|\), in the first quadrant is :

  • (1) \(\frac12\)
  • (2) \(\frac32\)
  • (3) \(\frac32-\frac{1}{\log_e 2}\)
  • (4) \(\log_e 2+\frac32\)

Question 17:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}+y\tan x=2x+x^2\tan x\), \(x\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), such that \(y(0)=1\). Then :

  • (1) \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)-y\left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\sqrt2\)
  • (2) \(y^{\prime}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)-y^{\prime}\left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\pi-\sqrt2\)
  • (3) \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)+y\left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{2}+2\)
  • (4) \(y^{\prime}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)+y^{\prime}\left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=-\sqrt2\)

Question 18:

If \(\cos^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}\dfrac{y}{2}=\alpha\), where \(-1\le x\le1\), \(-2\le y\le2\), \(x\le\dfrac{y}{2}\), then for all \(x,y\), \(4x^2-4xy\cos\alpha+y^2\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(4\sin^2\alpha\)
  • (2) \(2\sin^2\alpha\)
  • (3) \(4\sin^2\alpha-2x^2y^2\)
  • (4) \(4\cos^2\alpha+2x^2y^2\)

Question 19:

Lines are drawn parallel to the line \(4x-3y+2=0\), at a distance \(\dfrac35\) from the origin. Then which one of the following points lies on any of these lines ?

  • (1) \(\left(\frac14,-\frac13\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac14,\frac23\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac14,-\frac23\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac14,\frac13\right)\)

Question 20:

If \(5x+9=0\) is the directrix of the hyperbola \(16x^2-9y^2=144\), then its corresponding focus is :

  • (1) \(\left(\frac53,0\right)\)
  • (2) \((5,0)\)
  • (3) \((-5,0)\)
  • (4) \(\left(-\frac53,0\right)\)

Question 21:

The smallest natural number n, such that the coefficient of x in the expansion of \(\left(x^2+\frac{1}{x^3}\right)^n\) is \(^{n}\mathrm{C}_{23}\), is :

  • (1) 23
  • (2) 58
  • (3) 38
  • (4) 35

Question 22:

Let the tangent to the parabola S : \(y^2 = 2x\) at the point P(2, 2) meet the x-axis at Q and normal at it meet the parabola S at the point R. Then the area (in sq. units) of the triangle PQR is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{25}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{35}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{15}{2}\)
  • (4) 25

Question 23:

The negation of the Boolean expression \(\sim s \vee (\sim r \wedge s)\) is equivalent to :

  • (1) \(\sim s \wedge \sim r\)
  • (2) \(r\)
  • (3) \(s \vee r\)
  • (4) \(s \wedge r\)

Question 24:

The sum \(1+ \frac{1^{3} +2^{3}}{1+2} + \frac{1^{3}+2^{3}+3^{3}}{1+2+3} +.... + \frac{1^{3} +2^{3}+3^{3} +....+15^{3}}{1+2+3+...+15} - \frac{1}{2} \left(1+2+3+...+15\right)\)

  • (1) 1240
  • (2) 1860
  • (3) 660
  • (4) 620

Question 25:

The locus of the centres of the circles, which touch the circle, \(x^2+y^2=1\) externally, also touch the y-axis and lie in the first quadrant, is :

  • (1) \(x=\sqrt{1+2y}\ ,\ y\ge 0\)
  • (2) \(y=\sqrt{1+2x}\ ,\ x\ge 0\)
  • (3) \(y=\sqrt{1+4x}\ ,\ x\ge 0\)
  • (4) \(x=\sqrt{1+4y}\ ,\ y\ge 0\)

Question 26:

The angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC are in A.P. and \(a:b=1:\sqrt{3}\). If \(c=4\) cm, then the area (in sq. cm) of this triangle is :

  • (1) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 27:

A perpendicular is drawn from a point on the line \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y+1}{-1}=\frac{z}{1}\) to the plane \(x+y+z=3\) such that the foot of the perpendicular Q also lies on the plane \(x-y+z=3\). Then the co-ordinates of Q are :

  • (1) (4, 0, – 1)
  • (2) (2, 0, 1)
  • (3) (1, 0, 2)
  • (4) (– 1, 0, 4)

Question 28:

If the tangent to the curve \(y=\frac{x}{x^2-3}\), \(x\in\mathbb{R},\ (x\ne\pm\sqrt3)\), at a point \((\alpha,\beta)\ne(0,0)\) on it is parallel to the line \(2x+6y-11=0\), then :

  • (1) \(|6\alpha+2\beta|=9\)
  • (2) \(|2\alpha+6\beta|=11\)
  • (3) \(|2\alpha+6\beta|=19\)
  • (4) \(|6\alpha+2\beta|=19\)

Question 29:

If the plane \(2x-y+2z+3=0\) has the distances \(\frac13\) and \(\frac23\) units from the planes \(4x-2y+4z+\lambda=0\) and \(2x-y+2z+\mu=0\), respectively, then the maximum value of \(\lambda+\mu\) is equal to :

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 15

Question 30:

If the line \(ax+y=c\), touches both the curves \(x^2+y^2=1\) and \(y^2=4\sqrt{2}\,x\), then \(|c|\) is equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac12\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

A spaceship orbits around a planet at a height of 20 km from its surface. Assuming that only gravitational field of the planet acts on the spaceship, what will be the number of complete revolutions made by the spaceship in 24 hours around the planet?
[Given ; Mass of planet = \(8\times10^{22}\) kg, Radius of planet = \(2\times10^{6}\) m, Gravitational constant \(G=6.67\times10^{-11}\ \mathrm{Nm^2/kg^2}\)]

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 11

Question 32:

One mole of an ideal gas passes through a process where pressure and volume obey the relation \(P =P_{o} \left[1- \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{V_{0}}{V}\right)^{2}\right] \) .Here \(P_o\) and \(V_o\) are constants. Calculate the change in the temperature of the gas if its volume changes from \(V_o\) to \(2 V_o\) .

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{P_{o}V_{o}}{R} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4} \frac{P_{o}V_{o}}{R} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{4} \frac{P_{o}V_{o}}{R} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4} \frac{P_{o}V_{o}}{R} \)

Question 33:

A ball projected from ground at an angle of \(45^\circ\) just clears a wall in front. If point of projection is 4 m from the foot of wall and ball strikes the ground at a distance of 6 m on the other side of the wall, the height of the wall is :

  • (1) 4.4 m
  • (2) 2.4 m
  • (3) 3.6 m
  • (4) 1.6 m

Question 34:

A particle of mass 1 mg and charge q is lying at the mid-point of two stationary particles kept at a distance '2 m' when each is carrying same charge 'q'. If the free charged particle is displaced from its equilibrium position through distance 'x' (\(x << 1\) m). The particle executes SHM. Its angular frequency of oscillation will be ________ \(\times 10^5\) rad/s if \(q^2 = 10 \text{ C}^2\).


Question 35:

Number of photons of equal energy emitted per second by a 6 mW laser source
operating at wavelength 663 nm is _______.

(Given: h = 6.63 × 10^-34 J·s and c = 3 × 10^8 m/s)

  • (1) \(10\times10^{15}\)
  • (2) \(5\times10^{16}\)
  • (3) \(5\times10^{15}\)
  • (4) \(2\times10^{16}\)

Question 36:

The time dependence of the position of a particle of mass \(m=2\) is given by \(\vec{r}(t)=2t\hat{i}-3t^2\hat{j}\). Its angular momentum, with respect to the origin, at time \(t=2\) is

  • (1) \(36\hat{k}\)
  • (2) \(-48\hat{k}\)
  • (3) \(-34(\hat{k}-\hat{i})\)
  • (4) \(48(\hat{i}+\hat{j})\)

Question 37:

A simple pendulum of mass 'm', length 'l' and charge '+q' suspended in the electric field produced by two conducting parallel plates as shown. The value of deflection of pendulum in equilibrium position will be: 

 

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}\left[ \frac{q}{mg} \times \frac{C_1(V_1 + V_2)}{(C_1 + C_2)(d-t)} \right]\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1}\left[ \frac{q}{mg} \times \frac{C_2(V_1 + V_2)}{(C_1 + C_2)(d-t)} \right]\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1}\left[ \frac{q}{mg} \times \frac{C_1(V_2 - V_1)}{(C_1 + C_2)(d-t)} \right]\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1}\left[ \frac{q}{mg} \times \frac{C_2(V_2 - V_1)}{(C_1 + C_2)(d-t)} \right]\)

Question 38:

A square loop is carrying a steady current I and the magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment is m. if this square loop is changed to a circular loop and it carries the same current, the magnitude of the magnetic dipole moment of circular loop will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{m}{\pi}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3m}{\pi}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2m}{\pi}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4m}{\pi}\)

Question 39:

Space between two concentric conducting spheres of radii a and b (b > a) is filled with a medium of resistivity \(\rho\). The resistance between the two spheres will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{\rho}{2\pi}\left(\frac1a+\frac1b\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\rho}{4\pi}\left(\frac1a+\frac1b\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\rho}{2\pi}\left(\frac1a-\frac1b\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\rho}{4\pi}\left(\frac1a-\frac1b\right)\)

Question 40:

A coil of self inductance 10 mH and resistance \(0.1\ \Omega\) is connected through a switch to a battery of internal resistance \(0.9\ \Omega\). After the switch is closed, the time taken for the current to attain 80% of the saturation value is: [take \(\ln5=1.6\)]

  • (1) 0.324 s
  • (2) 0.002 s
  • (3) 0.103 s
  • (4) 0.016 s

Question 41:

Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of \(1.0\, ms^{-1}\). The crosssectional area of the tap is \(10^{-4} \; m^2\). Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and that the flow is streamlined. The cross-sectional area of the stream, \(0.15\, m\) below the tap would be : (Take \(g \,= \,10\, ms^{-2}\))

  • (1) \( 1 \times 10^{-5} \; m^2\)
  • (2) \( 5 \times 10^{-5} \; m^2\)
  • (3) \( 2 \times 10^{-5} \; m^2\)
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^{-4} \; m^2\)

Question 42:

A metal coin of mass \(5\,g\) and radius \(1\, cm\) is fixed to a thin stick \(AB\) of negligible mass as shown in the figure. The system is initially at rest. The constant torque, that will make the system rotate about \(AB\) at \(25\) rotations per second in \(5\, s\), is close to :

  • (1) \(4.0 \times 10^{-6} \) Nm
  • (2) \(2.0 \times 10^{-5} \) Nm
  • (3) \(1.6 \times 10^{-5} \) Nm
  • (4) \(7.9 \times 10^{-6} \) Nm

Question 43:

The figure represents a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode. The breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 6 V and the load resistance is, \(R_L=4\,\mathrm{k}\Omega\). The series resistance of the circuit is \(R_i=1\,\mathrm{k}\Omega\). If the battery voltage \(V_B\) varies from 8 V to 16 V, what are the minimum and maximum values of the current through Zener diode?

  • (1) 0.5 mA; 8.5 mA
  • (2) 1.5 mA; 8.5 mA
  • (3) 1 mA; 8.5 mA
  • (4) 0.5 mA; 6 mA

Question 44:

In a Young's double slit experiment, the ratio of the slit's width is \(4:1\). The ratio of the intensity of maxima to minima, close to the central fringe on the screen, will be :

  • (1) \(25:9\)
  • (2) \(4:1\)
  • (3) \((\sqrt{3}+1)^4:16\)
  • (4) \(9:1\)

Question 45:

A plane is inclined at an angle \(\alpha = 30^{\circ}\) with a respect to the horizontal. A particle is projected with a speed \(u = 2 ms^{-1}\) from the base of the plane, making an angle \(q = 15^{\circ}\) with respect to the plane as shown in the figure. The distance from the base, at which the particle hits the plane is close to : (Take \(g = 10 \; ms^{-2}\))

  • (1) 14 cm
  • (2) 20 cm
  • (3) 18 cm
  • (4) 26 cm

Question 46:

A submarine experiences a pressure of \(5.05\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{Pa}\) at a depth of \(d_1\) in a sea. When it goes further to a depth of \(d_2\), it experiences a pressure of \(8.08\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{Pa}\). Then \(d_2-d_1\) is approximately (density of water \(=10^{3}\ \mathrm{kg/m^3}\) and acceleration due to gravity \(=10\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\)) :

  • (1) \(600\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (2) \(400\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (3) \(300\ \mathrm{m}\)
  • (4) \(500\ \mathrm{m}\)

Question 47:

When heat \(Q\) is supplied to a diatomic gas of rigid molecules, at constant volume its temperature increases by \(\Delta T\). The heat required to produce the same change in temperature, at a constant pressure is :

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{5}Q\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}Q\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}Q\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{3}Q\)

Question 48:

In the formula, X=3YZ2,X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic field respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in the MKSQ system?

  • (1) (A) [M−3 L−1 T3Q4]
  • (2) (B) [M−3 L−2 T4Q4
  • (3) (C) [M−2L−2 T4Q4]
  • (4) (D) [M−3 L−2 T4Q]

Question 49:

The graph shows how the magnification \(m\) produced by a thin lens varies with image distance \(v\). What is the focal length of the lens used ?

  • (1) \(\frac{b^2 c}{a}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{b^2}{ac}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{a}{c}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{b}{c}\)

Question 50:

In an experiment, brass and steel wires of length \(1\ \mathrm{m}\) each with areas of cross section \(1\ \mathrm{mm^2}\) are used. The wires are connected in series and one end of the combined wire is connected to a rigid support and other end is subjected to elongation. The stress required to produce a net elongation of \(0.2\ \mathrm{mm}\) is, [Given, the Young's Modulus for steel and brass are, respectively, \(120\times10^{9}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\) and \(60\times10^{9}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\)]

  • (1) \(8.0\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\)
  • (2) \(1.2\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\)
  • (3) \(0.2\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\)
  • (4) \(1.8\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{N/m^2}\)

Question 51:

In \(Li^{++}\), electron in first Bohr orbit is excited to a level by a radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\). when the ion gets deexcited to the ground state in all possible ways (including intermediate emissions), a total of six spectral lines are observed. What is the value of \(\lambda\) ? (Given : \(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \; Js ; c = 3 \times 10^8 \; ms^{-1})\) ;

  • (1) 9.4 nm
  • (2) 12.3 nm
  • (3) 10.8 nm
  • (4) 11.4 nm

Question 52:

A solid sphere of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) is divided into two unequal parts. The first part has a mass of \(\frac{7M}{8}\) and is converted into a uniform disc of radius \(2R\). The second part is converted into a uniform solid sphere. Let \(I_1\) be the moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and \(I_2\) be the moment of inertia of the new sphere about its axis. The ratio \(I_1/I_2\) is given by :

  • (1) 185
  • (2) 65
  • (3) 285
  • (4) 140

Question 53:

Light is incident normally on a completely absorbing surface with an energy flux of \(25\ \mathrm{W\,cm^{-2}}\). If the surface has an area of \(25\ \mathrm{cm^2}\), the momentum transferred to the surface in \(40\) min time duration will be :

  • (1) \(6.3\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{Ns}\)
  • (2) \(5.0\times10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Ns}\)
  • (3) \(1.4\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{Ns}\)
  • (4) \(3.5\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{Ns}\)

Question 54:

A cubical block of side \(0.5\ \mathrm{m}\) floats on water with \(30\%\) of its volume under water. What is the maximum weight that can be put on the block without fully submerging it under water? [Take, density of water \(=10^{3}\ \mathrm{kg/m^3}\)]

  • (1) \(30.1\ \mathrm{kg}\)
  • (2) \(87.5\ \mathrm{kg}\)
  • (3) \(65.4\ \mathrm{kg}\)
  • (4) \(46.3\ \mathrm{kg}\)

Question 55:

The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of an equilateral triangular loop of side \(1\,m\) which is carrying a current of \(10\, A\) is : [Take \(\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \; NA^{-2}]\)

  • (1) \(18\, \mu T\)
  • (2) \(3\, \mu T\)
  • (3) \(1 \, \mu T\)
  • (4) \(9 \, \mu T\)

Question 56:

The elastic limit of brass is \(379\, MPa\). What should be the minimum diameter of a brass rod if it is to support a \(400 \,N\) load without exceeding its elastic limit ?

  • (1) \(1.16\, mm\)
  • (2) \(0.90\, mm\)
  • (3) \(1.36\, mm\)
  • (4) \(1.00\, mm\)

Question 57:

Two blocks \(A\) and \(B\) of masses \(m_A = 1 \; kg\) and \(m_B = 3 \; kg\) are kept on the table as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between \(A\) and \(B\) is \(0.2\) and between \(B\) and the surface of the table is also \(0.2.\) The maximum force \(F\) that can be applied on \(B\) horizontally, so that the block \(A\) does not slide over the block \(B\) is : (Take \(g = 10 \; m/s^2\))

  • (1) 16 N
  • (2) 40 N
  • (3) 12 /n
  • (4) 8 N

Question 58:

The correct figure that shows, schematically, the wave pattern produced by superposition of two waves of frequencies \(9 \,Hz\) and \(11\, Hz\) is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 59:

Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to that of A will be ‘e’ after a time \(\frac{1}{(aλ)}\). The value of a is _____.


Question 60:

A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of \(50\ \mathrm{m/s}\) towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as \(1000\ \mathrm{Hz}\). What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? (Take velocity of sound in air is \(350\ \mathrm{m/s}\))

  • (1) \(750\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (2) \(857\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (3) \(807\ \mathrm{Hz}\)
  • (4) \(1143\ \mathrm{Hz}\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

The major product 'Y' in the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 62:

Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity (\(\Lambda_m\)) versus \(\sqrt{C}\) is correct ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

\(2\ g\) of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in \(200\ g\) of two different solvents A and B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of \(1:8\). The elevation in boiling points of A and B are in the ratio \(\frac xy\ (x : y)\). The value of \(y\) is ______ . (Nearest Integer)


Question 64:

For the reaction \(\text{A} \to \text{B}\), the rate constant \(k\) (in \(\text{s}^{-1}\)) is given by \(\log_{10} k = 20.35 - \frac{2.47 \times 10^3}{\text{T}}\). The energy of activation in \(\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\) is ________. (Nearest integer) [Given : R = 8.314 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\)]


Question 65:

The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of \([\mathrm{CoF_3(H_2O)_3}]\) (\(\Delta_0 \lt P\)) is :

  • (1) \(-0.8\,\Delta_0\)
  • (2) \(-0.4\,\Delta_0\)
  • (3) \(-0.8\,\Delta_0 + 2P\)
  • (4) \(-0.4\,\Delta_0 + P\)

Question 66:

For the reaction,
\(\mathrm{2SO_2(g)+O_2(g)\rightleftharpoons 2SO_3(g)}\), \(\Delta H=-57.2\ \mathrm{kJ\,mol^{-1}}\) and \(K_C=1.7\times10^{16}\)
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

  • (1) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increase.
  • (2) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will be not affect the equilibrium constant.
  • (3) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required.
  • (4) The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increase.

Question 67:

The minimum amount of \(\mathrm{O_2(g)}\) consumed per gram of reactant is for the reaction :
(Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{4Fe(s)+3O_2(g)\rightarrow 2Fe_2O_3(s)}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{P_4(s)+5O_2(g)\rightarrow P_4O_{10}(s)}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C_3H_8(g)+5O_2(g)\rightarrow 3CO_2(g)+4H_2O(l)}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{2Mg(s)+O_2(g)\rightarrow 2MgO(s)}\)

Question 68:

The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is : (a) \({CH_3CO^{\ominus}_2}\) (b) \({H_2O} \) (c) \({CH_3SO^{\ominus}_3}\) (d) \({O^{\ominus}H}\)

  • (1) \((b) < (c) < (a) < (d)\)
  • (2) \((a) < (d) < (c) < (b)\)
  • (3) \((d) < (a) < (c) < (b)\)
  • (4) \((b) < (c) < (d) < (a)\)

Question 69:

The difference between \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta U\) (\(\Delta H-\Delta U\)), when the combustion of one mole of heptane(l) is carried out at a temperature \(T\), is equal to :

  • (1) \(-4RT\)
  • (2) \(3RT\)
  • (3) \(-3RT\)
  • (4) \(4RT\)

Question 70:

The major product 'Y' in the following reactions is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds?

  • (1) Angle strain
  • (2) Torsional strain
  • (3) Electrostatic forces of interaction
  • (4) Steric interactions

Question 72:

The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series of hydrogen spectrum is found to be about \(9\). The spectral series are :

  • (1) Paschen and Pfund
  • (2) Balmer and Brackett
  • (3) Lyman and Paschen
  • (4) Brackett and Pfund

Question 73:

The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively are :

  • (1) 4 and 6
  • (2) 6 and 4
  • (3) 7 and 6
  • (4) 6 and 7

Question 74:

In chromatography, which of the following statements is incorrect for Rf ?

  • (1) Rf value depends on the type of chromatography.
  • (2) Higher Rf value means higher adsorption.
  • (3) Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase.
  • (4) The value of Rf can not be more than one.

Question 75:

Compound A(C9H10O) shows positive iodoform test. Oxidation of A with KMnO4/KOH given acid B(C8H6O4). Anhydride of B is used for the preparation of phenolphthalein. Compound A is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 76:

The major product obtained in the given reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 77:

The pH of a 0.02M \(NH_4Cl\) solution will be [given \(K_b(NH_4OH) = 10^{-5}\) and log2=0.301]

  • (1) 4.65
  • (2) 5.35
  • (3) 4.35
  • (4) 2.65

Question 78:

The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies is:

  • (1) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni
  • (2) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn
  • (3) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti
  • (4) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni

Question 79:

The INCORRECT statement is :

  • (1) the color of \(\mathrm{[CoCl(NH_3)_5]^{2+}}\) is violet as it absorbs the yellow light.
  • (2) the gemstone, ruby, has \(\mathrm{Cr^{3+}}\) ions occupying the octahedral sites of beryl.
  • (3) the spin-only magnetic moment of \(\mathrm{[Ni(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{2+}}\) is 2.83 BM.
  • (4) the spin-only magnetic moments of \(\mathrm{[Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Cr(H_2O)_6]^{2+}}\) are nearly similar.

Question 80:

The noble gas that does NOT occur in the atmosphere is:

  • (1) He
  • (2) Ra
  • (3) Ne
  • (4) Kr

Question 81:

Which of the following is not a correct method of the preparation of benzylamine from cyanobenzene ?

  • (1) (i) \(\mathrm{SnCl_2 + HCl(gas)}\)    (ii) \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{H_2/Ni}\)
  • (3) (i) \(\mathrm{LiAlH_4}\)    (ii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)
  • (4) (i) \(\mathrm{HCl/H_2O}\)    (ii) \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\)

Question 82:

Number of stereo centers present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are respectively :

  • (1) 4 & 4
  • (2) 4 & 5
  • (3) 5 & 4
  • (4) 5 & 5

Question 83:

The correct option among the following is :

  • (1) Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking.
  • (2) Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have small surface area.
  • (3) Colloidal paraticles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
  • (4) Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very high.

Question 84:

The correct statements among (a) to (b) are: (a) saline hydrides produce \(H_2\) gas when reacted with \({H2O}\). (b) reaction of \(LiAH_4\) with \(BF_3\) leads to \(B_2H_6\). (c) \(PH_3\) and \(CH_4\) are electron - rich and electronprecise hydrides, respectively. (d) HF and \(CH_4\) are called as molecular hydrides.

  • (1) (c) and (d) only
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Question 85:

The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O\(_3\) is :

  • (1) Oxidising smog
  • (2) Global warming
  • (3) Acid rain
  • (4) Reducing smog

Question 86:

A hydrated solid X on heating initially gives a monohydrated compound Y. Y upon heating above 373 K leads to an anhydrous white powder Z. X and Z, respectively, are :

  • (1) Baking soda and dead burnt plaster.
  • (2) Washing soda and soda ash
  • (3) Washing soda and dead burnt plaster.
  • (4) Baking soda and soda as.

Question 87:

The number of pentagons in \(\mathrm{C_{60}}\) and trigons (triangles) in white phosphorus, respectively, are :

  • (1) 12 and 3
  • (2) 20 and 3
  • (3) 20 and 4
  • (4) 12 and 4

Question 88:

Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively correspond to (\(V_{mp} :\) most probable velocity)

  • (1) \({V_{mp} \; of \; N_2 (300K); V_{mp} \; of \; H_2(300K); V_{mp} \; of \; O_2(400K)}\)
  • (2) \({V_{mp} \; of \; H_2 (300K); V_{mp} \; of \; N_2(300K); V_{mp} \; of \; O_2(400K)}\)
  • (3) \({V_{mp} \; of \; O_2 (300K); V_{mp} \; of \; N_2(300K); V_{mp} \; of \; H_2(400K)}\)
  • (4) \({V_{mp} \; of \; N_2 (300K); V_{mp} \; of \; O_2(300K); V_{mp} \; of \; H_2(400K)}\)

Question 89: The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is :
Item - IItem - II
(a)High density polythene(I)Peroxide catalyst
(b)Polyacrylonitrile(II)Condensation at high temperature & pressure
(c)Novolac(III)Ziegler-Natta Catalyst
(d)Nylon 6(IV)Acid or base catalyst
  • (1) (a) \(\rightarrow\) (IV), (b) \(\rightarrow\) (II), (c) \(\rightarrow\) (I), (d) \(\rightarrow\) (III)
  • (2) (a) \(\rightarrow\) (III), (b) \(\rightarrow\) (I), (c) \(\rightarrow\) (IV), (d) \(\rightarrow\) (II)
  • (3) (a) \(\rightarrow\) (II), (b) \(\rightarrow\) (IV), (c) \(\rightarrow\) (I), (d) \(\rightarrow\) (III)
  • (4) (a) \(\rightarrow\) (III), (b) \(\rightarrow\) (I), (c) \(\rightarrow\) (II), (d) \(\rightarrow\) (IV)

Question 90:

The correct statement is :

  • (1) zincite is a carbonate ore.
  • (2) Sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver.
  • (3) aniline is a froth stabilizer.
  • (4) zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium.

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 April 10 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech was rated easier than the January session. The overall difficulty level was rated easy to moderate. JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech questions paper had three parts i.e. Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Almost all the chapters from class 11th and 12th from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics section made their contribution in the question paper. Students would be rewarded with 4 marks on attempting every correct answer. 1 mark would be deducted for every incorrect answer. No marks would be deducted for the unattempted questions.