JEE Main 2019 April 9 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on April 9, 2019, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 April 9 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 April 9 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

Let \(f(x)=15-|x-10|\); \(x\in R\). Then the set of all values of \(x\), at which the function, \(g(x)=f(f(x))\) is not differentiable, is :

  • (1) \(\{10,15\}\)
  • (2) \(\{5,10,15,20\}\)
  • (3) \(\{10\}\)
  • (4) \(\{5,10,15\}\)

Question 2:

Let \(\vec{\alpha}=3\hat{i}+\hat{j}\) and \(\vec{\beta}=2\hat{i}-\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\). If \(\vec{\beta}=\vec{\beta}_1-\vec{\beta}_2\), where \(\vec{\beta}_1\) is parallel to \(\vec{\alpha}\) and \(\vec{\beta}_2\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{\alpha}\), then \(\vec{\beta}_1\times\vec{\beta}_2\) is equal to

  • (1) \(3\hat{i}-9\hat{j}-5\hat{k}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(-3\hat{i}+9\hat{j}+5\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (3) \(-3\hat{i}+9\hat{j}+5\hat{k}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(3\hat{i}-9\hat{j}+5\hat{k}\right)\)

Question 3:

If one end of a focal chord of the parabola, \(y^2 = 16x\) is at \((1, 4),\) then the length of this focal chord is

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 22

Question 4:

The value of cos \(^2 10^{\circ} - cos10^{\circ} cos50^{\circ} + cos^2 50^{\circ}\)

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}(1+cos 20^{\circ})\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4} + cos 20^{\circ}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 5:

If the fourth term in the binomial expansion of \(\left(\frac{2}{x}+x^{\log_8 x}\right)^6\) (\(x\gt0\)) is \(20\times8^7\), then a value of \(x\) is :

  • (1) \(8^{-2}\)
  • (2) \(8^{2}\)
  • (3) \(8^{3}\)
  • (4) \(8\)

Question 6:

All the points in the set \(S=\left\{\frac{\alpha+i}{\alpha-i}:\alpha\in R\right\}\) (\(i=\sqrt{-1}\)) lie on a :

  • (1) straight line whose slope is \(-1\)
  • (2) straight line whose slope is 1.
  • (3) circle whose radius is 1.
  • (4) circle whose radius is \(\sqrt2\).

Question 7:

The integral \(\int sec^{2/3} x cosec^{4/3}x\, dx\) is equal to (Hence \(C\) is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(3 tan^{-1/3}x + C\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{3}{4} tan^{-4/3} x +C\)
  • (3) \(-3 cot^{-1/3}x +c\)
  • (4) \(-3 tan^{-1/3}x +C\)

Question 8:

If \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 1\)
\(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
. \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 2\)
\(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
. \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 3\)
\(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
..... \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & n-1\)
\(1 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
= \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 78\)
\(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
, then the inverse of \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & n\)
\(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
is

  • (1) \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & -13\)
    \(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0\)
    \(12 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & -12\)
    \(0 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0\)
    \(13 & 1 \end {bmatrix}\)

Question 9:

Slope of a line passing through P(2, 3) and intersecting the line, x + y = 7 at a distance of 4 units from P, is

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{\sqrt{5}+1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1- \sqrt{5}}{1+ \sqrt{5}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1- \sqrt{7}}{1+ \sqrt{7}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}-1}{\sqrt{7}+1}\)

Question 10:

The solution of the differential equation \(x\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=x^2\) (\(x\ne0\)) with \(y(1)=1\), is :

  • (1) \(y=\frac45x^3+\frac{1}{5x^2}\)
  • (2) \(y=\frac34x^2+\frac{1}{4x^2}\)
  • (3) \(y=\frac{x^2}{4}+\frac{3}{4x^2}\)
  • (4) \(y=\frac{x^3}{5}+\frac{1}{5x^2}\)

Question 11:

Let \(\sum_{k=1}^{10}f(a+k)=16\left(2^{10}-1\right)\) where the function \(f\) satisfies \(f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)\) for all natural numbers \(x,y\) and \(f(1)=2\). then the natural number '\(a\)' is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3

Question 12:

Let \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2+x+1=0\). Then for \(y\ne0\) in \(R\), \(\begin{vmatrix}y+1&\alpha&\beta\\ \alpha&y+\beta&1\\ \beta&1&y+\alpha\end{vmatrix}\) is equal to

  • (1) \(y(y^2-1)\)
  • (2) \(y(y^2-3)\)
  • (3) \(y^3\)
  • (4) \(y^3-1\)

Question 13:

If the standard deviation of the numbers \(-1,0,1,k\) is \(\sqrt5\) where \(k\gt0\), then \(k\) is equal to

  • (1) \(2\sqrt6\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt6\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{\frac56}\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{\frac{10}{3}}\)

Question 14:

If \(f(x)\) is a non-zero polynomial of degree four, having local extreme points at \(x=-1,0,1\); then the set \(S=\{x\in R:f(x)=f(0)\}\) Contains exactly :

  • (1) four rational numbers.
  • (2) four irrational numbers.
  • (3) two irrational and one rational number.
  • (4) two irrational and two rational numbers.

Question 15:

The area (in sq. units) of the region \(A=\{(x,y):x^2\le y\le x+2\}\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{31}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{13}{6}\)
  • (4) \(\frac92\)

Question 16:

Let \(p,q\in R\). If \(2-\sqrt3\) is a root of the quadratic equation, \(x^2+px+q=0\), then :

  • (1) \(p^2-4q-12=0\)
  • (2) \(q^2-4p-16=0\)
  • (3) \(q^2+4p+14=0\)
  • (4) \(p^2-4q+12=0\)

Question 17:

If the function \(f:R-\{1,-1\}\to A\) defined by \(f(x)=\frac{x^2}{1-x^2}\), is surjective, then \(A\) is equal to

  • (1) \(R-(-1,0)\)
  • (2) \(R-\{-1\}\)
  • (3) \(R-[-1,0)\)
  • (4) \([0,\infty)\)

Question 18:

If the function \(f\) defined on \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) by \(f(x)=\begin{cases}\dfrac{\sqrt2\cos x-1}{\cot x-1},&x\ne\dfrac{\pi}{4}\\ k,&x=\dfrac{\pi}{4}\end{cases}\) is continuous, then \(k\) is equal to

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(1/\sqrt2\)
  • (3) \(\frac12\)
  • (4) 2

Question 19:

Let the sum of the first \(n\) terms of a non-constant A.P., \(a_1,a_2,a_3,\dots\) be \(50n+\frac{n(n-7)}{2}A\), where \(A\) is a constant. If \(d\) is the common difference of this A.P., then the ordered pair \((d,a_{50})\) is equal to

  • (1) \((A,\,50+45A)\)
  • (2) \((50,\,50+45A)\)
  • (3) \((A,\,50+46A)\)
  • (4) \((50,\,50+46A)\)

Question 20:

A committee of 4 persons is to be formed from 2 ladies, 2 old men and 4 young men such that it includes at least 1 lady, at least 1 old man and at most 2 young men. Then the total number of ways in which this committee can be formed is :

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 41
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 32

Question 21:

The value of \(\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{\sin^3x}{\sin x+\cos x}\,dx\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi-2}{8}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi-2}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi-1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi-1}{4}\)

Question 22:

A, B, C try to hit a target simultaneously but independently. Their respective probabilities of hitting the targets are \(\frac{3}{4},\frac{1}{2},\frac{5}{8}\). The probability that the target is hit by A or B but not by C is :

  • (1) 21/64
  • (2) 7/8
  • (3) 7/32
  • (4) 9/64

Question 23:

If the line \(y = mx + 7\sqrt{3}\) is normal to the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{24} - \frac{y^2}{18} = 1\), then a value of \(m\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{15}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\)

Question 24:

If the line, \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y+1}{3} = \frac{z-2}{4}\) meets the plane, \(x + 2y + 3z = 15\) at a point P, then the distance of P from the origin is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 25:

If the tangent to the curve, \(y = x^3 + ax - b\) at the point \((1, -5)\) is perpendicular to the line, \(-x + y + 4 = 0\), then which one of the following points lies on the curve ?

  • (1) \((2, -2)\)
  • (2) \((2, -1)\)
  • (3) \((-2, 2)\)
  • (4) \((-2, 1)\)

Question 26:

Let S be the set of all values of x for which the tangent to the curve \(y = f(x) = x^3 - x^2 - 2x\) at \((x, y)\) is parallel to the line segment joining the points \((1, f(1))\) and \((-1, f(-1))\), then S is equal to :

  • (1) \(\left\{\frac{1}{3}, -1\right\}\)
  • (2) \(\left\{-\frac{1}{3}, 1\right\}\)
  • (3) \(\left\{-\frac{1}{3}, -1\right\}\)
  • (4) \(\left\{\frac{1}{3}, 1\right\}\)

Question 27:

If the tangents drawn to the hyperbola \(4y^2 = x^2 + 1\) intersect the co-ordinate axes at the distinct points \(A\) and \(B\) , then the locus of the mid point of \(AB\) is :

  • (1) \(x^2 - 4y^2 + 16x^2y^2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 - 4y^2 - 16x^2y^2 = 0\)
  • (3) \(4x^2 - y^2 + 16x^2y^2 = 0 \)
  • (4) \(4x^2 - y^2 - 16x^2y^2 = 0\)

Question 28:

Let \(S = \{\theta \in [-2\pi, 2\pi] : 2\cos^2\theta + 3\sin\theta = 0\}\). Then the sum of the elements of S is

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) \(2\pi\)
  • (3) \(\frac{13\pi}{6}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5\pi}{3}\)

Question 29:

For any two statements p and q, the negation of the expression p∨(∼p∧q) is:

  • (1) p∧q

  • (2) p↔q

  • (3) ∼p∨∼q

  • (4) ∼p∧∼q

Question 30:

A plane passing through the points \((0, -1, 0)\) and \((0, 0, 1)\) and making an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) with the plane \(y - z + 5 = 0\), also passes through the point

  • (1) \(\left(\sqrt{2}, 1, 4\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\sqrt{2}, 1, 4\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\sqrt{2}, -1, -4\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\sqrt{2}, -1, 4\right)\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

For a given gas at 1 atm pressure, rms speed of the molecule is 200 m/s at \(127^\circ\mathrm{C}\). At 2 atm pressure and at \(227^\circ\mathrm{C}\), the rms speed of the molecules will be :

  • (1) \(100\) m/s
  • (2) \(100\sqrt{5}\) m/s
  • (3) \(80\sqrt{5}\) m/s
  • (4) \(80\) m/s

Question 32:

Taking the wavelength of first Balmer line in hydrogen spectrum (n = 3 to n = 2) as 660 nm, the wavelength of the 2nd Balmer line (n = 4 to n = 2) will be :

  • (1) \(642.7\) nm
  • (2) \(488.9\) nm
  • (3) \(889.2\) nm
  • (4) \(388.9\) nm

Question 33:

A uniform cable of mass \('M'\) and length \('L'\) is placed on a horizontal surface such that its \(\bigg(\frac{1}{n}\bigg)^{th}\) part is hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the hanging part of the cable upto the surface, the work done should be :

  • (1) \(\frac{MgL}{n^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{MgL}{2n^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2MgL}{n^2}\)
  • (4) \(nMgL\)

Question 34:

A string is clamped at both the ends and it is vibrating in its 4th harmonic. The equation of the stationary wave is \(Y = 0.3\sin(0.157x)\cos(200\pi t)\). The length of the string is : (All quantities are in SI units.)

  • (1) \(60\) m
  • (2) \(20\) m
  • (3) \(80\) m
  • (4) \(40\) m

Question 35:

Following figure shows two processes A and B for a gas. If \(\Delta Q_A\) and \(\Delta Q_B\) are the amount of heat absorbed by the system in two cases, and \(\Delta U_A\) and \(\Delta U_B\) are changes in internal energies, respectively, then :

  • (1) \(\Delta Q_A > \Delta Q_B\) ; \(\Delta U_A > \Delta U_B\)
  • (2) \(\Delta Q_A \lt \Delta Q_B\) ; \(\Delta U_A \lt \Delta U_B\)
  • (3) \(\Delta Q_A > \Delta Q_B\) ; \(\Delta U_A = \Delta U_B\)
  • (4) \(\Delta Q_A = \Delta Q_B\) ; \(\Delta U_A = \Delta U_B\)

Question 36:

The pressure wave, \(P = 0.01\sin[1000t - 3x]\ \mathrm{Nm^{-2}}\), corresponds to the sound produced by a vibrating blade on a day when atmospheric temperature is \(0^\circ\mathrm{C}\). On some other day, when temperature is T, the speed of sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is found to be \(336\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\). Approximate value of T is

  • (1) \(12^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(15^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (3) \(4^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(11^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 37:

A rigid square loop of side 'a' and carrying current I\(_2\) is lying on a horizontal surface near a long current I\(_1\) carrying wire in the same plane as shown in figure. The net force on the loop due to wire will be :

  • (1) Attractive and equal to \(\frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{3 \pi}\)
  • (2) Repulsive and equal to \(\frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{4 \pi}\)
  • (3) Repulsive and equal to \(\frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{2 \pi}\)
  • (4) Zero

Question 38:

A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length of 0.4 m. The distance at which you hold the mirror from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification of 5 is :

  • (1) \(0.24\) m
  • (2) \(0.32\) m
  • (3) \(1.60\) m
  • (4) \(0.16\) m

Question 39:

A rectangular coil (Dimension \(5\ \mathrm{cm} \times 2.5\ \mathrm{cm}\)) with 100 turns, carrying a current of 3 A in the clock-wise direction is kept centered at the origin and in the X-Z plane. A magnetic field of 1 T is applied along X-axis. If the coil is tilted through \(45^\circ\) about Z-axis, then the torque on the coil is :

  • (1) \(0.42\) Nm
  • (2) \(0.55\) Nm
  • (3) \(0.38\) Nm
  • (4) \(0.27\) Nm

Question 40:

A solid sphere of mass \('M'\) and radius \('a'\) is surrounded by a uniform concentric spherical shell of thickness \(2a\) and mass \(2M\). The gravitational field at distance \('3a'\) from the centre will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{2GM}{9a^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{GM}{3a^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{GM}{9a^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2GM}{3a^2}\)

Question 41:

A system of three charges are placed as shown in the figure :

If \(D \gg d\), the potential energy of the system is best given by :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\left[\frac{q^2}{d} + \frac{qQd}{D^2}\right]\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\left[-\frac{q^2}{d} - \frac{qQd}{2D^2}\right]\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\left[-\frac{q^2}{d} - \frac{qQd}{D^2}\right]\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\left[-\frac{q^2}{d} + \frac{2qQd}{D^2}\right]\)

Question 42:

If \('M'\) is the mass of water that rises in a capillary tube of radius \('r'\), then mass of water which will rise in a capillary tube of radius \('2r'\) is :

  • (1) \(4M\)
  • (2) \(M\)
  • (3) \(2M\)
  • (4) \(\frac{M}{2}\)

Question 43:

A moving coil galvanometer has resistance \(50\ \Omega\) and it indicates full deflection at 4 mA current. A voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a \(5\ \mathrm{k\Omega}\) resistance. The maximum voltage, that can be measured using this voltmeter, will be close to :

  • (1) \(15\) V
  • (2) \(10\) V
  • (3) \(40\) V
  • (4) \(20\) V

Question 44:

A wire of resistance \(R\) is bent to form a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between E and C is : (E is mid-point of arm CD)

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{64}R\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{16}R\)
  • (3) \(R\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{4}R\)

Question 45:

If the rms velocity of hydrogen gas molecules is \(V_o\), find the rms velocity of oxygen molecules at same temperature :

  • (1) \(V_o\)
  • (2) \(\frac{V_o}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{V_o}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{V_o}{3}\)

Question 46:

The following bodies are made to roll up (without slipping) the same inclined plane from a horizontal plane. : (i) a ring of radius \(R\), (ii) a solid cylinder of radius \(R/2\) and (iii) a solid sphere of radius \(R/4\). If in each case, the speed of the centre of mass at the bottom of the incline is same, the ratio of the maximum heights they climb is :

  • (1) 20 : 15 : 14
  • (2) 4 : 3 : 2
  • (3) 2 : 3 : 4
  • (4) 10 : 15 : 7

Question 47:

In the density measurement of a cube, the mass and edge length are measured as \((10.00\pm0.10)\) kg and \((0.10\pm0.01)\) m, respectively. The error in the measurement of density is :

  • (1) 0.01 kg/m3
  • (2) 0.10 kg/m3
  • (3) 0.31 kg/m3
  • (4) 0.07 kg/m3

Question 48:

The figure shows a Young's double slit experimental setup. It is observed that when a thin transparent sheet of thickness \(t\) and refractive index \(\mu\) is put in front of one of the slits, the central maximum gest shifted by a distance equal to \(n\) fringe widths. If the wavelength of light used is \(\lambda\), \(t\) will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{D\lambda}{a(\mu-1)}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2nD\lambda}{a(\mu-1)}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2D\lambda}{a(\mu-1)}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n\lambda}{(\mu-1)}\)

Question 49:

The electric field of light wave is given as
\(\vec{E}=10^{-3}\cos\left(\frac{2\pi x}{5\times10^{-7}}-2\pi\times6\times10^{14}t\right)\hat{x}\ \frac{\mathrm{N}}{C}\)
This light falls on a metal plate of work function 2 eV. The stopping potential of the photoelectrons is :
Given, \(E\) (in eV) \(=12375/\lambda\) (in \(\mathrm{\AA}\))

  • (1) 2.48 V
  • (2) 0.48 V
  • (3) 0.72 V
  • (4) 2.0 V

Question 50:

A stationary horizontal disc is free to rotate about its axis. When a torque is applied on it, its kinetic energy as a function of \(\theta\), where \(\theta\) is the angle by which it has rotated, is given as \(k\theta^2\). If its moment of inertia is \(I\) then the angular acceleration of the disc is :

  • (1) \(\frac{k}{4I}\theta\)
  • (2) \(\frac{k}{I}\theta\)
  • (3) \(\frac{k}{2I}\theta\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2k}{I}\theta\)

Question 51:

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of \(19.6 ms^{–1}\) from the top of a tower. The ball strikes the ground after \(6 s\). The height from the ground up to which the ball can rise will be \((k/5) m\). The value of k is ______ (use \(g = 9.8 m/s^2\))


Question 52:

A simple pendulum oscillating in air has period \(T\). The bob of the pendulum is completely immersed in a non-viscous liquid. The density of the liquid is 1/16 th of the material of the bob. If the bob is inside liquid all the time, its period of oscillation in this liquid is :

  • (1) \(2T\sqrt{\frac{1}{10}}\)
  • (2) \(4T\sqrt{\frac{1}{14}}\)
  • (3) \(4T\sqrt{\frac{1}{15}}\)
  • (4) \(2T\sqrt{\frac{1}{14}}\)

Question 53:

The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by \(\vec{B} = B_0 \hat{i} [cos (kz - \omega t)] + B_1 \hat{j} cps (kz + \omega t).\) where B\(_0 = 3 � 10^{-5} T\) and B\(_1 = 2 � 10^{-6}\) T. The rms value of the force experienced by a stationary charge Q = 10 C at z = 0 is closest to :

  • (1) \(0.9 \,N\)
  • (2) \(0.1 \,N\)
  • (3) \(3 \times 10^-2\, N\)
  • (4) \(0.6\, N\)

Question 54:

A capacitor with capacitance \(5\mu\mathrm{F}\) is charged to \(5\mu\mathrm{C}\). If the plates are pulled apart to reduce the capacitance to \(2\mu\mathrm{F}\), how much work is done ?

  • (1) \(2.16\times10^{-6}\) J
  • (2) \(2.55\times10^{-6}\) J
  • (3) \(3.75\times10^{-6}\) J
  • (4) \(6.25\times10^{-6}\) J

Question 55:

A body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of 4 m/s makes an elastic collision with another body at rest and continues to move in the original direction but with one fourth of its initial speed. The speed of the two body centre of mass is \(\frac{x}{10}\) m/s. Then the value of \(x\) is ________.


Question 56:

Determine the charge on the capacitor in the following circuit :

  • (1) 2?C
  • (2) 60?C
  • (3) 200?C
  • (4) 10?C

Question 57:

The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of 2 km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4 km/h. What should be the direction of the swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to cross the river straight ?

  • (1) \(150^\circ\)
  • (2) \(120^\circ\)
  • (3) \(60^\circ\)
  • (4) \(90^\circ\)

Question 58:

The total number of turns and cross-section area in a solenoid is fixed. However, its length \(L\) is varied by adjusting the separation between windings. The inductance of solenoid will be proportional to :

  • (1) \(1/L^2\)
  • (2) \(1/L\)
  • (3) \(L\)
  • (4) \(L^2\)

Question 59:

A signal \(A\cos\omega t\) is transmitted using \(v_0\sin\omega_0 t\) as carrier wave. The correct amplitude modulated (AM) signal is

  • (1) \(v_0\sin\omega_0t+A\cos\omega t\)
  • (2) \((v_0+A)\cos\omega t\,\sin\omega_0t\)
  • (3) \(v_0\sin[\omega_0(1+0.01A\sin\omega t)t]\)
  • (4) \(v_0\sin\omega_0t+\frac{A}{2}\sin(\omega_0-\omega)t+\frac{A}{2}\sin(\omega_0+\omega)t\)

Question 60:

An NPN transistor is used in common emitter configuration as an amplifier with \(1\ \mathrm{k}\Omega\) load resistance. Signal voltage of 10 mV is applied across the base-emitter. This produces a 3 mA change in the collector current and \(15\mu\mathrm{A}\) change in the base current of the amplifier. The input resistance and voltage gain are :

  • (1) 0.67 k\(\Omega\), 200
  • (2) 0.33 k\(\Omega\), 1.5
  • (3) 0.67 k\(\Omega\), 300
  • (4) 0.33 k\(\Omega\), 300

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 62:

The element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is

  • (1) Si
  • (2) Al
  • (3) N
  • (4) C

Question 63:

Liquid 'M' and liquid 'N' form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure liquids 'M' and 'N' are 450 and 700 mmHg, respectively, at the same temperature. Then correct statement is:
(\(x_M\) = Mole fraction of 'M' in solution ;
\(x_N\) = Mole fraction of 'N' in solution ;
\(y_M\) = Mole fraction of 'M' in vapour phase ;
\(y_N\) = Mole fraction of 'N' in vapour phase)

  • (1) \(\frac{x_M}{x_N}\lt\frac{y_N}{y_N}\)
  • (2) \((x_M-y_M)\lt(x_N-y_N)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x_M}{x_N}=\frac{y_N}{y_N}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x_M}{x_N}\gt\frac{y_M}{y_N}\)

Question 64:

The degenerate orbitals of \([\mathrm{Cr(H_2O)_6}]^{3+}\) are :

  • (1) \(d_{x^2}\) and \(d_{xz}\)
  • (2) \(d_{xz}\) and \(d_{yz}\)
  • (3) \(d_{yz}\) and \(d_{z^2}\)
  • (4) \(d_{x^2-y^2}\) and \(d_{xy}\)

Question 65:

The major product of the following reaction is :
\(\mathrm{CH_3CH=CHCO_2CH_3}\ \xrightarrow{\ \mathrm{LiAlH_4}\ }\ ?\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CHO}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CO_2CH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH=CHCH_2OH}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CH_2OH}\)

Question 66:

The given plots represent the variation of the concentration of a reactant R with time for two different reactions (i) and (ii). The respective orders of the reactions are :

  • (1) 0, 1
  • (2) 1, 0
  • (3) 0, 2
  • (4) 1, 1

Question 67: The organic compound that gives following qualitative analysis is :
TestInference
(a)Dil. HClInsoluble
(b)NaOH solutionsoluble
(c)\(\mathrm{Br_2}\)/waterDecolourization
  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabilized by anion formation is :
\(\mathrm{C_2,\ O_2,\ NO,\ F_2}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{C_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{NO}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{O_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{F_2}\)

Question 69:

Which of the following statements is not true about sucrose?

  • (1) The glycosidic linkage is present between \(\mathrm{C_1}\) of \(\alpha\)-glucose and \(\mathrm{C_1}\) of \(\beta\)-fructose
  • (2) It is also named as invert sugar
  • (3) It is a non reducing sugar
  • (4) On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and fructose

Question 70:

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

Fig.
  • (1) 4-methyl-2-nitro-5-oxohept-3-enal
  • (2) 4-methyl-5-oxo-2-nitrohept-3-enal
  • (3) 4-methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
  • (4) 6-formyl-4-methyl-2-nitrohex-3-enal

Question 71:

The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in \(NO, N_2O, NO_2\) and \(N_2 O_3\) is :

  • (1) \(NO_2 < N_2O_3 < NO < N_2O\)
  • (2) \(NO_2 < NO < N_2O_3 < N_2O\)
  • (3) \(N_2O < N_2 O_3 < NO < NO_2\)
  • (4) \(N_2O < NO < N_2 O_3 < NO_2\)

Question 72:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 73:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

The one that will show optical activity is :
(en = ethane-1,2-diamine)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 75:

For a reaction, \(N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightarrow 2NH_3(g)\); identify dihydrogen \((H_2)\) as a limiting reagent in the following reaction mixtures.

  • (1) \(14g\) of \(N_2\) + \(4g\) of \(H_2\)
  • (2) \(28g\) of \(N_2\) + \(6g\) of \(H_2\)
  • (3) \(56g\) of \(N_2\) + \(10g\) of \(H_2\)
  • (4) \(35g\) of \(N_2\) + \(8g\) of \(H_2\)

Question 76:

The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in kJ mol-1 at 298 K is :
\(\mathrm{Zn(s) + Cu^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow Zn^{2+}(aq) + Cu(s)}\),
\(E^\circ = 2\ \mathrm{V}\) at 298 K
(Faraday's constant, \(F = 96000\ \mathrm{C\ mol^{-1}}\))

  • (1) 384
  • (2) \(-192\)
  • (3) \(-384\)
  • (4) 192

Question 77:

The increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction is :

  • (1) \(A \lt B \lt C \lt D\)
  • (2) \(D \lt A \lt C \lt B\)
  • (3) \(D \lt B \lt A \lt C\)
  • (4) \(B \lt C \lt A \lt D\)

Question 78:



Which among the following represents reagent ‘A’?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 79:

For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen, let \(\Delta\bar{\nu} = \Delta\bar{\nu}_{max} - \Delta\bar{\nu}_{min}\) be the difference in maximum and minimum frequencies in \(\mathrm{cm^{-1}}\). The ratio \(\dfrac{\Delta\bar{\nu}_{Lyman}}{\Delta\bar{\nu}_{Balmer}}\) is :

  • (1) 9 : 4
  • (2) 4 : 1
  • (3) 27 : 5
  • (4) 5 : 4

Question 80:

Aniline dissolved in dilute HCl is reacted with sodium nitrite at \(0^\circ\mathrm{C}\). This solution was added dropwise to a solution containing equimolar mixture of aniline and phenol in dil. HCl. The structure of the major product is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 81:

The major product of the following reaction is :
\(\mathrm{CH_3-C\equiv CH}\ \xrightarrow[\mathrm{(ii)\ DI}]{\mathrm{(i)\ DCl\ (1\ equiv.)}}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_3CD_2CH(Cl)(I)}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_3CD(Cl)CHD(I)}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CH_3C(I)(Cl)CHD_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_3CD(I)CHD(Cl)}\)

Question 82:

The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of 0.01 M \(\mathrm{BaCl_2}\) in water. Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds in water, the concentration of XY (in mol \(\mathrm{L^{-1}}\)) in solution is :

  • (1) \(4\times10^{-4}\)
  • (2) \(6\times10^{-2}\)
  • (3) \(4\times10^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(16\times10^{-4}\)

Question 83:

Excessive release of \(\mathrm{CO_2}\) into the atmosphere results in :

  • (1) depletion of ozone
  • (2) polar vortex
  • (3) global warming
  • (4) formation of smog

Question 84:

Magnesium powder burns in air to give :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{MgO}\) and \(\mathrm{Mg_3N_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{MgO}\) only
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Mg(NO_3)_2}\) and \(\mathrm{Mg_3N_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{MgO}\) and \(\mathrm{Mg(NO_3)_2}\)

Question 85:

The number of water molecule(s) not coordinated to copper ion directly in \(CuSO_4.5H_2O\), is :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Question 86:

The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which :

  • (1) gas is dispersed in solid
  • (2) solid is dispersed in gas
  • (3) liquid is dispersed in water
  • (4) gas is dispersed in liquid

Question 87:

The ore that contains the metal in the form of fluoride is :

  • (1) sphalerite
  • (2) magnetite
  • (3) malachite
  • (4) cryolite

Question 88:

\(C_{60}\), an allotrope of carbon contains :

  • (1) 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons
  • (2) 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons
  • (3) 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons
  • (4) 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons

Question 89: Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II).
Column IColumn II
(A) \(\mathrm{V_2O_5}\)(i) Polyethylene
(B) \(\mathrm{TiCl_4/Al(Me)_3}\)(ii) ethanal
(C) \(\mathrm{PdCl_2}\)(iii) \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\)
(D) Iron Oxide(iv) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (1) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(ii); (D)-(iv)
  • (2) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(iv)
  • (3) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
  • (4) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)

Question 90: Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for the following gases.
GasArNeKrXe
a/ (atm dm6 mol-2)1.30.25.14.1
b/ (10-2 dm3 mol-1)3.21.71.05.0

Which gas is expected to have the highest critical temperature?
  • (1) Ne
  • (2) Kr
  • (3) Xe
  • (4) Ar

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 April 9 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 was held on April 9, between 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The question paper was a combination of 90 questions that were distributed across three subjects i.e. Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each subject carried a total of 30 questions. The question paper pattern of April 9 slot 1 was very much similar to April 8 both the slots.

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper - Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper with Answer Key- Paper Analysis

  • The Physics section was considered the most lengthy section of the paper. The Mechanics section in the Physics section was carrying 48 marks out of 120
  • The number of Trigonometry questions were 2 which was same for slot 1 and 2 of April 8
  • The difficulty level of the Chemistry section falls between easy to moderate. The Physical Chemistry section was accountable for 30% of the total in the Chemistry section. Nearly 40% weightage was carried by the Organic Chemistry

Please have a look at the below-mentioned table, showing details of the listed questions as per chapters and sections-

Physics Mathematics Chemistry
Chapters Questions Chapters Questions Sections Questions
Mechanics 12 Algebra 11 Organic Chemistry 11
Electrostatic and Magnetism 7 Calculus 10 Inorganic Chemistry 10
Current Electricity and EMI 4 Coordinate Geometry 7 Physical Chemistry 9
Heat and Thermodynamics 4 Trigonometry 2 - -
Optics and Modern Physics 3 - - - -
Total 30 - 30 - 30

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