JEE Main 2019 January 11 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on January 11, 2019, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 January 11 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 January 11 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curve \(x^2 = 4y\) and the straight line \(x = 4y - 2\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{8}\)

Question 2:

The straight line \(x + 2y = 1\) meets the coordinate axes at A and B. A circle is drawn through A, B and the origin. Then the sum of perpendicular distances from A and B on the tangent to the circle at the origin is :

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{4}\)

Question 3:

The sum of an infinite geometric series with positive terms is 3 and the sum of the cubes of its terms is \(\frac{27}{19}\). Then the common ratio of this series is :

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{9}\)

Question 4:

If \( \int \frac{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x^{4}} dx = A \left(x\right)\left(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\right)^{m} + C \) , for a suitable chosen integer \(m\) and a function \(A(x)\), where \(C\) is a constant of integration then \((A(x))^m\) equals :

  • (1) \(\frac{-1}{3x^3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{-1}{27 x^9}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{9 x^4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{27 x^6}\)

Question 5:

Two integers are selected at random from the set {1, 2,...., 11}. Given that the sum of selected numbers is even, the conditional probability that both the numbers are even is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 6:

A square is inscribed in the circle \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x + 8y - 103 = 0\) with its sides parallel to the coordinate axes. Then the distance of the vertex of this square which is nearest to the origin is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{137}\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{41}\)
  • (4) \(13\)

Question 7:

If one real root of the quadratic equation \(81x^2 + kx + 256 = 0\) is cube of the other root, then a value of \(k\) is

  • (1) \(-81\)
  • (2) \(-300\)
  • (3) \(100\)
  • (4) \(144\)

Question 8:

The maximum value of the function \(f(x) = 3x^3 - 18x^2 + 27x - 40\) on the set \(S = \{x \in \mathbb{R} : x^2 + 30 \le 11x\}\) is :

  • (1) \(-222\)
  • (2) \(-122\)
  • (3) \(122\)
  • (4) \(222\)

Question 9:

Let A=(02qrpq−rp−qr). If AAT=I3, then |p| is:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 15

  • (3) 16

  • (4) 13

Question 10:

Let \(f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(f(x) = \frac{x}{1+x^2},\ x \in \mathbb{R}\). Then the range of f is :

  • (1) \(\left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\)
  • (2) \(\mathbb{R} - \left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\)
  • (3) \((-1, 1) - \{0\}\)
  • (4) \(\mathbb{R} - [-1, 1]\)

Question 11:

If the system of linear equations
2x + 2ay + az = 0
2x + 3by + bz = 0
2x + 4cy + cz = 0,
where a, b, c \( \in \) R are non-zero distinct; has a non-zero solution, then:

  • (1) \( {1 \over a},{1 \over b},{1 \over c} \) are in A.P.
  • (2) a + b + c = 0
  • (3) a, b, c are in G.P.
  • (4) a,b,c are in A.P.

Question 12:

If \(y(x)\) is the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} + \left(\frac{2x+1}{x}\right)y = e^{-2x},\ x \gt 0\), where \(y(1) = \frac{1}{2}e^{-2}\), then

  • (1) \(y(\log_e 2) = \log_e 4\)
  • (2) \(y(x)\) is decreasing in \((0, 1)\)
  • (3) \(y(\log_e 2) = \frac{\log_e 2}{4}\)
  • (4) \(y(x)\) is decreasing in \(\left(\frac{1}{2}, 1\right)\)

Question 13:

Let \(f(x) = \begin{cases} -1, & -2 \le x \lt 0 \\ x^2 - 1, & 0 \le x \le 2 \end{cases}\) and \(g(x) = |f(x)| + f(|x|)\). Then, in the interval \((-2, 2)\), g is :

  • (1) non continuous
  • (2) differentiable at all points
  • (3) not differentiable at two points
  • (4) not differentiable at one point

Question 14:

Let \([x]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\). Then \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\tan(\pi \sin^2 x) + \left(|x| - \sin(x[x])\right)^2}{x^2}\)

  • (1) equals \(\pi + 1\)
  • (2) equals 0
  • (3) does not exist
  • (4) equals \(\pi\)

Question 15:

The sum of the real values of \(x\) for which the middle term in the binomial expansion of \(\left(\frac{x^3}{3} + \frac{3}{x}\right)^8\) equals 5670 is :

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(8\)
  • (3) \(6\)
  • (4) \(4\)

Question 16:

The value of the integral \(\int \limits^{2}_{-2} \frac{\sin^{2}x}{\left[\frac{x}{\pi}\right] + \frac{1}{2}} dx \) (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than \(^{20}C_r\) or equal to x) is :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 4 - sin 4
  • (3) sin 4
  • (4) 0

Question 17:

Let \(a_1, a_2, ....., a_{10}\) be a G.P. If \(\frac{a_3}{a_1} = 25 \), then \(\frac{a_9}{a_5}\) equals :

  • (1) \(2(5^2)\)
  • (2) \(4(5^2)\)
  • (3) \(5^4\)
  • (4) \(5^3\)

Question 18:

If \(x\log_e(\log_e x) - x^2 + y^2 = 4\ (y \gt 0)\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x = e\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{(1+2e)}{2\sqrt{4+e^2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{(1+2e)}{\sqrt{4+e^2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{(2e-1)}{2\sqrt{4+e^2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{e}{\sqrt{4+e^2}}\)

Question 19:

Let \(f_k(x) = \frac{1}{k}\left(\sin^k x + \cos^k x\right)\) for \(k = 1, 2, 3, \dots\) Then for all \(x \in \mathbb{R}\), the value of \(f_4(x) - f_6(x)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{12}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{-1}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 20:

The outcome of each of \(30\) items was observed; \(10\) items gave an outcome \(\frac{1}{2} - d\) each, \(10\) items gave outcome \(\frac{1}{2}\) each and the remaining 10 items gave outcome \(\frac{1}{2} + d\) each. If the variance of this outcome data is \(\frac{4}{3}\) then |d| equals :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 21:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = \hat{i} + \lambda\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{c} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + (\lambda^2 - 1)\hat{k}\) be coplanar vectors. Then the non-zero vector \(\vec{a} \times \vec{c}\) is :

  • (1) \(-10\hat{i} - 5\hat{j}\)
  • (2) \(-10\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}\)
  • (3) \(-14\hat{i} + 5\hat{j}\)
  • (4) \(-14\hat{i} - 5\hat{j}\)

Question 22:

Let \(\left(-2 - \frac{1}{3}i\right)^3 = \frac{x + iy}{27}\ (i = \sqrt{-1})\), where x and y are real numbers, then \(y - x\) equals :

  • (1) \(-85\)
  • (2) \(85\)
  • (3) \(-91\)
  • (4) \(91\)

Question 23:

Equation of a common tangent to the parabola \(y^2 = 4x\) and the hyperbola \(xy = 2\) is :

  • (1) \(x + y + 1 = 0\)
  • (2) \(4x + 2y + 1 = 0\)
  • (3) \(x - 2y + 4 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x + 2y + 4 = 0\)

Question 24:

The value of \(r\) for which \({}^{20}C_r\,{}^{20}C_0 + {}^{20}C_{r-1}\,{}^{20}C_1 + {}^{20}C_{r-2}\,{}^{20}C_2 + \ldots + {}^{20}C_0\,{}^{20}C_r\) is maximum, is

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 11

Question 25:

The plane containing the line \(\frac{x-3}{2} = \frac{y+2}{-1} = \frac{z-1}{3}\) and also containing its projection on the plane \(2x + 3y - z = 5\), contains which one of the following points ?

  • (1) \((-2, 2, 2)\)
  • (2) \((2, 2, 0)\)
  • (3) \((2, 0, -2)\)
  • (4) \((0, -2, 2)\)

Question 26:

If tangents are drawn to the ellipse \(x^2 + 2y^2 = 2\) at all points on the ellipse other than its four vertices then the mid points of the tangents intercepted between the coordinate axes lie on the curve :

  • (1) \(\frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{y^2}{4} = 1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2x^2} + \frac{1}{4y^2} = 1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4x^2} + \frac{1}{2y^2} = 1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x^2}{4} + \frac{y^2}{2} = 1\)

Question 27:

In a triangle, the sum of lengths of two sides is \(x\) and the product of the lengths of the same two sides is \(y\). If \(x^2 - c^2 = y\), where \(c\) is the length of the third side of the triangle, then the circumradius of the triangle is :

  • (1) \(\frac{y}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{c}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{c}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}y\)

Question 28:

If \(q\) is false and \(p \wedge q \leftrightarrow r\) is true, then which one of the following statements is a tautology ?

  • (1) \(p \wedge r\)
  • (2) \((p \vee r) \rightarrow (p \wedge r)\)
  • (3) \(p \vee r\)
  • (4) \((p \wedge r) \rightarrow (p \vee r)\)

Question 29:

The direction ratios of normal to the plane through the points \((0, -1, 0)\) and \((0, 0, 1)\) and making an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) with the plane \(y - z + 5 = 0\) are :

  • (1) \(2, -1, 1\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3}, 1, -1\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}, 1, -1\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2}, -\sqrt{2}\)

Question 30:

Two circles with equal radii are intersecting at the points \((0, 1)\) and \((0, -1)\). The tangent at the point \((0, 1)\) to one of the circles passes through the centre of the other circle. Then the distance between the centres of these circles is :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \( 2 \sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(2\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

A slab is subjected to two forces \(\vec{F_1}\) and \(\vec{F_2}\) of same magnitude \(F\) as shown in the figure. Force \(\vec{F_2}\) is in XY-plane while force \(\vec{F_1}\) acts along z-axis at the point \((2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j})\). The moment of these forces about point O will be :

  • (1) \((3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})F\)
  • (2) \((3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k})F\)
  • (3) \((3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k})F\)
  • (4) \((3\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k})F\)

Question 32:

In a Wheatstone bridge (see fig.), Resistances \(P\) and \(Q\) are approximately equal. When \(R = 400\ \Omega\), the bridge is balanced. On interchanging \(P\) and \(Q\), the value of \(R\), for balance, is \(405\ \Omega\). The value of \(X\) is close to :

  • (1) 402.5 ohm
  • (2) 401.5 ohm
  • (3) 403.5 ohm
  • (4) 404.5 ohm

Question 33:

Three charges \(Q\), \(+q\) and \(+q\) are placed at the vertices of a right-angle isosceles triangle as shown below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of \(Q\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{-q}{1 + \sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(+q\)
  • (3) \(-2q\)
  • (4) \(\frac{-\sqrt{2}\,q}{\sqrt{2} + 1}\)

Question 34:

In the circuit shown, the switch \(S_1\) is closed at time \(t = 0\) and the switch \(S_2\) is kept open. At some later time \((t_0)\), the switch \(S_1\) is opened and \(S_2\) is closed. The behavious of the current \(I\) as a function of time \('t'\) is given by :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 35:

The resistance of the meter bridge \(AB\) is given figure is \(4\Omega\) . With a cell of emf \(\varepsilon = 0.5 \;V \) and rheostat resistance \(R_h = 2 \; \Omega\) the null point is obtained at some point \(J\). When the cell is replaced by another one of emf \(\varepsilon = \varepsilon_2\) the same null point \(J\) is found for \(R_h = 6 \; \Omega\). The emf \(\varepsilon_2\) is;

  • (1) 0.6 V
  • (2) 0.5 V
  • (3) 0.3 V
  • (4) 0.4 V

Question 36:

A particle is moving along a circular path with a constant speed of \(10\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\). What is the magnitude of the change in velocity of the particle, when it moves through an angle of \(60^\circ\) around the centre of the circle?

  • (1) zero
  • (2) \(10\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (3) \(10\sqrt{2}\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (4) \(10\sqrt{3}\ \mathrm{m/s}\)

Question 37:

A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room temperature,. The relation between temperature and volume of this process is \(TV^x\) = constant, then \(x\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 38:

In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the \(10 \; \mu F\) capacitor is \(-30 \; \mu C\) . The charge on the right plate of the \(6 \; \mu F\) capacitor is :

  • (1) \( - 18 \; \mu C \)
  • (2) \( - 12 \; \mu C \)
  • (3) \(+ 12 \; \mu C \)
  • (4) \(+ 18 \; \mu C \)

Question 39:

An equilateral triangle ABC is cut from a thin solid sheet of wood. (see figure) D, E and F are the mid-points of its sides as shown and G is the centre of the triangle. The moment of inertia of the triangle about an axis passing through G and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle is \(I_0\). If the smaller triangle DEF is removed from ABC, the moment of inertia of the remaining figure about the same axis is I. then :

  • (1) \(I = \frac{I_0}{4}\)
  • (2) \(I = \frac{15}{16}I_0\)
  • (3) \(I = \frac{9}{16}I_0\)
  • (4) \(I = \frac{3}{4}I_0\)

Question 40:

The given graph shows variation (with distance \(r\) form centre) of :

  • (1) Electric field of a uniformly charged sphere
  • (2) Electric field of a uniformly charged spherical shell
  • (3) Potential of a uniformly charged sphere
  • (4) Potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell

Question 41:

The variation of refractive index of a crown glass thin prism with wavelength of the incident light is shown. Which of the following graphs is the correct one, if \(D_m\) is the angle of minimum deviation?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 42:

In the given circuit, the current through zener diode is :

  • (1) \(5.5 \,mA\)
  • (2) \(6.7 \,mA\)
  • (3) \(2.5 \,mA\)
  • (4) \(3.3\, mA\)

Question 43:

The force of interaction between two atoms is given by \(F = \alpha\beta\exp\left(-\frac{x^2}{\alpha kt}\right)\); where \(x\) is the distance, \(k\) is the Boltzmann constant and \(T\) is temperature and \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are two constants. The dimension of \(\beta\) is :

  • (1) \(M^2L^2T^{-2}\)
  • (2) \(M^2LT^{-4}\)
  • (3) \(MLT^{-4}\)
  • (4) \(M^0L^2LT^{-4}\)

Question 44:

There are two long co-axial solenoids of same length \(l\). the inner and outer coils have radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) and number of turns per unit length \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) respectively. The rate of mutual inductance to the self-inductance of the inner-coil is :

  • (1) \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}. \frac{r^{2}_{2}}{r_{1}^{2}} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}. \frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{n_1}{n_2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n_2}{n_1}\)

Question 45:

An object is at a distance of 20 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.3 m. The lens forms an image of the object. If the object moves away from the lens at a speed of 5 m/s, the speed and direction of the image will be :

  • (1) \(1.16\times 10^{-3}\) m/s towards the lens
  • (2) \(2.26\times 10^{-3}\) m/s away from the lens
  • (3) \(3.22\times 10^{-3}\) m/s towards the lens
  • (4) \(0.92\times 10^{-3}\) m/s away from the lens

Question 46:

A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by absorbing a photon of wavelength 980\(\mathring A \). The radius of the atom in the excited state, it terms of Bohr radius \(a_0\), will be : (\(h_c\) = \(12500\, eV - \mathring A \))

  • (1) \(9a_0\)
  • (2) \(25a_0\)
  • (3) \(4a_0\)
  • (4) \(16a_0\)

Question 47:

A liquid of density \(\rho\) is coming out of a hose pipe of radius \(a\) with horizontal speed \(v\) and hits a mesh. 50% of the liquid passes through the mesh unaffected. 25% looses all of its momentum and 25% comes back with the same speed. The resultant pressure on the mesh will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{4}\rho v^2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\rho v^2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\rho v^2\)
  • (4) \(\rho v^2\)

Question 48:

A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height ' \(h\)' from the earth's surface (radius of earth \(R ; h < < R\)). The minimum increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite could escape from the earth?s gravitational field, is close to : (Neglect the effect of atmosphere.)

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2\,gR}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{g\,R}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{g\,R / 2 }\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{gR} ( \sqrt{2} - 1 ) \)

Question 49:

Ice at \(-20^{\circ} C\) os added tp \(50\, g\) of water at \(40^{\circ}C\). When the temperature of the mixture reaches \(0^{\circ}C\), it is found that \(20\, g\) of ice is still unmelted. The amount of ice added to the water was close to (Specific heat of water = \(4.2 \; J/g/^{\circ}C\)) Specific heat of Ice = \(2.1 \; J/g/^{\circ}C\) Heat of fusion of water at \(0^{\circ}C = 334 \; J/g\))

  • (1) 50 g
  • (2) 40 g
  • (3) 60 g
  • (4) 100 g

Question 50:

If the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is equal to the \(10^{-3}\) times the wavelength of a photon of frequency \(6 \times 10^{14}\) Hz, then the speed of electron is equal to : (Speed of light = \(3 \times 10^{8}\) m/s, Planck's constant = \(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\) J.s, Mass of electron = \(9.1 \times 10^{-31}\) kg)

  • (1) \(1.7 \times 10^{6}\) m/s
  • (2) \(1.45 \times 10^{6}\) m/s
  • (3) \(1.1 \times 10^{6}\) m/s
  • (4) \(1.8 \times 10^{6}\) m/s

Question 51:

A body of mass \(1\, kg\) falls freely from a height of \(100\, m\) on a platform of mass \(3\, kg\) which is mounted on a spring having spring constant \(k = 1.25 \times 10^6 \; N/m\). The body sticks to the platform and the spring's maximum compression is found to be \(x\). Given that \(g = 10 \; ms^{-2}\), the value of \(x\) will be close to :

  • (1) 4 cm
  • (2) 8 cm
  • (3) 80 cm
  • (4) 40 cm

Question 52:

Two equal resistance when connected in series to a battery, consume electric power of \(60\, W\). If these resistances are now connected in parallel combination to the same battery, the electric power consumed will be :

  • (1) 60 W
  • (2) 240 W
  • (3) 30 W
  • (4) 120 W

Question 53:

An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50 Wm\(^{-2}\) enters in a medium of refractive index 'n' without any loss. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric, and the ratio of the magnitudes of magnetic fields of the wave before and after entering into the medium are respectively, given by:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\sqrt{n}, \sqrt{n}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\sqrt{n}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}, \sqrt{n}\right)\)

Question 54:

Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density \(5\, g/m\) is \(y\, =\, 0.03\, sin(450\, t - 9x)\) where distance and time are measured is SI units. The tension in the string is :

  • (1) 10 N
  • (2) 12.5 N
  • (3) 7.5 N
  • (4) 5 N

Question 55:

A body is projected at t = 0 with a velocity 10 ms\(^{-1}\) at an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the horizontal. The radius of curvature of its trajectory at t = 1s is R. neglecting air resistance and taking acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms\(^{-2}\), the value of R is :

  • (1) 2.8 m
  • (2) 5.1 m
  • (3) 2.5 m
  • (4) 10.3 m

Question 56:

In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest, by applying a voltage of 500 V. Calculate the radius of the path if a magnetic field 100 mT is then applied. [Charge of the electron = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) C Mass of the electron = \(9.1 \times 10^{-31}\) kg]

  • (1) \(7.5 \times 10^{-4}\) m
  • (2) \(7.5 \times 10^{-3}\) m
  • (3) 7.5 m
  • (4) \(7.5 \times 10^{-2}\) m

Question 57:

In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen, between two interfering waves is \(\frac{1}{8}\) th of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to :

  • (1) 0.94
  • (2) 0.85
  • (3) 0.74
  • (4) 0.80

Question 58:

A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. considering only translational and rotational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :

  • (1) 12 RT
  • (2) 20 RT
  • (3) 4 RT
  • (4) 15 RT

Question 59:

A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion has time dependent displacement given by \(x(t) = A \sin \frac{\pi t}{90}\). The ratio of kinetic to potential energy of this particle at \(t\, =\, 210\, s\) will be :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1

Question 60:

An amplitude modulated signal is given by \(V(t) = 10[1 + 0.3 \cos(2.2 \times 10^4)] \sin(5.5 \times 10^5t)\). Here t is in seconds. The sideband frequencies (in kHz) are, [Given \(\pi = 22/7\)]

  • (1) 1785 and 1715
  • (2) 892.5 and 857.5
  • (3) 89.25 and 85.75
  • (4) 178.5 smf 171.5

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Consider the reaction
\(\mathrm{N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g)}\)

The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is \(K_p\). If pure ammonia is left to dissociate, the partial pressure of ammonia at equilibrium is given by (Assume that \(P_{NH_3} \ll P_{total}\) at equilibrium)

  • (1) \(\frac{3^{3/2}K_P^{1/2}P^2}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{K_P^{1/2}P^2}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3^{3/2}K_P^{1/2}P^2}{16}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{K_P^{1/2}P^2}{16}\)

Question 62:

The correct order of the atomic radii of \(C, Cs, Al\) and \(S\) is :

  • (1) \(S < C < Al < Cs\)
  • (2) \(S < C < Cs < Al\)
  • (3) \(C < S < Cs < Al\)
  • (4) \(C < S < Al < Cs\)

Question 63:

Two blocks of the same metal having same mass and at temperature \(T_1\) and \(T_2\), respectively, are brought in contact with each other and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium at constant pressure. The change in entropy, \(\Delta S\), for this process is :

  • (1) \(2C_p \ln\left[\frac{(T_1+T_2)^{1/2}}{T_1T_2}\right]\)
  • (2) \(2C_p \ln\left[\frac{(T_1+T_2)}{2T_1T_2}\right]\)
  • (3) \(C_p \ln\left[\frac{(T_1+T_2)^2}{4T_1T_2}\right]\)
  • (4) \(2C_p \ln\left[\frac{(T_1+T_2)}{4T_1T_2}\right]\)

Question 64:

The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be \(-0.2^\circ\)C, while it should have been \(-0.5^\circ\)C for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the diluted sample?

  • (1) 1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk
  • (2) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk
  • (3) 3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk
  • (4) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk

Question 65:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 66: The correct match between items I and II is :
Item-I (Mixture)Item-II (Seperation method)
(A) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\) : Sugar(P) Sublimation
(B) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\) : Aniline(Q) Recrystallization
(C) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\) : Toluene(R) Steam distillation
(S) Differential extraction
  • (1) A \(\rightarrow\) (R); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (P); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (S)
  • (2) A \(\rightarrow\) (Q); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (R); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (S)
  • (3) A \(\rightarrow\) (Q); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (P); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (R)
  • (4) A \(\rightarrow\) (S); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (R); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (P)

Question 67:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of wavelength of about \(900\, nm\). Which spectral line of H-atom is suitable for this purpose ? \([R_H = 1 \times 10^5 \; cm^{-1}, h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \; Js, c = 3 \times 10^8 \; ms^{-1}]\)

  • (1) Paschen, \(5\to 3\)
  • (2) Paschen, \(\infty \to 3\)
  • (3) Lyman, \(\infty \to 1\)
  • (4) Balmer, \(\infty \to 2\)

Question 69:

The element that usually does NOT show variable oxidation states is :

  • (1) V
  • (2) Cu
  • (3) Sc
  • (4) ti

Question 70:

Which of the following is an aromatic compound?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

Among the following compounds, which one is found in RNA ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

For the chemical reaction \(\mathrm{X \rightleftharpoons Y}\), the standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on temperature \(T\) (in K) as \(\Delta_r G^\circ\) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) = \(120 - \frac{3}{8}T\).
The major component of the reaction mixture at \(T\) is :

  • (1) Y if \(T = 300\) K
  • (2) Y if \(T = 280\) K
  • (3) X if \(T = 350\) K
  • (4) X if \(T = 315\) K

Question 73:

A \(10\, mg\) effervescent tablet contianing sodium bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases \(0.25\, ml\) of \({CO_2}\) at \(T\) = \(298.15\, K\) and \(p = 1\) bar. If molar volume of \({CO_2}\) is \(25.0\, L\) under such condition, what is the percentage of sodium bicarbonate in each tablet ? [Molar mass of \({NaHCO_3 = 84 \; g \; mol^{-1}}\)]

  • (1) 16.8
  • (2) 8.4
  • (3) 0.84
  • (4) 33.6

Question 74:

An organic compound is estimated through Duma's method and was found to evolve 6 moles of \(\mathrm{CO_2}\), 4 moles of \(\mathrm{H_2O}\) and 1 mole of nitrogen gas. The formula of the compound is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{C_6H_8N}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{C_6H_8N_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C_{12}H_8N}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{C_{12}H_8N_2}\)

Question 75: For the cell \(\mathrm{Zn(s)\,|\,Zn^{2+}(aq)\,||\,M^{x+}(aq)\,|\,M(s)}\), different half cells and their standard electrode potentials are given below :
\(\mathrm{M^{x+}(aq)/M(s)}\)\(\mathrm{Au^{3+}(aq)/Au(s)}\)\(\mathrm{Ag^{+}(aq)/Ag(s)}\)\(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}(aq)/Fe^{2+}(aq)}\)\(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}(aq)/Fe(s)}\)
\(E^\circ_{M^{x+}/M}\) (V)1.400.800.77\(-0.44\)
If \(E^\circ_{\mathrm{Zn^{2+}/Zn}} = -0.76\) V, which cathode will give maximum value of \(E^\circ_{cell}\) per electron transferred?
  • (1) \(\mathrm{Ag^{+}/Ag}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Au^{3+}/Au}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}/Fe}\)

Question 76:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 77:

The major product of the following reaction is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 78:

If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation, the plot \(\ln k\) vs \(\frac{1}{RT}\) gives straight line with a gradient (\(-y\)) unit.
The energy required to active the reactant is :

  • (1) \(y\) unit
  • (2) \(y/R\) unit
  • (3) \(yR\) unit
  • (4) \(-y\) unit

Question 79: Match the metals (column I) with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s) (column II)
(Column I)Metals(Column II)Coordination compounds(s) enzyme(s)
(A)Co(i)Wilkinson catalyst
(B)Zn(ii)Chlorophyl
(C)Rh(iii)Vitamin \(\mathrm{B_{12}}\)
(D)Mg(iv)Carbonic anhydrase
  • (1) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
  • (2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
  • (3) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
  • (4) (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)

Question 80:

An example of solid sol is :

  • (1) Butter
  • (2) Gem stones
  • (3) Paint
  • (4) Hair cream

Question 81:

The chloride that CANNOT get hydrolysed is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{SnCl_4}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{SiCl_4}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{PbCl_4}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CCl_4}\)

Question 82:

NaH is an example of :

  • (1) Electron-rich hydride
  • (2) Molecular hydride
  • (3) Saline hydride
  • (4) Metallic hydride

Question 83: The correct match between item (I) and item (II) is :
Item-IItem-II
(A) Norethindrone(P) Anti-biotic
(B) Ofloxacin(Q) Anti-fertility
(C) Equanil(R) Hypertension
(S) Analgesics
  • (1) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (R); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (P); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (R)
  • (2) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (R); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (P); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (S)
  • (3) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (Q); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (P); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (R)
  • (4) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (Q); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (R); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (S)

Question 84:

The concentration of dissolved oxygen \((DO)\) in cold water can go upto :

  • (1) 10 ppm
  • (2) 14 ppm
  • (3) 16 ppm
  • (4) 8 ppm

Question 85:

The polymer obtained from the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 86:

Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant is produced by :

  • (1) classical smog
  • (2) acid rain
  • (3) photochemical smog
  • (4) organic waste

Question 87:

The amphoteric hydroxide is :

  • (1) \(\ce{Ca(OH)2}\)
  • (2) \(\ce{Be(OH)2}\)
  • (3) \(\ce{Sr(OH)2}\)
  • (4) \(\ce{Mg(OH)2}\)

Question 88:

The correct statements among (a) to (d) regarding \(\mathrm{H_2}\) as a fuel are :
(a) It produces less pollutants than petrol.
(b) A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weighs \(\sim\) 30 times more than a petrol tank producing the same amount of energy.
(c) Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of metal alloys like \(\mathrm{NaNi_5}\).
(d) On combustion, values of energy released per gram of liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and 142 KJ, respectively.

  • (1) (a) and (c) only
  • (2) (b) and (d) only
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

Question 89:

A solid having density of \(9 \times 10^3 \; kg \; m^{-3}\) forms face centred cubic crystals of edge length \(200 \sqrt{2}\) pm. What is the molar mass of the solid ? [Avogadro constant \(\simeq 6 \times 10^{23} \, mol^{-1}, \pi \simeq 3]\)

  • (1) \({0.0216 \; kg \; mol^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \({0.0305 \; kg \; mol^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \({0.4320\; kg \; mol^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \({0.0432\; kg \; mol^{-1}}\)

Question 90: Match List - I with List - II.
List I (Metal)List II (Ores)
(a)Aluminium(i)Siderite
(b)Iron(ii)Calamine
(c)Copper(iii)Kaolinite
(d)Zinc(iv)Malachite

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 January 11 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech was successfully concluded on 11 January 2019 in the Forenoon Session (9:30 AM to 12:30 PM). As per the candidates, the overall difficulty level was rated easy to moderate. Chemistry was the easiest section across the question paper.

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper: Detailed Analysis

Kindly refer to the below-mentioned table to see the sectional analysis of JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper-

Mathematics
  • The overall difficulty level was rated moderate
  • Conics was on the difficult side of the question paper, while Algebra was comparatively easy
  • Questions related to Vector and 3-D were tricky
  • Students gave a mix reaction about the questions based onCalculus
Chemistry
  • Chemistry section was rated easy by the students
  • Decent number NCERT questions were listed in the exam
  • Inorganic chemistry hold the highest weightage
Physics
  • The Physics section was rated the most difficult section in the exam
  • Questions related to Mechanics were difficult
  • Questions related to Magnetism were easy
  • Questions based on Calculations were complex