JEE Main 2020 January 9 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on January 9, 2020, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2020 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, 0 for an unattempted question; no negative marking for numerical value questions
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2020 January 9 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2020 January 9 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If the number of five digit numbers with distinct digits and 2 at the 10th place is 336 k, then k is equal to :

  • (1) \(6\)
  • (2) \(8\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(7\)

Question 2:

The value of
\(\cos^3\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\cos\left(\frac{3\pi}{8}\right)+\sin^3\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)\sin\left(\frac{3\pi}{8}\right)\)
is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 3:

If for all real triplets (a, b, c), \(f(x)=a+bx+cx^2\); then
\(\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx\)
is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{6}\left\{f(0)+f(1)+4f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right\}\)
  • (2) \(2\left\{3f(1)+2f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right\}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3}\left\{f(0)+f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right\}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\left\{f(1)+3f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right\}\)

Question 4:

A spherical chocolate ball has a layer of ice-cream of uniform thickness around it. When the thickness of the ice-cream layer is 1 cm, the ice-cream melts at the rate of 81 cm³/min and the thickness of the ice-cream layer decreases at the rate of \( \frac{1}{4\pi} \) cm/min. The surface area (in cm²) of the chocolate ball (without the ice-cream layer) is:

  • (1) \( 225\pi \)
  • (2) \( 128\pi \)
  • (3) \( 196\pi \)
  • (4) \( 256\pi \)

Question 5:

Let z be complex number such that
\(\left|\frac{z-i}{z+2i}\right|=1\)
and \(|z|=\frac{5}{2}\).
Then the value of \(|z+3i|\) is :

  • (1) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{15}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 6:

The value of
\(\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{x\sin^8x}{\sin^8x+\cos^8x}\,dx\)
is equal to :

  • (1) \(4\pi\)
  • (2) \(2\pi\)
  • (3) \(\pi^2\)
  • (4) \(2\pi^2\)

Question 7:

The integral
\(\int\frac{dx}{(x+4)^{\frac87}(x-3)^{\frac67}}\)
is equal to :
(where C is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{x-3}{x+4}\right)^{\frac37}+C\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{x-3}{x+4}\right)^{\frac17}+C\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{13}\left(\frac{x-3}{x+4}\right)^{\frac{13}{7}}+C\)
  • (4) \(-\left(\frac{x-3}{x+4}\right)^{-\frac17}+C\)

Question 8:

Let \(f\) be any function continuous on [a, b] and twice differentiable on (a, b). If for all \(x\in(a,b)\), \(f'(x)>0\) and \(f''(x)<0\), then for any \(c\in(a,b)\),
\(\frac{f(c)-f(a)}{f(b)-f(c)}\)
is greater than :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{b-c}{c-a}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{b+a}{b-a}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{c-a}{b-c}\)

Question 9:

In a box, there are 20 cards, out of which 10 are lebelled as A and the remaining 10 are labelled as B. Cards are drawn at random, one after the other and with replacement, till a second A-card is obtained. The probability that the second A-card appears before the third B-card is :

  • (1) \(\frac{13}{16}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{11}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{16}\)

Question 10:

If
\(f(x)=\begin{cases}\dfrac{\sin(a+2)x+\sin x}{x}; & x<0\\[2mm] b\ ; & x=0\\[2mm] \dfrac{(x+3x^2)^{\frac13}-x^{\frac13}}{x^{\frac43}}; & x>0\end{cases}\)
is continuous at x = 0, then a + 2b is equal to :

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(-1\)
  • (3) \(-2\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 11:

Let C be the centroid of the triangle with vertices (3, \(-1\)), (1, 3) and (2, 4). Let P be the point of intersection of the lines \(x+3y-1=0\) and \(3x-y+1=0\). Then the line passing through the points C and P also passes through the point :

  • (1) \((-9,-7)\)
  • (2) \((9,7)\)
  • (3) \((7,6)\)
  • (4) \((-9,-6)\)

Question 12:

The number of real roots of the equation,
\(e^{4x}+e^{3x}-4e^{2x}+e^x+1=0\) is :

  • (1) \(1\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(3\)
  • (4) \(4\)

Question 13:

Let the observations \(x_i\ (1\le i\le10)\) satisfy the equations,
\(\sum_{i=1}^{10}(x_1-5)=10\) and \(\sum_{i=1}^{10}(x_1-5)^2=40\).
If \(\mu\) and \(\lambda\) are the mean and the variance of the observations, \(x_1-3,x_2-3,\dots,x_{10}-3\), then the ordered pair \((\mu,\lambda)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \((6,6)\)
  • (2) \((3,3)\)
  • (3) \((3,6)\)
  • (4) \((6,3)\)

Question 14:

If \(f'(x) = \tan^{-1}(\sec x + \tan x)\), \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \lt x \lt \frac{\pi}{2}\), and \(f(0) = 0\), then \(f(1)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi-1}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi+1}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi+2}{4}\)

Question 15:

If for some \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) in R, the intersection of the following three places
\(x + 4y - 2z = 1\)
\(x + 7y - 5z = b\)
\(x + 5y + \alpha z = 5\)
is a line in \(\mathbb{R}^3\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to :

  • (1) -10
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 2

Question 16:

Let \( e_1 \) and \( e_2 \) be the eccentricities of the ellipse \frac{x^2}{b^2} + \frac{y^2}{25} = 1 and the hyperbola \frac{x^2}{16} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1, respectively. If \( b<5 \) and \( e_1 e_2 = 1 \), then the eccentricity of the ellipse having its axes along the coordinate axes and passing through all four foci (two of the ellipse and two of the hyperbola) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{7}}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)

Question 17:

A circle touches the y-axis at the point \((0, 4)\) and passes through the point \((2, 0)\). Which of the following lines is not a tangent to this circle?

  • (1) \(3x - 4y - 24 = 0\)
  • (2) \(4x + 3y - 8 = 0\)
  • (3) \(3x + 4y - 6 = 0\)
  • (4) \(4x - 3y + 17 = 0\)

Question 18:

If the matrices \(A = \begin{bmatrix}1&1&2\\1&3&4\\1&-1&3\end{bmatrix}\), \(B = \mathrm{adj}A\) and \(C = 3A\), then \(\frac{|\mathrm{adj}B|}{|C|}\) is equal to :

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 72
  • (4) 16

Question 19:

Negation of the statement :
\(\sqrt{5}\) is an integer or 5 is an irrational is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{5}\) is not an integer and 5 is not irrational.
  • (2) \(\sqrt{5}\) is irrational or 5 is an integer.
  • (3) \(\sqrt{5}\) is an integer and 5 is irrational.
  • (4) \(\sqrt{5}\) is not an integer or 5 is not irrational.

Question 20:

The product \(2^{\frac{1}{4}} \cdot 4^{\frac{1}{16}} \cdot 8^{\frac{1}{48}} \cdot 16^{\frac{1}{128}} \cdots\) to \(\infty\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(2^{\frac{1}{4}}\)
  • (2) \(2^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

The number of distinct solutions of the equation \(\log_{\frac{1}{2}}|\sin x| = 2 - \log_{\frac{1}{2}}|\cos x|\) in the interval \([0, 2\pi]\), is ____.


Question 22:

The projection of the line segment joining the points \((1, -1, 3)\) and \((2, -4, 11)\) on the line joining the points \((-1, 2, 3)\) and \((3, -2, 10)\) is ____________.


Question 23:

The coefficient of \(x^4\) is the expansion of \((1 + x + x^2)^{10}\) is _____.


Question 24:

If for \(x \ge 0\), \(y = y(x)\) is the solution of the differential equation \((x+1)\,dy = \left((x+1)^2 + y - 3\right)dx\), \(y(2) = 0\), then \(y(3)\) is equal to ______.


Question 25:

If the vectors, \(\vec{p} = (a+1)\hat{i} + a\hat{j} + a\hat{k}\), \(\vec{q} = a\hat{i} + (a+1)\hat{j} + a\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{r} = a\hat{i} + a\hat{j} + (a+1)\hat{k}\) \((a \in R)\) are coplanar and \(3(\vec{p}\cdot\vec{q})^2 - \lambda|\vec{r}\times\vec{q}|^2 = 0\), then the value of \(\lambda\) is ______.


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by \(700\, Nm^{-2}\) between \(A\) and \(B\) where the area of cross section are \(40\, cm^2\) and \(20\, cm^2\), respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube. (density of water = \(1000\, kgm^{-3}\))

  • (1) \(3020\, cm^3/s\)
  • (2) \(2420\, cm^3/s\)
  • (3) \(2720\, cm^3/s\)
  • (4) \(1810\,cm^3/s\)

Question 27:

An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6.0 x 10-6 Cm placed in a uniform electric field of 1.5 x 103 NC-1 in such a way that dipole moment is along electric field. The work done in rotating dipole by 180º in this field will be _____mJ.


Question 28:

In the given circuit diagram, a wire is joining points B and D. The current in this wire is :

  • (1) 4 A
  • (2) 2 A
  • (3) zero
  • (4) 0.4 A

Question 29:

Two particles of equal mass m have respective initial velocities \(u\hat{i}\) and \(u\left(\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{2}\right).\) They collide completely inelastically. The energy lost in the process is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{4} mu^{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} mu^{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3} mu^{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{8} mu^{2}\)

Question 30:

Three solid spheres each of mass \(m\) and diameter \(d\) are stuck together such that the lines connecting the centres form an equilateral triangle of side of length \(d\). The ratio \(I_0/I_A\) of moment of inertia \(I_0\) of the system about an axis passing the centroid and about center of any of the spheres \(I_A\) and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle is :

  • (1) \(\frac{15}{13}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13}{15}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{13}{23}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{23}{13}\)

Question 31:

Three harmonic waves having equal frequency \(\nu\) and same intensity \(I_0\), have phase angles 0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) and \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\) respectively. When they are superimposed the intensity of the resultant wave is close to :

  • (1) 5.8 \(I_0\)
  • (2) 3 \(I_0\)
  • (3) 0.2 \(I_0\)
  • (4) \(I_0\)

Question 32:

A charged particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' moving under the influence of uniform electric field \(E\hat{i}\) and a uniform magnetic field \(B\hat{k}\) follows a trajectory from point P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q are respectively, \(v\hat{i}\) and \(-2v\hat{j}\). Then which of the following statements (A, B, C, D) are the correct ? (Trajectory shown is schematic and not to scale) :

(A) \(E=\frac{3}{4}\left(\frac{mv^2}{qa}\right)\)
(B) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is \(\frac{3}{4}\left(\frac{mv^3}{a}\right)\)
(C) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero
(D) The difference between the magnitude of angular momentum of the particle at P and Q is \(2mav\).

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C)
  • (3) (A), (C), (D)
  • (4) (B), (C), (D)

Question 33:

A vessel of depth \(2\,h\) is half filled with a liquid of refractive index \(2\sqrt{2}\) and the upper half with another liquid of refractive index \(\sqrt{2}\) The liquids are immiscible. The apparent depth of the inner surface of the bottom of vessel will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}h\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{h}{3\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{h}{2\left(\sqrt{2}+1\right)}\)

Question 34:

Consider two ideal diatomic gases \(A\) and \(B\) at some temperature \(T\). Molecules of the gas A are rigid , and have an mass \(m\). Molecules of the gas \(B\) have an additional vibrational mode, and have a mass \(\frac{m}{4}.\) The ratio of the specific heats \((C^{A}_{V}\) and \(C^{B}_{V})\) of gas \(A\) and \(B\), respectively is :

  • (1) 5:09
  • (2) 7:09
  • (3) 3:05
  • (4) 5:07

Question 35:

The electric fields of two plane electromagnetic plane waves in vacuum are given by
\(\vec{E_1}=E_0\hat{j}\cos(\omega t-kx)\) and
\(\vec{E_2}=E_0\hat{k}\cos(\omega t-ky)\)
At \(t=0\), a particle of charge \(q\) is at origin with a velocity \(\vec{v}=0.8c\,\hat{j}\) (\(c\) is the speed of light in vacuum). The instantaneous force experienced by the particle is :

  • (1) \(E_0q\left(0.8\hat{i}-\hat{j}+0.4\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (2) \(E_0q\left(-0.8\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (3) \(E_0q\left(0.8\hat{i}+\hat{j}+0.2\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (4) \(E_0q\left(0.4\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+0.8\hat{k}\right)\)

Question 36:

Radiation, with wavelength \(6561\,\mathrm{\AA}\) falls on a metal surface to produce photoelectrons. The electrons are made to enter a uniform magnetic field of \(3\times10^{-4}\) T. If the radius of the largest circular path followed by the electrons is 10 mm, the work function of the metal is close to :

  • (1) 1.8 eV
  • (2) 0.8 eV
  • (3) 1.1 eV
  • (4) 1.6 eV

Question 37:

If de-Broglie wavelength is \(\lambda\) when energy is E. Find the wavelength at \(\frac{E}{4}\) (Kinetic Energy).

  • (1) \(2\lambda \)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}\lambda \)
  • (3) \(\lambda \)
  • (4) \(\frac{\lambda }{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 38:

The aperture diameter of a telescope is 5 m. The separation between the moon and the ear this \(4 \times 10^5\) km. With light of wavelength of 5500 \(?\), the minimum separation between objects on the surface of moon, so that they are just resolved, is close to :

  • (1) 600 m
  • (2) 20 m
  • (3) 60 m
  • (4) 200 m

Question 39:

A quantity \(f\) is given by \(f=\sqrt{\frac{hc^5}{G}}\) where \(c\) is speed of light, \(G\) universal gravitational constant and \(h\) is the Planck's constant. Dimension of \(f\) is that of :

  • (1) Energy
  • (2) Momentum
  • (3) Area
  • (4) Volume

Question 40:

In a screw gauge, when the circular scale is given five complete rotations, it moves linearly by \(2.5\,mm\lt /strong\gt \). If the circular scale has 100 divisions, the least count of the screw gauge is:}

  • (1) \(1\times10^{-2}\) mm
  • (2) \(5\times10^{-3}\) mm
  • (3) \(1\times10^{-3}\) mm
  • (4) \(4\times10^{-2}\) mm

Question 41:

A body A of mass \(m\) is moving in a circular orbit of radius \(R\) about a planet. Another body B of mass \(\frac{m}{2}\) collides with A with a velocity which is half \(\left(\frac{\vec{v}}{2}\right)\) the instantaneous velocity \(\vec{v}\) of A. The collision is completely inelastic. Then, the combined body :

  • (1) starts moving in an elliptical orbit around the planet.
  • (2) Falls vertically downwards towards the planet
  • (3) Escapes from the Planet's Gravitational field.
  • (4) continues to move in a circular orbit

Question 42:

Which of the following is an equivalent cyclic process corresponding to the thermodynamic cyclic given in the figure ? where, \(1\to2\) is adiabatic.
(Graphs are schematic and are not to scale)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 43:

A long straight wire of radius \(a\) carries a steady current \(I\). The current is uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic field at \(\frac{a}{2}\) and \(2a\) from axis of the wire is:

  • (1) 1 : 4
  • (2) 4 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 1
  • (4) 3 : 4

Question 44:

Consider a sphere of radius \(R\) which carries a uniform charge density \(\rho\). If a sphere of radius \(\frac{R}{2}\) Ls carved out of it, as shown, the ratio \(\frac{\left|\overrightarrow{E_{A}}\right|}{\left|\overrightarrow{E_{B}}\right|}\) of magnitude of electric field \(\overrightarrow{E_{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{E}_{B}\) respectively, at points A and B due to the remaining portion is :

  • (1) \(\frac{21}{34}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{18}{54}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{17}{54}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{18}{34}\)

Question 45:

Consider a force \(\vec{F}=-x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}\). The work done by this force in moving a particle from point A(1, 0) to B(0, 1) along the line segment is : (all quantities are in SI units)

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

In a fluorescent lamp choke (a small transformer) 100 V of reverse voltage is produced when the choke current changes uniformly from 0.25 A to 0 in a duration of 0.025 ms. The self-inductance of the choke (in mH) is estimated to be ________.


Question 47:

A body of mass \(m=10\) kg is attached to one end of a wire of length 0.3 m. The maximum angular speed (in rad s-1) with which it can be rotated about its other end in space station is : (Breaking stress of wire \(=4.8\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-2}}\) and area of cross-section of the wire \(=10^{-2}\ \mathrm{cm^2}\)) is:


Question 48:

One end of a straight uniform 1 m long bar is pivoted on horizontal table. It is released from rest when it makes an angle 30\(^\circ\) from the horizontal (see figure). Its angular speed when it hits the table is given as \(\sqrt{n}\ \mathrm{s^{-1}}\), where \(n\) is an integer. The value of \(n\) is ________.


Question 49:

The distance \(x\) covered by a particle in one dimensional motion varies with time \(t\) as \(x^2 = at^2 + 2bt + c\). If the acceleration of the particle depends on \(x\) as \(x^{-n}\), where \(n\) is an integer, the value of \(n\) is __________


Question 50:

Both the diodes used in the circuit shown are assumed to be ideal and have negligible resistance when these are forward biased. Built in potential in each diode is \(0.7\ \mathrm{V}\). For the input voltages shown in the figure, the voltage (in Volts) at point A is __________.


Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

Identify (A) in the following reaction sequence :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 52:

B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements :
(I) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
(II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons of Be.
(III) 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p electron.
(IV) atomic radius of B is more than Be (Atomic number B = 5, Be = 4)
The correct statements are :

  • (1) (I), (III) and (IV)
  • (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
  • (3) (I), (II) and (IV)
  • (4) (I), (II) and (III)

Question 53:

Which of these will produce the highest yield in Friedel Crafts reaction?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 54:

For following reactions \({A ->[700\,K][] Product}\) \({A ->[500\,K][{\text{catalyst}}] Product}\) it was found that the \(E_a\) is decreased by 30 k J/mol in the presence of catalyst. If the rate remains unchanged, the activation energy for catalysed reaction is (Assume pre exponential factor is same):

  • (1) \(198 \,kJ/ mol\)
  • (2) \(105\, kJ/ mol\)
  • (3) \(75 \,kJ/ mol\)
  • (4) \(135 \,kJ/ mol\)

Question 55:

The \(K_{sp}\) for the following dissociation is \(1.6 \times 10^{-5}\)
\(\mathrm{PbCl_{2(s)} \rightleftharpoons Pb^{2+}_{(aq)} + 2Cl^-_{(aq)}}\)
Which of the following choices is correct for a mixture of 300 mL 0.134 M \(\mathrm{Pb(NO_3)_2}\) and 100 mL 0.4 M NaCl ?

  • (1) \(Q \gt K_{sp}\)
  • (2) Not enough data provided
  • (3) \(Q \lt K_{sp}\)
  • (4) \(Q = K_{sp}\)

Question 56:

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the \(4^{th}\) Bohr orbit is :

  • (1) \(6\pi a_{0}\)
  • (2) \(2\pi a_{0}\)
  • (3) \(8\pi a_{0}\)
  • (4) \(4\pi a_{0}\)

Question 57:

The major product (Y) in the following reactions is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 58:

If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{O_2^-}\) or \(\mathrm{O_2^+}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{O_2}\), \(\mathrm{O_2^-}\) or \(\mathrm{O_2^+}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{O_2}\) or \(\mathrm{O_2^+}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{O_2}\) or \(\mathrm{O_2^-}\)

Question 59:

Complex X of composition \(Cr(H_2O)_6Cl_n\) has a spin only magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. It reacts with \(AgNO_3\) and shows geometrical isomerism. The IUPAC nomenclature of X is :

  • (1) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium(IV) chloride dihydrate
  • (2) Hexaaqua chromium(III) chloride
  • (3) Dichloridotetraaqua chromium(IV) chloride dihydrate
  • (4) Tetraaquadichlorido chromium(III) chloride dihydrate

Question 60:

The major product Z obtained in the following reaction scheme is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 61:

If enthalpy of atomisation for \(Br_{2(I)}\) is \(x \,kJ/mol\) and bond enthalpy for \(Br_2\) is \(y\, kj/mol\), the relation between them :

  • (1) is \(x < y\)
  • (2) does not exist
  • (3) is \(x > y\)
  • (4) is \(x = y\)

Question 62:

The correct order of heat of combustion for following alkadienes is :

  • (1) (b) < (c) < (a)
  • (2) (a) < (c) < (b)
  • (3) (a) < (b) < (c)
  • (4) (c) < (b) < (a)

Question 63:

The compound that cannot act both as oxidising and reducing agent is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{H_3PO_4}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{H_2SO_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{HNO_2}\)

Question 64:

The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{Cl_2O}\), CaO, \(\mathrm{P_4O_{10}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{N_2O_3}\), \(\mathrm{Li_2O}\), \(\mathrm{Al_2O_3}\)
  • (3) MgO, \(\mathrm{Cl_2O}\), \(\mathrm{Al_2O_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Na_2O}\), \(\mathrm{SO_3}\), \(\mathrm{Al_2O_3}\)

Question 65:

The electronic configurations of bivalent europium and trivalent cerium are : (atomic number: \(Xe = 54, Ce =58, Eu ??63\))

  • (1) \([Xe] 4f^7\) and \([Xe] 4f^1\)
  • (2) \([Xe] 4f^7 \,6s^2\) and \([Xe] 4f^2\,6s^2\)
  • (3) \([Xe] 4f^2\) and \([Xe] 4f^7\)
  • (4) \([Xe] 4f^4\) and \([Xe] 4f^9\)

Question 66:

The increasing order of basicity for the following intermediates is (from weak to strong)

(i) \((\mathrm{CH_3})_3\mathrm{C}^{\ominus}\)
(ii) \(\mathrm{H_2C=CH-\overset{\ominus}{C}H_2}\)
(iii) \(\mathrm{HC\equiv C^{\ominus}}\)
(iv) \(\overset{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H_3}\)
(v) \(\mathrm{{}^{\ominus}CN}\)

  • (1) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (v)
  • (2) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (v)
  • (3) (v) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii)
  • (4) (v) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)

Question 67:

\([\mathrm{Pd(F)(Cl)(Br)(I)}]^{2-}\) has n number of geometrical isomers. Then, the spin-only magnetic moment and crystal field stabilisation energy [CFSE] of \([\mathrm{Fe(CN)_6}]^{n-6}\), respectively, are:
[Note : Ignore the pairing energy]

  • (1) 1.73 BM and \(-2.0\,\Delta_0\)
  • (2) 5.92 BM and 0
  • (3) 2.84 BM and \(-1.6\,\Delta_0\)
  • (4) 0 BM and \(-2.4\,\Delta_0\)

Question 68:

'X' melts at low temperature and is a bad conductor of electricity in both liquid and solid state. X i s :

  • (1) Carbon tetrachloride
  • (2) Silicon carbide
  • (3) Mercury
  • (4) Zinc sulphide

Question 69:

According to the following diagram, A reduces \(BO_2\) when the temperature is :

  • (1) \(> \,1200\,^{\circ}C\) but \(< 1400\, ^{\circ}C\)
  • (2) \(>\, 1400 \,^\circ C\)
  • (3) \(< 1200\, ^\circ C\)
  • (4) \(<1200 \, ^\circ C\)

Question 70:

A chemist has 4 samples of artificial sweetener A, B, C and D. To identify these samples, he performed certain experiments and noted the following observations :
(i) A and D both form blue-violet colour with ninhydrin.
(ii) Lassaigne extract of C gives positive \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) test and negative \(\mathrm{Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3}\) test.
(iii) Lassaigne extract of B and D gives positive sodium nitroprusside test
Based on these observations which option is correct ?

  • (1) A : Aspartame ; B : Alitame ; C : Saccharin ; D ; Sucralose
  • (2) A : Alitame ; B : Saccharin ; C : Aspartame ; D ; Sucralose
  • (3) A : Aspartame ; B : Saccharin ; C : Sucralose ; D ; Alitame
  • (4) A : Saccharin ; B : Alitame ; C : Sucralose ; D ; Aspartame

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water. The freezing point of the solution is ___________ K. (Nearest integer)
Use: Molal Freezing point depression constant of water = 1.86 K kg mol\(^{-1}\)
Freezing point of water = 273 K
Atomic masses: C: 12.0 u, O: 16.0 u, H: 1.0 u


Question 72:

The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol–1 ) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be _____ g.


Question 73:

The molarity of \(\mathrm{HNO_3}\) in a sample which has density 1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is _____.
(Molecular Weight of \(\mathrm{HNO_3}\) = 63)


Question 74:

Find the percentage of nitrogen in the final product.


Question 75:

The hardness of a water sample containing \(10^{-3}\) M \(\mathrm{MgSO_4}\) expressed as \(\mathrm{CaCO_3}\) equivalents (in ppm) is ______.
(molar mass of \(\mathrm{MgSO_4}\) is 120.37 g/mol)

JEE Main 2020 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions75 questions
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ; no negative marking for Numerical Value Questions

JEE Main 2020 January 9 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2020 B.E./B.Tech Question paper was reported to be moderate in terms of difficulty. The students also reported the paper to be lengthy especially the Mathematics section. The Physics section was the toughest section of the paper and Chemistry was the easiest section of the paper. JEE Main Cutoffs to qualify the B.Tech/B.E examination were as follows: General (90.3765), Economically Weaker Section (70.2435), OBC-NCL (72.8887), SC (50.1760), ST (39.0696), PwD (0.06185).

JEE Main B.E./B.Tech Question Paper January 9, 2020 (Shift 1): Paper Analysis

According to JEE Main Paper Analysis, January 9, 2021 Question Paper had 48% weightage of Class Xi topics and 52% weightage of Class XII topics. The subject-wise analysis of JEE Main January 9, 2020 paper is given below.

Physics

  • Physics was rated to be the most difficult section in the paper by the students.
  • As usual Mechanics (10 Questions) and Electrodynamics (6 Questions) made the bulk of the questions in the paper.
  • 1 Question was asked from SHM and Waves unit and only 2 Questions were asked from Optics. Similarly, only 2 Questions were asked from Heat and Thermodynamics

Chemistry

  • Following the usual trends set by paper analysis, the chemistry section of JEE Main January 9, 2020 paper was rated to be the easiest section of the whole paper.
  • The weightage of topics from Inorganic chemistry and Physical Chemistry (68%) was more than the weightage of Organic Chemistry.

Mathematics

  • Mathematics was termed as being moderate on the difficulty scale.
  • Calculus had the highest weightage in the section with 7 questions framed from it.
  • Next in weightage were Coordinate Geometry and Trigonometry with 3 Questions each based on them.
  • Matrix & Determinants, and vectors had 2 Questions each in the section.