JEE Main 2020 January 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on January 8, 2020, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2020 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, 0 for an unattempted question; no negative marking for numerical value questions
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2020 January 8 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2020 January 8 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The inverse function of \(f\left(x\right) = \frac{8^{2x}-8^{-2x}}{8^{2x} + 8^{-2x}}, x\epsilon \left(-1, 1\right),\) is __________.

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\left(log_{8} \,e\right) log_{e} \left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\left(log_{8} \,e\right) log_{e} \left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4} log_{e} \left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4} log_{e} \left(\frac{1- x}{1+ x}\right)\)

Question 2:

For which of the following ordered pairs \((\mu, \delta)\), the system of linear equations
\(x + 2y + 3z = 1\)
\(3x + 4y + 5z = \mu\)
\(4x + 4y + 4z = \delta\)
is inconsistent ?

  • (1) \((1, 0)\)
  • (2) \((4, 3)\)
  • (3) \((4, 6)\)
  • (4) \((3, 4)\)

Question 3:

If \(\displaystyle\int \frac{\cos x\,dx}{\sin^3 x\,(1+\sin^6 x)^{2/3}} = f(x)\,(1+\sin^6 x)^{1/\lambda} + c\)
where \(c\) is a constant of integration, then \(\lambda f\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{9}{8}\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(-2\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{9}{8}\)

Question 4:

Let A and B be two independent events such that \(P\left(A\right) = \frac{1}{3}\) and \(P\left(B\right) = \frac{1}{6}.\) Then, which of the following is TRUE ?

  • (1) \(P \left(A /\left(A \cup B \right)\right) = \frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(P \left(A / B' \right) = \frac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(P \left(A / B \right) = \frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(P \left(A' / B' \right) = \frac{1}{3}\)

Question 5:

The locus of a point which divides the line segment joining the point (0, -1) and a point on the parabola, \(x^2 = 4y\), internally in the ratio 1 : 2, is :

  • (1) \(9x^2 - 12y = 8\)
  • (2) \(4x^2 - 3y = 2\)
  • (3) \(x^2 - 3y = 2\)
  • (4) \(9x^2 -3y = 2\)

Question 6:

Let \(f(x) = x\cos^{-1}(-\sin|x|)\), \(x\in\left[-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right]\), then which of the following is true?

  • (1) \(f'\) is decreasing in \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},0\right)\) and increasing in \(\left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
  • (2) \(f'(0) = -\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(f\) is not differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (4) \(f'\) is increasing in \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},0\right)\) and decreasing in \(\left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)

Question 7:

\(\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 0} \left(\frac{3x^{2}+2}{7x^{2}+2}\right)^{\frac {1}{x^2}}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(e\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{e^{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{e}\)
  • (4) \(e^{2}\)

Question 8:

Let two points be \(A(1,-1)\) and \(B(0,2)\). If a point \(P(x',y')\) be such that the area of \(\Delta PAB = 5\) sq. units and it lies on the line, \(3x+y-4\lambda=0\), then a value of \(\lambda\) is :

  • (1) \(4\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(-3\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 9:

Let \(f:\mathbf{R}\to\mathbf{R}\) be such that for all \(x\in\mathbf{R}\)
\((2^{1+x}+2^{1-x})\), \(f(x)\) and \((3^x+3^{-x})\) are in A.P.,
then the minimum value of \(f(x)\) is

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(0\)
  • (3) \(3\)
  • (4) \(4\)

Question 10:

The mean and the standard deviation (s.d.) of 10 observations are 20 and 2 resepectively. Each of these 10 observations is multiplied by \(p\) and then reduced by \(q\), where \(p\ne0\) and \(q\ne0\). If the new mean and new s.d. become half of their original values, then \(q\) is equal to

  • (1) \(10\)
  • (2) \(-20\)
  • (3) \(-10\)
  • (4) \(-5\)

Question 11:

For \(a > 0\), let the curves \(C_1 : y^2 = ax\) and \(C_2 : x^2= ay\) intersect at origin O and a point P. Let the line \(x = b (0 < b < a)\) intersect the chord OP and the x-axis at points Q and R, respectively. If the line x = b bisects the area bounded by the curves, \(C_1\) and \(C_2\), and the area of \(\Delta OQR = \frac{1}{2},\) then 'a' satisfies the equation :

  • (1) \(x^6 - 12x^3 + 4 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^6 - 12x^3 - 4 = 0\)
  • (3) \(x^6 + 6x^3 - 4 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^6 - 6x^3 + 4 = 0\)

Question 12:

Let \(f(x) = (\sin(\tan^{-1}x)+\sin(\cot^{-1}x))^2-1\), \(|x|>1\).
If \(\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac12\frac{d}{dx}\left(\sin^{-1}(f(x))\right)\) and \(y(\sqrt3)=\frac{\pi}{6}\), then \(y(-\sqrt3)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{5\pi}{6}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\pi}{3}\)

Question 13:

The shortest distance between the lines
\(\frac{x-3}{3}=\frac{y-8}{-1}=\frac{z-3}{1}\)
and
\(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y+7}{2}=\frac{z-6}{4}\)
is :

  • (1) \(3\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{2}\sqrt{30}\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt{30}\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{30}\)

Question 14:

If a, b and c are the greatest values of \(^{19}C_{p}, \, ^{20}C_{q}\) and \(^{21}C_{r}\) respectively, then :

  • (1) \(\frac{a}{11} = \frac{b}{22} = \frac{c}{42}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{a}{10} = \frac{b}{11} = \frac{c}{42}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{a}{11} = \frac{b}{22} = \frac{c}{21}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{a}{10} = \frac{b}{11} = \frac{c}{21}\)

Question 15:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be a solution of the differential equation,
\(\sqrt{1-x^2}\,\frac{dy}{dx}+\sqrt{1-y^2}=0\), \(|x|<1\).
If \(y\left(\frac12\right)=\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\), then \(y\left(-\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
  • (2) None of those
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\)

Question 16:

If the equation, \(x^2+bx+45=0\) (\(b\in R\)) has conjugate complex roots and they satisfy \(|z+1|=2\sqrt{10}\), then :

  • (1) \(b^2-b=42\)
  • (2) \(b^2+b=12\)
  • (3) \(b^2+b=72\)
  • (4) \(b^2-b=30\)

Question 17:

If \(c\) is a point at which Rolle's theorem holds for the function,
\(f(x)=\log_e\left(\frac{x^2+\alpha}{7x}\right)\)
in the interval \([3,4]\), where \(\alpha\in R\), then \(f''(c)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt3}{7}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{24}\)

Question 18:

Let the line \(y=mx\) and the ellipse \(2x^2+y^2=1\) intersect at a ponit \(P\) in the first quadrant. If the normal to this ellipse at \(P\) meets the co-ordinate axes at
\(\left(-\frac{1}{3\sqrt2},0\right)\) and \((0,\beta)\), then \(\beta\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2\sqrt2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt3}\)

Question 19:

Which one of the following is a tautology ?

  • (1) \((P ∧ (P \to Q)) \to Q\)
  • (2) \(P ∨ (P ∧ Q)\)
  • (3) \(Q \to (P ∧ (P \to Q))\)
  • (4) \(P ∧ (P ∨ Q)\)

Question 20:

Let the vectors \( , , \) represent three coterminous edges of a parallelepiped of volume \( V \). Then the volume of the parallelepiped, whose coterminous edges are represented by \( , + \) and \( + 2 + 3 \) is equal to: \\ \\

  • (1) \( 2V \)
  • (2) \( 6V \)
  • (3) \( 3V \)
  • (4) \( V \)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

The least positive value of 'a' for which the equation \(2x^2 + (a - 10)x + \frac{33}{2} = 2a\) has real roots is


Question 22:

The number of all \(3 \times 3\) matrices A, with entries from the set \(\{-1, 0, 1\}\) such that the sum of the diagonal elements of \(AA^T\) is 3, is


Question 23:

An urn contains 5 red marbles, 4 black marbles and 3 white marbles. Then the number of ways in which 4 marbles can be drawn so that at the most three of them are red is ___________.


Question 24:

Let the normal at a point P on the curve \(y^2 - 3x^2 + y + 10 = 0\) intersect the y-axis at \(\left(0, \frac{3}{2}\right)\). If m is the slope of the tangent at P to the curve, then \(|m|\) is equal to


Question 25:

The sum \(\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{20} (1 + 2 + 3 + \ldots + k)\) is :


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

The graph which depicts the results of Rutherford gold foil experiment with \(\alpha\)-particales is :
\(\theta\) : Scattering angle
Y : Number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles detected (Plots are schematic and not to scale)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 27:

An electromagnetic wave of frequency 5 GHz, is travelling in a medium whose relative electric permittivity and relative magnetic permeability both are 2. Its velocity in this medium is ________ × 10⁷ m/s.


Question 28:

Effective capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) is 10 \(\mu\)F. When these capacitors are individually connected to a voltage source of 1V, the energy stored in the capacitor \(C_2\) is 4 times that of \(C_1\). If these capacitors are connected in series, their effective capacitance will be :

  • (1) 4.2 \(\mu\)F
  • (2) 8.4 \(\mu\)F
  • (3) 1.6 \(\mu\)F
  • (4) 3.2 \(\mu\)F

Question 29:

A thermodynamic cycle \(xyzx\) is shown on a \(V-T\) diagram. The \(P-V\) diagram that best describes this cycle is : (Diagrams are schematic and not to scale)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 30:

In finding the electric field using Gauss law the formula \(\left|\overrightarrow{E}\right|= \frac{q_{enc}}{\epsilon_{0}\left|A\right|}\) is applicable. In the formula \(\epsilon_{0}\) is permittivity of free space, \(A\) is the area of Gaussian surface and \( q_{enc}\) is charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface. This equation can be used in which of the following situation ?

  • (1) For any choice of Gaussian surface.
  • (2) Only when the Gaussian surface is an equipotential surface.
  • (3) Only when the Gaussian surface is an equipotential surface and \(\left|\overrightarrow{E}\right|\) is constant on the surface.
  • (4) Only when \(\left|\overrightarrow{E}\right| = \) constant on the surface.

Question 31:

Consider a solid sphere of radius R and mass density
\(\rho(r) = \rho_0\left(1 - \frac{r^2}{R^2}\right)\), \(0 \lt r \le R\)
The minimum density of a liquid in which it will float is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2\rho_0}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2\rho_0}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\rho_0}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\rho_0}{3}\)

Question 32:

The dimension of stopping potential \(V_0\) in photoelectric effect in units of Planck's constant 'h', speed of light 'c' and Gravitational constant 'G' and ampere A is :

  • (1) \(h ^{-2/3} c ^{-1/3} G ^{4/3} A ^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(h^{0} c^{5} G^{-1} A^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(h ^{2} G ^{3/2} c^{1/3} A^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(h ^{1/3} G ^{2/3} c ^{1/3} A ^{- 1}\)

Question 33:

Consider a uniform rod of mass M = 4m and length \(\ell\) pivoted about its centre. A mass m moving with velocity v making angle \(\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}\) to the rod's long axis collides with one end of the rod and sticks to it. The angular speed of the rod-mass system just after the collision is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{7}\frac{v}{\ell}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{7}\frac{v}{\ell}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{7\sqrt{2}}\frac{v}{\ell}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{7}\frac{v}{\ell}\)

Question 34:

Boolean relation at the output stage-Y for the following circuit is :

  • (1) \(A \cdot B\)
  • (2) \(\overline{A} + \overline{B}\)
  • (3) \(\overline{A} \cdot \overline{B}\)
  • (4) \(A + B\)

Question 35:

The coordinates of centre of mass of a uniform flag shaped lamina (thin flat plate) of mass \(4\, kg\). (The coordinates of the same are shown in figure) are :

  • (1) (1.2 5m, 1.50 m )
  • (2) (0.75 m, 0.75 m)
  • (3) (0.75 m, 1.75 m)
  • (4) (1 m, 1.75 m)

Question 36:

At time t = 0 magnetic field of 1000 Gauss is passing perpendicularly through the area defined by the closed loop shown in the figure. If the magnetic field reduces linearly to 500 Gauss, in the next 5s, then induced EMF in the loop is :

  • (1) 48 \(\mu\)V
  • (2) 28 \(\mu\)V
  • (3) 56 \(\mu\)V
  • (4) 36 \(\mu\)V

Question 37:

The magnifying power of a telescope with tube 60 cm is 5. What is the focal length of its eye piece ?

  • (1) 40 cm
  • (2) 10 cm
  • (3) 30 cm
  • (4) 20 cm

Question 38:

Consider two solid spheres of radii \(R, = 1m, \,R_2 = 2m\) and masses \(M_1\) and \(M_2\), respectively. The gravitational field due to sphere (1) and (2) are shown. The value of \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 39:

Three charged particle A, B and C with charges \(-4q\), \(2q\) and \(-2q\) are present on the circumference of a circle of radius \(d\). The charged particles A, C and centre O of the circle formed an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. Electric field at O along x-direction is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3\sqrt{3}\,q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 d^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}\,q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 d^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}\,q}{\pi\varepsilon_0 d^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\sqrt{3}\,q}{\pi\varepsilon_0 d^2}\)

Question 40:

A leak proof cylinder of length 1 m, made of a metal which has very low coefficient of expansion is floating vertically in water at \(0^\circ\mathrm{C}\) such that its height above the water surface is 20 cm. When the temperature of water is increased to \(4^\circ\mathrm{C}\), the height of the cylinder above the water surface becomes 21 cm. The density of water at \(T=4^\circ\mathrm{C}\), relative to the density at \(T=0^\circ\mathrm{C}\) is close to :

  • (1) 1.04
  • (2) 1.26
  • (3) 1.01
  • (4) 1.03

Question 41:

A particle of mass \(m\) is fixed to one end of a light spring having force constant \(k\) and unstretched length \(l\). The other end is fixed. The system is given an angular speed \(\omega\) about the fixed end of the spring such that it rotates in a circle in gravity free space. Then the stretch in the spring is :

  • (1) \(\frac{ml\omega^{2}}{k - \omega m}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{ml\omega^{2}}{k - m\omega^{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{ml\omega^{2}}{k + m\omega^{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{ml\omega^{2}}{k + m\omega}\)

Question 42:

When photon of energy 4.0 eV strikes the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy \(T_A\) eV and de-Broglie wavelength \(\lambda_A\). The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photon of energy 4.50 eV is \(T_B=(T_A-1.5)\) eV. If the de-Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons \(\lambda_B=2\lambda_A\), then the work function of metal B is :

  • (1) 1.5 eV
  • (2) 4 eV
  • (3) 2 eV
  • (4) 3 eV

Question 43:

Proton with kinetic energy of \(1 \,MeV\) moves from south to north It gets an acceleration of \(10^{12} \, m/s^2\) by an applied magnetic field (west to east). The value of magnetic field : (Rest mass of proton is \(1.6 \times 10^{-27}\, kg\))

  • (1) 7.1 mT
  • (2) 71 mT
  • (3) 0.071 mT
  • (4) 0.71 mT

Question 44:

The plot that depicts the behavior of the mean free time \(t\) (time between two successive collisions) for the molecules of an ideal gas, as a function of temperature (\(T\)), qualitatively, is:
(Graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 45:

The length of a potentiometer wire is \(1200\, cm\) and it carries a current of \(60\, mA\). For a cell of emf \(5\, V\) and internal resistance of \(20 \, \Omega\), the null point on it is found to be at \(1000\, cm\). The resistance of whole wire is :

  • (1) 120 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 80 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 60 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 100 \(\Omega\)

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

A particle is moving along the x-axis with its coordinate with the time 't' given be \(x(t)=10+8t-3t^2\). Another particle is moving the y-axis with its coordinate as a function of time given by \(y(t)=5-8t^3\).
At \(t=1\) s, the speed of the second particle as measured in the frame of the first particle is given as \(\sqrt{v}\). Then \(v\) (in m/s) is ______.


Question 47:

Curved surfaces of a plano-convex lens of refractive index \(\mu_1\) and a plano-concave lens of refractive index \(\mu_2\) have equal radius of curvature as shown in figure. Find the ratio of radius of curvature to the focal length of the combined lenses. 

 

  • (1) \(\mu_1 - \mu_2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\mu_1 - \mu_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mu_2 - \mu_1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\mu_2 - \mu_1}\)

Question 48:

An organ pipe 40cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360ms-1 . The frequency of the second harmonic is ____Hz.


Question 49:

A body of mass \(1 kg\) collides head on elastically with a stationary body of mass \(3 kg\) After collision, the smaller body reverses its direction of motion and moves with a speed of \(2 m / s\) The initial speed of the smaller body before collision is ___ \(ms ^{-1}\)


Question 50:

Four resistances of \(15\,\Omega\), \(12\,\Omega\), \(4\,\Omega\) and \(10\,\Omega\) respectively in cyclic order to form Wheatstone's network. The resistance that is to be connected in parallel with the resistance of \(10\,\Omega\) to balance the network is ______ \(\Omega\).


Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51:

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C-OH bond length :
methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol

  • (1) phenol < methanol < p-ethoxyphenol
  • (2) methanol < p-ethoxyphenol < phenol
  • (3) methanol < phenol < p-ethoxyphenol
  • (4) phenol < p-ethoxyphenol < methanol

Question 52:

The complex that can show fac- and mer- isomers is :

  • (1) \([Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3]\)
  • (2) \([Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]\)
  • (3) \([Co(NH_3)4a_2]^+\)
  • (4) \([CoCl_2(en)_2]\)

Question 53:

The rate of a certain biochemical reaction at physiological temperature (T) occurs \(10^6\) times faster with enzyme than without. The change in the activation energy upon adding enzyme is :

  • (1) \(+6RT\)
  • (2) \(-6\,(2.303)RT\)
  • (3) \(-6RT\)
  • (4) \(+6\,(2.303)RT\)

Question 54:

The solubility product of BaSO₄ is \(1 \times 10^{-10}\) at 298 K. The solubility of BaSO₄ in 0.1 M K₂SO₄(aq) is \(x \times 10^{-9}\) g L⁻¹. Calculate the value of \(x\).


Question 55:

The third ionization enthalpy is minimum for :

  • (1) Ni
  • (2) Co
  • (3) Mn
  • (4) Fe

Question 56:

A graph of vap our pressure and temperature for three different liquids X, Y, and Z is shown below : The following inferences are made : (A) X has higher intermolecular interactions compared to Y. (B) X has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y. (C) Z has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y. The correct inference(s) is/are :

  • (1) (C)
  • (2) (A)
  • (3) (B)
  • (4) (A) and (C)

Question 57:

Which of the following statement is not true for glucose?

  • (1) The pontaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime.
  • (2) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime.
  • (3) Glucose gives Schiff's test for aldehyde.
  • (4) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms \( \alpha\) and \(\beta\).

Question 58:

The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are:

  • (1) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
  • (2) hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
  • (3) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
  • (4) London dispersion and dipole-dipole

Question 59:

A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3-methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at \(63^\circ\mathrm{C}\) while the other boils at \(60^\circ\mathrm{C}\). What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be distilled out first ?

  • (1) fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane
  • (2) simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
  • (3) fractional distillation, isohexane
  • (4) simple distillation, isohexane

Question 60:

For the Balmer series in the spectrum of H atom,
\(\bar{\nu}=R_H\left\{\frac{1}{n_1^2}-\frac{1}{n_2^2}\right\}\),
the correct statements among (I) to (IV) are :
(I) As wavelength decreases, the lines in the series converge
(II) The integer \(n_1\) is equal to 2
(III) The lines of longest wavelength corresponds to \(n_2=3\)
(IV) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be calculated from wave number of these lines

  • (1) (II), (III), (IV)
  • (2) (I), (II), (III)
  • (3) (I), (III), (IV)
  • (4) (I), (II), (IV)

Question 61:

The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are :

  • (1) 496, 577, 786, 737
  • (2) 496, 737, 577, 786
  • (3) 786, 737, 577, 496
  • (4) 496, 577, 737, 786

Question 62:

The decreasing order of reactivity towards dehydrohalogenation (E1) reaction of the following compounds is :

(A) 1-chlorobutane, Cl-CH2CH2CH2CH3
(B) 4-chlorobut-1-ene, Cl-CH2CH2CH=CH2
(C) 2-chlorobutane
(D) 3-chlorobut-1-ene

  • (1) B > D > A > C
  • (2) D > B > C > A
  • (3) B > A > D > C
  • (4) B > D > C > A

Question 63:

The strength of an aqueous NaOH solution is most accurately determined by titrating :
(Note : consider that an appropriate indicator is used)

  • (1) Aq. NaOH in a pipette and aqueous oxalic acid in a burette
  • (2) Aq. NaOH in a burette and aqueous oxalic acid in a conical flask
  • (3) Aq. NaOH in a volumetric flask and concentrated \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) in a conical flask
  • (4) Aq. NaOH in a burette and concentrated \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) in a conical flask

Question 64:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{LiAlH_4}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{B_2H_6}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{H_2/Pd}\)

Question 66:

The major products A and B in the following set of reactions are : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 67:

When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CaSO_4 \cdot 0.5H_2O}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CaSO_4 \cdot 5H_2O}\)
  • (3) Dead burnt plaster
  • (4) Anhydrous \(\mathrm{CaSO_4}\)

Question 68:

The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in \(S_2O^{2-}_8\) and the number of bonds between sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:

  • (1) 8 and 6
  • (2) 4 and 6
  • (3) 8 and 8
  • (4) 4 and 8

Question 69:

As per Hardy-Schulze formulation, the flocculation values of the following for ferric hydroxide sol are in the order :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{AlCl_3} \gt \mathrm{K_3[Fe(CN)_6]} \gt \mathrm{K_2CrO_4} \gt \mathrm{KBr} = \mathrm{KNO_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{K_3[Fe(CN)_6]} \lt \mathrm{K_2CrO_4} \lt \mathrm{KBr} = \mathrm{KNO_3} = \mathrm{AlCl_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{K_3[Fe(CN)_6]} \lt \mathrm{K_2CrO_4} \lt \mathrm{AlCl_3} \lt \mathrm{KBr} \lt \mathrm{KNO_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{K_3[Fe(CN)_6]} \gt \mathrm{AlCl_3} \gt \mathrm{K_2CrO_4} \gt \mathrm{KBr} \gt \mathrm{KNO_3}\)

Question 70:

Among the gases (a) – (e), the gases that cause greenhouse effect are :
(a) \(\mathrm{CO_2}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\)
(c) CFCs
(d) \(\mathrm{O_2}\)
(e) \(\mathrm{O_3}\)

  • (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (2) (a) and (d)
  • (3) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
  • (4) (a), (c), (d) and (e)

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

What would be the electrode potential for the given half cell reaction at pH = 5? ______
\(2\mathrm{H_2O} \to \mathrm{O_2} + 4\mathrm{H}^{+} + 4e^{-}\) ; \(E^0_{red} = 1.23\) V
(R = 8.314 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\) ; Temp = 298 K ; oxygen under std. atm. pressure of 1 bar)


Question 72:

Fortification of food with iron is done using \(\mathrm{FeSO}_{4} .7 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\). The mass in grams of the \(\mathrm{FeSO}_{4} .7 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\) required to achieve 12 ppm of iron in 150 kg of wheat is _______ (Nearest integer). (Given : Molar mass of \(\mathrm{Fe}, \mathrm{S}\) and O respectively are 56,32 and \(16 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\) )


Question 73:

The magnitude of work done by a gas that undergoes a reversible expansion along the path ABC shown in the figure is _______.

(Pressure in Pa versus volume in m3: A is at V = 2, P = 8; B at V = 8, P = 8; C at V = 12, P = 2; the axes meet at (2, 2).)


Question 74:

The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 20 mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H2O)5CI]Cl2 as silver chloride is___


Question 75:

The number of chiral centres in penicillin is _________.

JEE Main 2020 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions75 questions
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ; no negative marking for Numerical Value Questions

JEE Main 2020 January 8 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2020 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper for January 8, 2020, was rated to be average on the difficulty level by the experts. Following the trends set by the previous year’s JEE Main Paper Analysis, the Mathematics section of the paper was the toughest section. Calculus (8 Questions), and Coordinate Geometry (3 Questions) were the dominant units in Mathematics. Contrary to Mathematics, Physics was the easiest section of the paper with Mechanics (9 Questions) and Electrodynamics (7 Questions) being the dominant units. The remaining section, Chemistry, was moderate in terms of difficulty, with questions based on Physical Chemistry and Inorganic Chemistry being in majority.

JEE Main B.E./B.Tech Question Paper January 8, 2020 (Shift 1): Weightage of Class XI and Class XII Topics

JEE Main B.Tech/ B.E exam features topics from both Class XI and Class XII. The distribution of topics from Class XI and Class XII in the paper is as follows. See JEE Main Syllabus

Subject Class 11 Topics Weightage Class 12 Topics Weightage
Maths 45% 55%
Physics 47% 54%
Chemistry 46% 52%
Overall 44.65% 55.35%