JEE Main 2021 February 25 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on February 25, 2021, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2021 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, 0 for an unattempted question; no negative marking for numerical value questions
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2021 February 25 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Also Check:

JEE Main 2021 February 25 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

When a missile is fired from a ship, the probability that it is intercepted is 1/3 and the probability that the missile hits the target, given that it is not intercepted, is 3/4. If three missiles are fired independently from the ship, then the probability that all three hit the target, is :

  • (1) 1/27
  • (2) 1/8
  • (3) 3/8
  • (4) 3/4

Question 2:

The equation of the line through the point (0, 1, 2) and perpendicular to the line (x-1)/2 = (y+1)/3 = (z-1)/(-2) is:

  • (1) x/3 = (y-1)/4 = (z-2)/(-3)
  • (2) x/(-3) = (y-1)/4 = (z-2)/3
  • (3) x/3 = (y-1)/(-4) = (z-2)/3
  • (4) x/3 = (y-1)/4 = (z-2)/3

Question 3:

The value of \( \displaystyle \int_{-1}^{1} x^2 e^{x^3} \, dx \), where \( [t] \) denotes the greatest integer \( \leq t \), is :

  • (1) (e + 1)/3 
  • (2) 1/(3e) 
  • (3) (e - 1)/(3e) 
  • (4) (e + 1)/(3e)

Question 4:

The integer k, for which the inequality x² - 2(3k-1)x + 8k² - 7>0 is valid for every x in ℝ, is :

  • (1) 2 
  • (2) 3 
  • (3) 4 
  • (4) 0

Question 5:

The total number of positive integral solutions (x, y, z) such that xyz=24 is :

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 45

Question 6:

If a curve passes through the origin and the slope of the tangent to it at any point (x, y) is (x² - 4x + y + 8)/(x - 2), then this curve also passes through the point :

  • (1) (4, 5) 
  • (2) (5, 5) 
  • (3) (5, 4) 
  • (4) (4, 4)

Question 7:

Let f,g : ℕ → ℕ such that f(n+1) = f(n) + f(1) ∀ n ∈ ℕ and g be any arbitrary function. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

  • (1) If f is onto, then f(n) = n ∀ n ∈ ℕ 
  • (2) f is one-one 
  • (3) If g is onto, then fog is one-one 
  • (4) If fog is one-one, then g is one-one

Question 8:

Let the lines \( (2 - i)z = (2 + i)\bar{z} \) and \( (2 + i)z + (i - 2)\bar{z} - 4i = 0 \), (here \( i^2 = -1 \)) be normal to a circle \( C \). If the line \( iz + \bar{z} + 1 + i = 0 \) is tangent to this circle \( C \), then its radius is :

  • (1) 3/√2 
  • (2) 1/√2 
  • (3) 3/2√2 
  • (4) 3/√2

Question 9:

\( \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n}}{n} \) is equal to :

  • (1) 0 
  • (2) 1/2 
  • (3) 1/e 
  • (4) 1

Question 10:

Let α be the angle between the lines whose direction cosines satisfy the equations l + m - n = 0 and l² + m² - n² = 0. Then the value of sin⁴α + cos⁴α is :

  • (1) 5/8
  • (2) 3/4
  • (3) 1/2
  • (4) 3/4

Question 11:

The value of the integral ∫ sinθ sin2θ (sin⁶θ + sin⁴θ + sin²θ) / √(2sin⁴θ + 3sin²θ + 6) dθ is: (where c is a constant of integration)

  • (1) (1/18) [9 - 2sin⁶θ - 3sin⁴θ - 6sin²θ]\^{3/2} + c 
  • (2) (1/18) [9 - 2cos⁶θ - 3cos⁴θ - 6cos²θ]\^{3/2} + c 
  • (3) (1/18) [11 - 18sin²θ + 9sin⁴θ - 2sin⁶θ]\^{3/2} + c 
  • (4) (1/18) [11 - 18cos²θ + 9cos⁴θ - 2cos\^6θ]\^{3/2} + c

Question 12:

The coefficients a, b and c of the quadratic equation, ax² + bx + c = 0 are obtained by throwing a dice three times. The probability that this equation has equal roots is :

  • (1) 1/36
  • (2) 1/54
  • (3) 1/72
  • (4) 5/216

Question 13:

The image of the point (3, 5) in the line x - y + 1 = 0, lies on :

  • (1) (x-4)² + (y+2)² = 16 
  • (2) (x-2)² + (y-4)² = 4 
  • (3) (x-4)² + (y-4)² = 8 
  • (4) (x-2)² + (y-2)² = 12

Question 14:

All possible values of θ ∈ [0, 2π] for which sin 2θ + tan 2θ>0 lie in :

  • (1) (0, π/2) ∪ (π, 3π/2)
  • (2) (0, π/4) ∪ (π/2, 3π/4) ∪ (3π/2, 11π/6)
  • (3) (0, π/2) ∪ (π/2, 3π/4) ∪ (π, 7π/6)
  • (4) (0, π/4) ∪ (π/2, 3π/4) ∪ (π, 5π/4) ∪ (3π/2, 7π/4)

Question 15:

Angle of depression from tower top to A is 30°. After 20 seconds at B, it is 45°. Time taken from B to reach the base is :

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 10(√3 + 1)
  • (3) 10√3
  • (4) 10(√3 - 1)

Question 16:

The statement A → (B → A) is equivalent to :

  • (1) A → (A ∧ B)
  • (2) A → (A ∨ B)
  • (3) A → (A ↔ B)
  • (4) A → (A ⇔ B)

Question 17:

A tangent is drawn to the parabola y² = 6x which is perpendicular to the line 2x + y = 1. Which of the following points does NOT lie on it ?

  • (1) (0, 3)
  • (2) (-6, 0)
  • (3) (5, 4)
  • (4) (4, 5)

Question 18:

If Rolle's theorem holds for the function f(x) = x³ - ax² + bx - 4, x ∈ [1, 2] with f'(4/3) = 0, then ordered pair (a, b) is equal to :

  • (1) (5, 8) 
  • (2) (5, -8) 
  • (3) (-5, 8) 
  • (4) (-5, -8)

Question 19:

If the curves, x²/a + y²/b = 1 and x²/c + y²/d = 1 intersect each other at an angle of 90°, then which of the following relations is TRUE?

  • (1) a + b = c + d
  • (2) a - b = c - d
  • (3) ab / (a+b) = (c+d)/(a+b)
  • (4) a - c = b + d

Question 20:

If \( 0 < \theta, \phi < \frac{\pi}{2} \), \( x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \cos^{2n} \theta \), \( y = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sin^{2n} \phi \) and \( z = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \cos^{2n} \theta \cdot \sin^{2n} \phi \) then :

  • (1) xy - z = (x + y)z 
  • (2) xy + z = (x + y)z 
  • (3) xy + yz + zx = z 
  • (4) xyz = 4

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

The locus of the point of intersection of the lines (√3)kx + ky - 4√3 = 0 and √3 x - y - 4(√3)k = 0 is a conic, whose eccentricity is _________


Question 22:

The graphs of sine and cosine functions, intersect each other at a number of points and between two consecutive points of intersection, the two graphs enclose the same area A. Then A⁴ is equal to __________


Question 23:

The total number of numbers, lying between 100 and 1000 that can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, if the repetition of digits is not allowed and numbers are divisible by either 3 or 5, is _________


Question 24:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -\tan\left(\frac{\theta}{2}\right) \\ \tan\left(\frac{\theta}{2}\right) & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( (I_2 + A)(I_2 - A)^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} a & -b \\ b & a \end{bmatrix} \), then \( 13(a^2 + b^2) \) is equal to __________.


Question 25:

Let A₁, A₂, A₃, … be squares such that for each n ≥ 1, the length of the side of \(A_n\) equals the length of diagonal of \(A_{n+1}\). If the length of \(A_1\) is 12 cm, then the smallest value of n for which area of \(A_n\) is less than one, is __________.


Question 26:

If the system of equations \(kx + y + 2z = 1\), \(3x - y - 2z = 2\), \(-2x - 2y - 4z = 3\) has infinitely many solutions, then k is equal to ________


Question 27:

The number of points, at which the function f(x) = |2x + 1| - 3|x + 2| + |x² + x - 2|, x ∈ ℝ is not differentiable, is ________


Question 28:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - \hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j}\) and \(\vec{c} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} - \hat{k}\). If \(\vec{r}\) is a vector such that \(\vec{r} \times \vec{a} = \vec{c} \times \vec{a}\) and \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{b} = 0\), then \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{a}\) is equal to __________.


Question 29:

Let \( f(x) \) be a polynomial of degree 6 in \( x \), in which the coefficient of \( x^6 \) is unity and it has extrema at \( x = -1 \) and \( x = 1 \). If \( \displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x^3} = 1 \), then \( 5 \cdot f(2) \) is equal to __________.


Question 30:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} x & y & z \\ y & z & x \\ z & x & y \end{bmatrix} \), where \( x, y \) and \( z \) are real numbers such that \( x + y + z > 0 \) and \( xyz = 2 \). If \( A^2 = I_3 \), then the value of \( x^3 + y^3 + z^3 \) is __________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A proton, a deuteron and an \(\alpha\) particle are moving with same momentum in a uniform magnetic field. The ratio of magnetic forces acting on them is __________ and their speed is __________, in the ratio.

  • (1) 4 : 2 : 1 and 2 : 1 : 1
  • (2) 2 : 1 : 1 and 4 : 2 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 2 : 4 and 1 : 1 : 2
  • (4) 1 : 2 : 4 and 2 : 1 : 1

Question 32:

A solid sphere of radius R gravitationally attracts a particle placed at 3R from its centre with a force \(F_1\). Now a spherical cavity of radius (R/2) is made in the sphere (as shown in figure) and the force becomes \(F_2\). The value of \(F_1 : F_2\) is :

  • (1) 41 : 50
  • (2) 50 : 41
  • (3) 36 : 25
  • (4) 25 : 36

Question 33:

An \(\alpha\) particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200 V. After this, their de Broglie wavelengths are \(\lambda_\alpha\) and \(\lambda_p\) respectively. The ratio \(\lambda_p/\lambda_\alpha\) is :

  • (1) 2.8
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 7.8
  • (4) 3.8

Question 34:

The angular frequency of alternating current in a L-C-R circuit is 100 rad/s. The components connected are shown in the figure. Find the value of inductance of the coil and capacity of condenser. (Note: Based on typical values for this specific question where \(V_L = V_C\) or resonance is implied). 

  • (1) 1.33 H and 250 \(\mu\)F
  • (2) 1.33 H and 150 \(\mu\)F
  • (3) 0.8 H and 150 \(\mu\)F
  • (4) 0.8 H and 250 \(\mu\)F

Question 35:

Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of 0.05 m and 0.2 m from the centre are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius of coil is _____________

  • (1) 0.1 m
  • (2) 0.15 m
  • (3) 0.2 m
  • (4) 1.0 m

Question 36:

Match List - I with List - II :
List - I: (a) h (Planck's constant), (b) E (kinetic energy), (c) V (electric potential), (d) P (linear momentum)
List - II: (i) [M L T\(^{-1}\)], (ii) [M L\(^2\) T\(^{-1}\)], (iii) [M L\(^2\) T\(^{-2}\)], (iv) [M L\(^2\) T\(^{-3}\) I\(^{-1}\)]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii)
  • (2) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
  • (3) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
  • (4) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)

Question 37:

Two satellites A and B of masses 200 kg and 400 kg are revolving round the earth at height of 600 km and 1600 km respectively. If \(T_A\) and \(T_B\) are the time periods of A and B respectively then the value of \(T_B - T_A\) is : [\(R_e = 6400\) km, \(M_e = 6 \times 10^{24}\) kg]
 

  • (1) \(1.33 \times 10^3\) s
  • (2) \(4.24 \times 10^3\) s
  • (3) \(4.24 \times 10^2\) s
  • (4) \(3.33 \times 10^2\) s

Question 38:

Two coherent light sources having intensity in the ratio \(2x\) produce an interference pattern. The ratio \((I_{max} - I_{min}) / (I_{max} + I_{min})\) will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{2x}}{2x+1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2\sqrt{2x}}{2x+1}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{2x}}{x+1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\sqrt{2x}}{x+1}\)

Question 39:

An engine of a train, moving with uniform acceleration, passes the signal-post with velocity \(u\) and the last compartment with velocity \(v\). The velocity with which middle point of the train passes the signal post is :

  • (1) \(\frac{u+v}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{v-u}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{v^2+u^2}{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{v^2-u^2}{2}}\)

Question 40:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : When a rod lying freely is heated, no thermal stress is developed in it.
Reason R : On heating, the length of the rod increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer :

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 41:

The pitch of the screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. When nothing is put in between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 8 divisions below the reference line. When a wire is placed between the jaws, the first linear scale division is clearly visible while 72nd division on circular scale coincides with the reference line. The radius of the wire is :

  • (1) 1.64 mm
  • (2) 0.90 mm
  • (3) 0.82 mm
  • (4) 1.80 mm

Question 42:

If the time period of a two meter long simple pendulum is 2 s, the acceleration due to gravity at the place where pendulum is executing S.H.M. is :

  • (1) 16 m/s\(^2\)
  • (2) π\(^2\) ms\(^{-2}\)
  • (3) 9.8 ms\(^{-2}\)
  • (4) 2π\(^2\) ms\(^{-2}\)

Question 43:

A diatomic gas, having \(C_p = \frac{7}{2}R\) and \(C_v = \frac{5}{2}R\), is heated at constant pressure. The ratio \(dU : dQ : dW\):

  • (1) 5 : 7 : 2
  • (2) 3 : 7 : 2
  • (3) 3 : 5 : 2
  • (4) 5 : 7 : 3

Question 44:

A 5V battery is connected across the points X and Y. Assume D1 and D2 to be normal silicon diodes. Find the current supplied by the battery if the +ve terminal of the battery is connected to point X and -ve to point Y. 

  • (1) ~0.5 A
  • (2) ~0.43 A
  • (3) ~0.86 A
  • (4) ~1.5 A

Question 45:

A correct experiment is performed to measure the speed of sound in air using a resonance column tube of diameter 6 cm. The frequency of the tuning fork is 504 Hz. Speed of the sound is given as 336 m/s. The zero of the metre scale coincides with the top end of the resonance column tube. The reading of the water level in the column tube, when the first resonance occurs is :

  • (1) 16.6 cm
  • (2) 18.4 cm
  • (3) 14.8 cm
  • (4) 13 cm

Question 46:

In an octagon ABCDEFGH of equal side, what is the sum of \(\vec{AB} + \vec{AC} + \vec{AD} + \vec{AE} + \vec{AF} + \vec{AG} + \vec{AH}\), if \(\vec{AO} = 2i + 3j - 4k\)?

  • (1) 16i + 24j - 32k
  • (2) -16i - 24j - 32k
  • (3) 16i + 24j + 32k
  • (4) 16i + 24j - 32k

Question 47:

The current (i) at time t=0 and t=∞ respectively for the given circuit is : 

  • (1) 18E/55 , 5E/18
  • (2) 5E/18 , 18E/55
  • (3) 10E/33 , 5E/18
  • (4) 5E/18 , 10E/33

Question 48:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The escape velocities of planet A and B are same. But A and B are of unequal mass.
Reason R : The product of their mass and radius must be same. \(M_1R_1 = M_2R_2\) In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 49:

Two radioactive substances X and Y originally have \(N_1\) and \(N_2\) nuclei respectively. Half life of X is half of the half life of Y. After three half lives of Y, number of nuclei of both are equal. The ratio \(N_1/N_2\) will be equal to :

  • (1) 3/1
  • (2) 1/3
  • (3) 8/1
  • (4) 1/8

Question 50:

Given below are two statements : Statement I : A speech signal of 2 kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of 1 MHz. The bandwidth requirement for the signal is 4 kHz. Statement II : The side band frequencies are 1002 kHz and 998 kHz. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A small bob tied at one end of a thin string of length 1 m is describing a vertical circle so that the maximum and minimum tension in the string are in the ratio 5 : 1. The velocity of the bob at the highest position is ________ m/s. (Take g=10 m/s²)


Question 52:

A monoatomic gas of mass 4.0 u is kept in an insulated container. Container is moving with velocity 30 m/s. If container is suddenly stopped then change in temperature of the gas (R= gas constant) is \(\frac{x}{3R}\). Value of x is ________.


Question 53:

The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or at 10 cm from the lens. The focal length of convex lens is _________ cm.


Question 54:

A coil of inductance 2 H having negligible resistance is connected to a source of supply whose voltage is given by V = 3t volt. (where t is in second). If the voltage is applied when t=0, then the energy stored in the coil after 4 s is _________ J.


Question 55:

The potential energy (U) of a diatomic molecule is \(U = \frac{\alpha}{r^{10}} - \frac{\beta}{r^5} - 3\). The equilibrium distance between two atoms will be \(\left( \frac{2\alpha}{\beta} \right)^{\frac{a}{b}}\) , where a = _________.


Question 56:

The electric field is \(\vec{E} = \left( \frac{3}{5} E_0 \hat{i} + \frac{4}{5} E_0 \hat{j} \right)\). The ratio of flux through surface of area 0.2 m² (parallel to y-z plane) to that of area 0.3 m² (parallel to x-z plane) is a : b, where a = _________.


Question 57:

In a thermodynamical process, \(P = kV^3\). The work done when the temperature changes from 100°C to 300°C will be ________ nR.


Question 58:

512 identical drops of mercury are charged to a potential of 2 V each. The drops are joined to form a single drop. The potential of this drop is ______ V.


Question 59:

A transmitting station releases waves of wavelength 960 m. A capacitor of 2.56 µF is used in the resonant circuit. The self inductance of coil necessary for resonance is _________ x10\^{-8} H.


Question 60:

In the given potentiometer circuit, for key K₁ closed, null point is at J₁. For K₂ closed, null point is at J₂. The value of \(\frac{E_1}{E_2}\) is \(\frac{a}{b}\), where a= _________ . (Note: Using standard balancing lengths \(l_1\) and \(l_2\) typically provided in this diagram, e.g., \(l_1=4\)m, \(l_2=2\)m).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH=3 is x. The value of x is : [Assume : No cyano complex is formed ; \(K_{sp}(\text{AgCN}) = 2.2 \times 10^{-16}\) and \(K_a(\text{HCN}) = 6.2 \times 10^{-10}\)]

  • (1) \(0.625 \times 10^{-6}\)
  • (2) \(1.6 \times 10^{-6}\)
  • (3) \(2.2 \times 10^{-16}\)
  • (4) \(1.9 \times 10^{-5}\)

Question 62:

Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde ?

  • (1) CH\(_2\)=CH\(_2\) + O\(_2\) \(\xrightarrow{Pd(II)/Cu(II)}\) H\(_2\)O
  • (2) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH \(\xrightarrow{CrO_3 - H_2SO_4}\)
  • (3) CH\(_3\)CN \(\xrightarrow{(i) DIBAL-H (ii) H_2O}\)
  • (4) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH \(\xrightarrow{Cu, 573 K}\)

Question 63:

The plots of radial distribution functions for various orbitals of hydrogen atom against r are given below: The correct plot for 3s orbital is : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 64:

Identify A in the given chemical reaction. CH\(_2\)=CH-CH(CH\(_3\))-CH\(_3\) \(\xrightarrow{Mo_2O_3, 773 K, 10-20 atm}\) A (major product)

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 65:

Given below are two statements : Statement I : CeO\(_2\) can be used for oxidation of aldehydes and ketones. Statement II : Aqueous solution of EuSO\(_4\) is a strong reducing agent. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 66:

Compound(s) which will liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate (\(NaHCO_3\)) solution is/are : A = Urea, B = Benzoic acid, C = p-Nitrophenol

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) C only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) B only

Question 67:

Identify A and B in the chemical reaction.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in lactose ?

  • (1) C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose
  • (2) C-1 of galactose and C-6 of glucose
  • (3) C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose
  • (4) C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose

Question 69:

According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is :

  • (1) O\(_2^{2-}\)
  • (2) He\(_2^-\)
  • (3) Be\(_2\)
  • (4) He\(_2^+\)

Question 70:

Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen containing compound (C\(_x\)H\(_y\)O\(_z\)) gave 2.64 g of CO\(_2\) and 1.08 g of H\(_2\)O. The percentage of oxygen in the organic compound is :

  • (1) 50.33
  • (2) 53.33
  • (3) 63.53
  • (4) 51.63

Question 71:

The hybridization and magnetic nature of [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\) and [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\), respectively are :

  • (1) d\(^2\)sp\(^3\) and paramagnetic
  • (2) sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) and diamagnetic
  • (3) d\(^2\)sp\(^3\) and diamagnetic
  • (4) sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) and paramagnetic

Question 72:

The major product of the following chemical reaction is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CHO}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2OH}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{(CH_3CH_2CO)_2O}\)

Question 73:

In which of the following pairs, the outer most electronic configuration will be the same ?

  • (1) V\(^{2+}\) and Cr\(^+\)
  • (2) Cr\(^+\) and Mn\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Ni\(^{2+}\) and Cu\(^+\)
  • (4) Fe\(^{2+}\) and Co\(^+\)

Question 74:

Which of the following reaction/s will not give p-aminoazobenzene ? 

  • (1) A only
  • (2) c only
  • (3) B only
  • (4) A and B

Question 75:

Given below are two statements : Statement I : An allotrope of oxygen is an important intermediate in the formation of reducing smog. Statement II : Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur present in troposphere contribute to the formation of photochemical smog. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 76:

In Freundlich adsorption isotherm at moderate pressure, the extent of adsorption \((x/m)\) is directly proportional to \(P^x\). The value of x is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) zero
  • (3) \(\infty\)
  • (4) \(1/n\)

Question 77:

Which statement is correct ?

  • (1) Buna-N is a natural polymer.
  • (2) Buna-S is a synthetic and linear thermosetting polymer.
  • (3) Neoprene is an addition copolymer used in plastic bucket manufacturing.
  • (4) Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen.

Question 78:

The correct statement about B\(_2\)H\(_6\) is :

  • (1) All B—H—B angles are of 120\(^\circ\).
  • (2) The two B—H—B bonds are not of same length.
  • (3) Terminal B—H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridging bonds.
  • (4) Its fragment, BH\(_3\), behaves as a Lewis base.

Question 79:

Ellingham diagram is a graphical representation of :

  • (1) \(\Delta G\) vs T
  • (2) \(\Delta H\) vs T
  • (3) \(\Delta G\) vs P
  • (4) (\(\Delta G - T\Delta S\)) vs T

Question 80:

Which of the following equation depicts the oxidizing nature of \(H_2O_2\)?

  • (1) KIO\(_4\) + H\(_2\)O\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) KIO\(_3\) + H\(_2\)O + O\(_2\)
  • (2) I\(_2\) + H\(_2\)O\(_2\) + 2OH\(^-\) \(\rightarrow\) 2I\(^-\) + 2H\(_2\)O + O\(_2\)
  • (3) 2I\(^-\) + H\(_2\)O\(_2\) + 2H\(^+\) \(\rightarrow\) I\(_2\) + 2H\(_2\)O
  • (4) Cl\(_2\) + H\(_2\)O\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) 2HCl + O\(_2\)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

Using the provided information in paper chromatography

The calculated \(R_f\) value of A is __________ \(\times 10^{-1}\).


Question 82:

The reaction of cyanamide, NH\(_2\)CN(s), with oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter and \(\Delta U\) was found to be -742.24 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). The magnitude of \(\Delta H_{298}\) for the reaction NH\(_2\)CN(s) + 3/2 O\(_2\)(g) \(\rightarrow\) N\(_2\)(g) + CO\(_2\)(g) + H\(_2\)O(l) is _________ kJ.


Question 83:

The ionization enthalpy of Na\(^+\) formation is 495.8, electron gain enthalpy of Br is -325.0, and lattice enthalpy of NaBr is -728.4 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). The energy for the formation of NaBr ionic solid is (-) __________ \(\times 10^{-1}\) kJ mol\(^{-1}\).


Question 84:

0.4 g mixture of NaOH, Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\) and some inert impurities was first titrated with N/10 HCl using phenolphthalein as an indicator, 17.5 mL of HCl was required at the end point. After this methyl orange was added and titrated. 1.5 mL of same HCl was required for the next end point. The weight percentage of Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\) in the mixture is _________


Question 85:

In basic medium CrO\(_4^{2-}\) oxidises S\(_2\)O\(_3^{2-}\) to form SO\(_4^{2-}\) and itself changes into Cr(OH)\(_4^-\). The volume of 0.154 M CrO\(_4^{2-}\) required to react with 40 mL of 0.25 M S\(_2\)O\(_3^{2-}\) is _________ mL.


Question 86:

Consider the reaction: CH\(\equiv\)CH \(\xrightarrow{\text{Red hot Fe}}\) (1) \(\xrightarrow{CO, HCl, AlCl_3}\) (2). The number of sp\(^2\) hybridized carbon atom(s) in the product is __________.


Question 87:

1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A\(_3\)B\(_3\) is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1 atm is __________ K. [Given \(K_b\) (H\(_2\)O) = 0.52 K kg mol\(^{-1}\), \(T_b\) pure water = 373.15 K]


Question 88:

Among the following, the number of halide(s) which is/are inert to hydrolysis is ___________: (A) BF\(_3\), (B) SiCl\(_4\), (C) PCl\(_5\), (D) SF\(_6\)


Question 89:

For aA + bB \(\rightarrow\) cC + dD, the plot of log k vs 1/T is given below :

The temperature at which the rate constant is \(10^{-4}\) s\(^{-1}\) is __________ K. [Rate constant is \(10^{-5}\) s\(^{-1}\) at 500 K.]


Question 90:

A car tyre is filled with nitrogen gas at 35 psi at 27\(^\circ\)C. It will burst if pressure exceeds 40 psi. The temperature in \(^\circ\)C at which the car tyre will burst is ___________

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ; no negative marking for Numerical Value Questions

JEE Main 2021 February 25 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper - February 25, 2021- Forenoon Session was rated to be of an above moderate level of difficulty. This was mostly due to the high difficulty level of the Mathematics section. The Physics and Chemistry sections were rated moderate and easy respectively.

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper February 25 (FN): Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech February 25 Forenoon Session was conducted between 9.00 AM to 12.00 Noon and was reported as above moderate in terms of overall difficulty level.

  • Mathematics was the toughest section of the exam and contributed solely to the above-average difficulty level status of the paper.
  • High weightage was given to Integral Calculus, Vectors, and Matrices & Determinants in the Mathematics Section. Questions framed from these topics were mostly lengthy and difficult to solve. Check JEE Main Mathematics Syllabus
  • The Physics section was moderate in difficulty and the questions based on Electrodynamics & Mechanics were dominant in the paper. Check JEE Main Physics Syllabus
  • The Chemistry section was the easiest and the majority of questions were asked from Organic Chemistry and Physical Chemistry. Check JEE Main Chemistry Syllabus