JEE Main 2023 B.Planning April 12 (Paper 2B) Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the JEE Main 2023 B.Planning (Paper 2B) exam on April 12, 2023, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM (Session 2). The question paper includes the following:

  • 105 questions in a 3-hour paper (100 to be attempted): Part I Mathematics (30), Part II Aptitude Test (50) and Part III Planning (25)
  • Mathematics: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) and 10 numerical value questions, of which any 5 are to be attempted; 4 marks each (100 marks)
  • Aptitude Test: 50 MCQs, 4 marks each (200 marks)
  • Planning: 25 MCQs, 4 marks each (100 marks)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ or numerical answer, 0 for an unattempted question; maximum marks 400

JEE Main 2023 B.Planning April 12 (Paper 2B) Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 B.Planning April 12 (Paper 2B) Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

If \( f(x)=\frac{x^{3}}{x-1}+\frac{x^{3}}{x+1} \) and \( g(x)=\sqrt{x} \), then \( f \circ g:[0,2]-\{1\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) is :

  • (1) one-one but not onto
  • (2) one-one and onto
  • (3) onto but not one-one
  • (4) neither one-one nor onto

Question 2:

The sum of squares of the values of \( \alpha \in \mathbb{R} \) such that the argument of \( \frac{\alpha+i}{\alpha-i} \) is \( 60^{\circ} \), \( i=\sqrt{-1} \), is :

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \( \frac{10}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11}{3} \)
  • (4) 4

Question 3:

For the system of equations
\( x+\lambda y-z=1 \)
\( x+2y+\lambda z=2 \)
\( x+2y+z=2 \),
which one of the following is NOT correct ?

  • (1) it has unique solution if \( \lambda \) is not a root of the equation \( t^{2}-3t+2=0 \)
  • (2) it has unique solution if \( \lambda \) is not a root of the equation \( t^{2}-t-2=0 \)
  • (3) it has infinitely many solutions if \( \lambda=1 \)
  • (4) it has no solution if \( \lambda=2 \)

Question 4:

If \[ a_n=(2n^2-n+2)(n!) , \] then \[ \sum_{n=1}^{20} a_n \] is equal to:

  • (1) \(37(20!)-1\)
  • (2) \(37(20!)+1\)
  • (3) \(39(21!)+1\)
  • (4) \(39(21!)-1\)

Question 5:

\( \lim_{x\rightarrow0^{+}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\left(\frac{1}{\sin x}-\frac{1}{x}\right) \)

  • (1) is equal to 0
  • (2) is equal to \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (3) is equal to 1
  • (4) does not exist

Question 6:
Let \(x=x(t)\) be the solution curve of the differential equation \[ \frac{dx}{dt}=-kx, \] with \[ x(0)=100,\quad x\!\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=80. \] If \(x(t_\alpha)=5\), then \(t_\alpha\) is equal to:
  • (1) \(\displaystyle \frac{\ln 5+\ln 4}{2(\ln 5-\ln 4)}\)
  • (2) \(\displaystyle \frac{\ln 5+\ln 4}{\ln 5-\ln 4}\)
  • (3) \(\displaystyle \frac{\ln 5-\ln 4}{2(\ln 5+\ln 4)}\)
  • (4) \(\displaystyle \frac{\ln 5-\ln 4}{\ln 5+\ln 4}\)

Question 7:

The slope of the tangent to the curve \( y=y(x)=\int_{\sin^{-1}(x)}^{\cos^{-1}(x)}\sqrt{1+4\sin^{2}t}\,dt\ ;\ 0\le x\le1 \) at the point \( \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},0\right) \) on the curve is :

  • (1) \( -2\sqrt{6} \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{6} \)
  • (3) \( -4\sqrt{3} \)
  • (4) \( 4\sqrt{3} \)

Question 8:

Let \( \alpha,\beta,\gamma\left(0<\alpha,\beta,\gamma<\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \) be the angles between non-zero vectors \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \), \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \), \( \vec{c} \) and \( \vec{a} \) respectively. If \( \theta \) is the angle that the vector \( \vec{a} \) makes with the plane containing \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \), then

  • (1) \( \cos^{2}\theta=\operatorname{cosec}^{2}\beta\left(\cos^{2}\alpha+\cos^{2}\gamma-2\cos\alpha\cos\beta\cos\gamma\right) \)
  • (2) \( \cos^{2}\theta=\sec^{2}\beta\left(\cos^{2}\alpha+\cos^{2}\gamma+2\cos\alpha\cos\beta\cos\gamma\right) \)
  • (3) \( \sin^{2}\theta=\operatorname{cosec}^{2}\beta\left(\cos^{2}\alpha+\cos^{2}\gamma-2\cos\alpha\cos\beta\cos\gamma\right) \)
  • (4) \( \sin^{2}\theta=\sec^{2}\beta\left(\cos^{2}\alpha+\cos^{2}\gamma+2\cos\alpha\cos\beta\cos\gamma\right) \)

Question 9:

The domain of the function \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}\left(\log _{2}((x-1)(x-2))\right)\) is :

  • (1) \([0,3]\)
  • (2) \(\left[0, \frac{3-\sqrt{3}}{2}\right] \cup\left[\frac{3+\sqrt{3}}{2}, 3\right]\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{3-\sqrt{3}}{2}, 1\right) \cup\left(2, \frac{3+\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left[0, \frac{3-\sqrt{6}}{2}\right] \cup\left[\frac{3+\sqrt{6}}{2}, 3\right]\)

Question 10:

Let \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) be the roots of the equation \[ 2x^2-5x-1=0. \] For \(n\in\mathbb{N}\), let \[ P_n=\alpha^n+\beta^n. \] Then the value of \[ \frac{2P_{11}\,(2P_{10}-5P_9)}{P_8\,(5P_{10}+P_9)} \] is equal to:

  • (1) \(-\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(-1\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 11:

If the image of the point \((1,1,2)\) in the plane \(2 x-y+z+3=0\) is the point P, then the distance of P from origin is

  • (1) \(2 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(3 \sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 12:

For three non–coplanar vectors \(\vec a,\vec b,\vec c\), if \[ (\vec b+\vec c)\cdot\big((\vec c+\vec a)\times(\vec a+\vec b)\big) = \alpha \,[\vec a\,\vec b\,\vec c] \] and \[ (\vec a+\vec b)\cdot\big((\vec b+\vec c)\times(\vec a+\vec b+\vec c)\big) = \beta \,[\vec a\,\vec b\,\vec c], \] then \(\alpha+\beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-3\)
  • (2) \(-1\)
  • (3) \(1\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 13:

If \(I(x)=\int \frac{d x}{1-2 \sin ^{2} x \cos ^{2} x}\), then \(\tan \left(\sqrt{2}\left(I\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)-I(0)\right)\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) 2

Question 14:

Let \(X\) have a binomial distribution \(B(6,p)\). If the sum of the mean and the variance of \(X\) is \(\dfrac{21}{8}\), then \[ \frac{P(2\le X<4)}{P(4<X<6)} \] is equal to:

  • (1) \(65\)
  • (2) \(195\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{195}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{225}{2}\)

Question 15:

If the statement
\(((\mathrm{p} * (\sim \mathrm{q})) \wedge(\mathrm{p} \vee \mathrm{q})) \Leftrightarrow \mathrm{p}\)
is a tautology, then \(*\) is :

  • (1) \(\wedge\)
  • (2) \(\vee\)
  • (3) \(\Rightarrow\)
  • (4) \(\Leftrightarrow\)

Question 16:

If the circles \(x^{2}+y^{2}-2 x-4 y+4=0\) and \(x^{2}+y^{2}-6 x-10 y+20+2 \sqrt{13}=0\) touch each other at the point \((a, \mathrm{b})\), then \((3 a-2 \mathrm{b})^{2}\) is equal to :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 13

Question 17:

If the angle between the line \(l: \frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y+1}{1}=\frac{z-2}{2}\) and the plane \(\mathrm{P}: \lambda x+4y-7=0,\ \lambda \neq 0\), is \(\operatorname{cosec}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\), then the sum of co-ordinates of the point where line \(l\) crosses the plane P is :

  • (1) \(-33\)
  • (2) \(-2\)
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 6

Question 18:

Let three distinct normal be drawn to the parabola \(y^{2}+4y-6x-8=0\) from a point \((a, \mathrm{b})\) on the axis of the parabola. Then :

  • (1) \(a \in (1, \infty)\) and \(b=-2\)
  • (2) \(a \in (0, \infty)\) and \(b=-2\)
  • (3) \(a \in (1, \infty)\) and \(b=2\)
  • (4) \(a \in (2, \infty)\) and \(b=2\)

Question 19:

Given \({}^{n}C_{r}=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}\), \(0 \leq r \leq n\) and n is a non-negative integer. Then a possible value of k for which the equality
\({}^{50}C_{k-1}+\sum_{r=1}^{50}{}^{100-r}C_{k-2}={}^{100}C_{49}\) holds, is

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 49
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 25

Question 20:

If an unbiased die, marked with \(-3,-2,-1,0,1,2\) on its faces, is thrown four times, then the probability of getting \(-1\) as the sum of outputs is :

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{81}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{35}{324}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{81}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{26}{243}\)

Question 21:

\(\left(\sin 5^{\circ} \sin 55^{\circ} \sin 65^{\circ} \sin 75^{\circ}\right)^{-1}\) is equal to ________.


Question 22:

If the shortest distance between the lines \(3x+2y-4z-5=0=5x-7y-17z+2\) and \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-5}=\frac{z+1}{2}\) is \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{k}}\), then \(k\) is equal to ________.


Question 23:

For \(p \in \mathbb{N}\), if the angle between pair of tangents drawn to the ellipse \(3x^{2}+2y^{2}=5\) from the point \((1, p)\) is \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{12}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\), then the distance of the vertex of the parabola \(y=x^{2}-px+p+1\) from the point \((-7,8)\) is equal to ________.


Question 24:

Let P be a polygon with \(n\) vertices such that the line segment joining any two points of P remains entirely in P. If the number of diagonals of P is \(n+25\), then \(n\) is equal to ________.


Question 25:

Let \(f(x)\) be a polynomial of degree 5 such that \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x^{2}}=1\), \(f(-1)=-1\), \(f(x)-14x\) has an extrema at \(x=1\) and \(f(x)-10x\) has an extrema at \(x=-1\). Then \(f(2)\) is equal to ________.


Question 26:

The number of 7 digits integers formed by using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5 only and having the sum of digits equal to 18 is ________.


Question 27:

The remainder when \((556)^{40}\) is divided by 7 is ________.


Question 28:

Let \([\mathrm{t}]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then the value of \(10-10 \int_{-2}^{2}\left[x+x^{3}\right] dx\) is ________.


Question 29:

Let \(A=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 1 \\ -1 & 1\end{array}\right]\) and \(B=\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{array}\right]\). If \(k, l \in \mathbb{N}\) be such that \(A^{k} B^{l}=I\), then the minimum value of \(k+l\) is ________.


Question 30:

Let \(\mathrm{A}_{1}=[1]\), \(\mathrm{A}_{2}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}2 & 3 \\ 4 & 5\end{array}\right]\), \(\mathrm{A}_{3}=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}6 & 7 & 8 \\ 9 & 10 & 11 \\ 12 & 13 & 14\end{array}\right], \ldots\) Then the sum of the diagonal elements of \(\mathrm{A}_{20}\) is ________.


Aptitude Test (Q31 - Q80)

Question 31:

Which of the following is not a sustainable development goal targeted to be achieved by 2030?

  • (1) gender equality
  • (2) zero hunger
  • (3) good health & well being
  • (4) space Research

Question 32:

KANDARIYA MAHADEV TEMPLE is situated in which state of India?

  • (1) Madhya Pradesh
  • (2) Maharashtra
  • (3) Rajasthan
  • (4) Karnataka

Question 33:

Vertical elements in a building are:-

  • (1) Column, Lintel, Wall
  • (2) Lintel, Beam, Arch
  • (3) Column, Pier, Post
  • (4) Floor, Column, Arch

Question 34:

Cavity Walls are used for

  • (1) Waterproofing
  • (2) Heat Insulation
  • (3) Aesthetics
  • (4) Cost saving

Question 35:

Lintel is related to:

  • (1) Window
  • (2) Roof
  • (3) Foundation
  • (4) Pipe

Question 36:


Choose the correct option among the following by looking at the image given above:

  • (1) Lodhi Garden
  • (2) Jantar Mantar
  • (3) Rajghat
  • (4) Bahai Temple

Question 37:

ARCHITECT ACT 1972 was enforced in which month

  • (1) 31st Dec
  • (2) 31st May
  • (3) 31st July
  • (4) 31st March

Question 38:

The dome of Rashtrapati Bhawan is influenced by which of the following:

  • (1) Gurudwara
  • (2) Mosque
  • (3) Stupa
  • (4) Temple

Question 39:

Dominion tower is designed by

  • (1) Bjarke Ingels
  • (2) Zaha Hadid
  • (3) Frei otto
  • (4) F.L. Wright

Question 40:

The largest river island of the world is present in which state of India?

  • (1) Maharastra
  • (2) Assam
  • (3) Uttar Pradesh
  • (4) West Bengal

Question 41:

Who prepared the first layout of the town of Jamshedpur?

  • (1) Charles Correa
  • (2) Otto Koenigsberger
  • (3) Le Corbusier
  • (4) Messrs Julian Kennedy Sahlin

Question 42:


Identify the historical monument which is given in the image.

  • (1) Sanchi Stupa
  • (2) Victory Tower
  • (3) Sarnath Stupa
  • (4) Nalanda

Question 43:

Who was known as “Father of modern concrete”?

  • (1) John Paul
  • (2) John Nash
  • (3) John Smeaton
  • (4) Joseph Stein

Question 44:

Who is the architect of TWA Airport, New York?

  • (1) Eero Saarinen
  • (2) Mies Vander Rohe
  • (3) Joseph Allen Stein
  • (4) Alvar Aalto

Question 45:

Starting from a point, Maria walked 12 meters towards North, she turned right and walked 10 meters. She again turned right and walked 12 meters, then she turned left and walked 5 meters. How far is she now and in which direction from the starting point? Consider the starting point is in south direction.

  • (1) 27 meters towards East
  • (2) 5 meters towards East
  • (3) 10 meters towards West
  • (4) 15 meters towards East

Question 46:

Who among the following is not Pritzker prize winner?

  • (1) Wang Shu
  • (2) B.V. Doshi
  • (3) Arata Isozaki
  • (4) Denise Scott Brown

Question 47:

Which of the following is not Antonio Gaudi’s project?

  • (1) Casa Mila
  • (2) Sagrada Familia
  • (3) Casa Batllo
  • (4) Casa Milano

Question 48:

Which one of the following is most earthquake resistant structure?

  • (1) RCC framed structure
  • (2) Load bearing structure
  • (3) Mud walls structure
  • (4) Random stone masonry structure

Question 49:

"CHALK" belongs to which category?

  • (1) Rock
  • (2) Mineral
  • (3) Wood
  • (4) Polymer

Question 50:

What are the three parts of colour theory?

  • (1) hyper, value and chrome
  • (2) honey, violet and chroma
  • (3) hue, value and chroma
  • (4) hue, chrome and violet

Question 51:

Identify the three primary colours?

  • (1) Red, Blue and Green
  • (2) Red, Yellow and Blue
  • (3) Black, White and Yellow
  • (4) Blue, White and Yellow

Question 52: Match List I with List II:
List IList II
A. Kamakhya TempleI. Madhya Pradesh
B. Padmanabha TempleII. Rajasthan
C. Kandariya MahadevIII. Assam
D. Karni Mata TempleIV. Kerala
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 53:

A square has an area of 100 sq.mt. How much will be its area on a scale of 1 : 20?

  • (1) 5 sq.mt.
  • (2) 50 sq.mt.
  • (3) 0.25 sq.mt.
  • (4) 25 sq.mt.

Question 54:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Shakti Sthal is a memorial in Raj Ghat marking the cremation site of Indira Gandhi.
Statement II: A.P. Kanvinde in the landscape designer known for designing Shakti Sthal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 55:

What is the full form of "UDAY"?

  • (1) Ujjwala Discom Assitance Yojana
  • (2) Unnati Development Ayojan Yojana
  • (3) Ujwal Distribution Assurance Yojana
  • (4) Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana

Question 56:

What is the acronym for "AYUSH"?

  • (1) Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy
  • (2) Ayurveda, Yogic and Unani Siddha and Homeopathy
  • (3) Acroveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy
  • (4) Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani Surgery and Homeopathy

Question 57:

Select the correct option from answer figure which will be best suitable to continue the same pattern as established by the problem figure.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 58:

Choose the correct option from the answer figures which completes the question series.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 59:

Identify the number of surfaces in the given 3D object.

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 9

Question 60:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the view of the object looking in the direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 61:

The 3D figure shows the view of an object. Identify the correct view looking in the direction of arrow, amongst the answer figures.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 62:

Choose the correct option from the answer figures which completes the sequence.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 63:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object, identify the correct view looking in the direction of the arrow?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 64:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the top view of the object in the direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

Identify the total number of surfaces in the given 3D object.

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 16

Question 66:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the correct view looking in the direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 67:

In the question figure it is a 3D view of an object. Identify the correct top view among the given options.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate top view of the object from the given direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69:

Identify the total number of surfaces in the given object.

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 10

Question 70:

Identify the mirror image of the question figure, amongst the answer figures with respect to P-P.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

Identify the correct mirror image of the question image with respect to P-P.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

Which of the answer figures fit best to the left side of the given question figure?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 73:

In the question figure, the top, front and right side view is given. Identify the most appropriate 3D view of the object from the answer figures.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate elevation (front view) looking in the direction of arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 75:

The question figure shows the 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate view of the object looking in the direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 76:

The question figure is the 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate front view of the object looking in the direction of the arrow.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 77:

Question figure shows 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate top view of the given 3D object looking in the direction of an arrow, from the given answers figures.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 78:

Identify the number of surfaces in the problem figure.

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 23
  • (4) 20

Question 79:

The question figure shows 3D view of an object. Identify the most appropriate elevation of the given 3D object, looking in the direction of an arrow, from the given answer figures.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 80:

Find out the total number of surfaces of the 3D object.

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 15

Planning (Q81 - Q105)

Question 81:

GIS as a tool used for spatial connectedness for

  • (1) Topology
  • (2) Topography
  • (3) Ecology
  • (4) Climatology

Question 82:

Smart city scheme has been launched in which year?

  • (1) 2012
  • (2) 2016
  • (3) 2015
  • (4) 2014

Question 83:

With reference to the area which one among the following is the largest?

  • (1) Zonal Plan
  • (2) Master Plan
  • (3) Regional Plan
  • (4) Layout Plan

Question 84:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Full form of NFDB is “National Fisheries Development Board”.
Statement II: Full form of NFDB is “National Forest Development & Board.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 85:

The Gandhian plan was presented by

  • (1) Sriman Narayan Agarwal
  • (2) J.L. Nehru
  • (3) M.M. Roy
  • (4) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 86:

In which 5 year plan, the growth, social justice and equality was focused.
(A) Second Five year plan
(B) Ninth Five year plan
(C) Third Five year plan
(D) Fourth Five year plan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A only
  • (2) B and D
  • (3) B only
  • (4) C only

Question 87:

In Urban Land Development, the model of sector theory was proposed by

  • (1) Charles Corea
  • (2) Ebenezer Howard
  • (3) Le-Corbusier
  • (4) Homer Hoyt

Question 88:

Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission?

  • (1) Gulzarilal Nanda
  • (2) Sriman Narayan
  • (3) M.M. Roy
  • (4) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 89:

Grand Innovation Challenge was launched by:-

  • (1) “NITI” Aayog
  • (2) Finance Commission
  • (3) Planning Commission
  • (4) National Planning Committee

Question 90:

Who is the father of Indian Planning.

  • (1) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (2) M.K. Gandhi
  • (3) Sir M. Vishveshshwariah
  • (4) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 91:

In master plan, a zone is shown in yellow colour. What is the land use of that zone?

  • (1) Residential
  • (2) Commercial
  • (3) Industrial
  • (4) Water Bodies

Question 92:

In master plan by which color, we show the industrial land use.

  • (1) Purple
  • (2) Grey
  • (3) Red
  • (4) Green

Question 93:

The book “Image of the City” is written by

  • (1) Christopher Alexander
  • (2) Kevin Lynch
  • (3) Oxford Newman
  • (4) Gorden Cullen

Question 94: Match List I with List II.
List IList II
(A) Carpet Area(I) Built up area plus proportionate area of common areas
(B) Super built up Area(II) Usable Area
(C) Set Back Area(III) Entire carpet area plus external wall.
(D) Plinth Area(IV) Minimum open space around the building
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – II
  • (2) (A) – IV, (B) – II, (C) – I, (D) – III
  • (3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – III
  • (4) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – III, (D) – I

Question 95: Match List I with List II.
List IList II
(A) Kolkata(I) Radial
(B) Delhi(II) Linear
(C) Chandigarh(III) Organic
(D) Varanasi(IV) Grid Iron

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) – IV
  • (2) (A) – I, (B) – III, (C) – II, (D) – IV
  • (3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – III
  • (4) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – II

Question 96:

In which year, HRIDAY Launched?

  • (1) 2014
  • (2) 2012
  • (3) 2015
  • (4) 2011

Question 97:

Which type of plan is this?

  • (1) Dandaka
  • (2) Chaturmukha
  • (3) Padmaka
  • (4) Karmukha

Question 98:

The roman “FORUM” is also referred as:

  • (1) River
  • (2) Building
  • (3) Park
  • (4) Market Place

Question 99:

If all the directions are changed in the manner that North becomes South and Vice-Versa, then North-West will be

  • (1) South-East
  • (2) North-East
  • (3) South-West
  • (4) North-West

Question 100:

Inspector Shyam started from Police Station on inspection. After travelling straight for a distance of four (4) KM, he turned left for market and travelled straight 600 meters. He now turned left again and travelled straight for another 200 meters, and turned left and travelled straight for 600 meters. How far is Shyam from Police Station?

  • (1) 3.4 Km
  • (2) 4.8 Km
  • (3) 3.8 Km
  • (4) 4.4 Km

Question 101:

The highest body which approves five year plans of India is:

  • (1) Parliament
  • (2) Planning Commission
  • (3) Union Cabinet
  • (4) National Development Council

Question 102:

In the given diagram, from A point to C point, how much you have to move

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 40

Question 103:


In the given diagram, from point C to point B, which direction you have to move

  • (1) East – North
  • (2) North – South
  • (3) South – East
  • (4) West – South

Question 104:


With the reference to the diagram, choose the correct statement.

  • (1) The distance from B to D is 20
  • (2) The distance from B to D is 10
  • (3) The distance from B to C is 10
  • (4) The distance from B to D is 30

Question 105:


In the given diagram, northern most point is

  • (1) C only
  • (2) D only
  • (3) B only
  • (4) A only

JEE Main 2023 B.Planning (Paper 2B) Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.Planning (Paper 2B)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs), numerical value questions
SubjectsMathematics, Aptitude Test, Planning
Total Questions105 questions (100 to be attempted)
Total Marks400 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis April 12 Shift 2

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on April 12 Shift 2 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on April 12 Shift 2 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

JEE Main 2023 B.Planning Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test (Pen-paper for Drawing Test)
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Mathematics, Aptitude, Drawing
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 400 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 82 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 77 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions; Drawing Test
Section-wise Number of Questions Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Aptitude- 50 MCQs
Drawing- 2 drawing questions
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer (50 marks for each drawing question)
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer (no negative marking in drawing test)

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