JEE Main 2014 April 11 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) Paper 1 on April 11, 2014. The JEE Main 2014 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2014 April 11 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2014 April 11 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are roots of the equation, \(x^2 - 4\sqrt{2}kx + 2e^{4\ln k} - 1 = 0\) for some \(k\), and \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 = 66\), then \(\alpha^3 + \beta^3\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(248\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(280\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(-32\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(-280\sqrt{2}\)

Question 2:

If \(z_1, z_2\) and \(z_3, z_4\) are 2 pairs of complex conjugate numbers, then \(\arg\left(\frac{z_1}{z_4}\right) + \arg\left(\frac{z_2}{z_3}\right)\) equals:

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3\pi}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\pi\)

Question 3:

An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed using digits from 0 to 9 without repeating the digits. The number of ways in which this can be done is :

  • (1) 72 (7!)
  • (2) 18 (7!)
  • (3) 40 (7!)
  • (4) 36 (7!)

Question 4:

In a geometric progression, if the ratio of the sum of first 5 terms to the sum of their reciprocals is 49, and the sum of the first and the third term is 35. Then the first term of this geometric progression is:

  • (1) \(7\)
  • (2) \(21\)
  • (3) \(28\)
  • (4) \(42\)

Question 5:

The sum of the first 20 terms common between the series \(3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + \ldots\) and \(1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + \ldots\) is:

  • (1) \(4000\)
  • (2) \(4020\)
  • (3) \(4200\)
  • (4) \(4220\)

Question 6:

The coefficient of \(x^{50}\) in the binomial expansion of \((1 + x)^{1000} + x (1 + x)^{999} + x^2(1 + x)^{998} + .... + x^{1000}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{(1000)!}{(50)! ( 950)!}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{(1000)!}{(49)! ( 951)!}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{(1001)!}{(51)! ( 950)!}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{(1001)!}{(50)! ( 951)!}\)

Question 7:

If \(2\cos\theta + \sin\theta = 1\) \(\left(\theta \ne \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), then \(7\cos\theta + 6\sin\theta\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{11}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{46}{5}\)

Question 8:

The base of an equilateral triangle is along the line given by \(3x + 4y = 9\). If a vertex of the triangle is \((1, 2)\), then the length of a side of the triangle is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2\sqrt{3}}{15}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{15}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\sqrt{3}}{5}\)

Question 9:

The set of all real values of \(\lambda\) for which exactly two common tangents can be drawn to the circles \(x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 4y + 6 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 10x - 10y + \lambda = 0\) is the interval:

  • (1) \((12, 32)\)
  • (2) \((18, 42)\)
  • (3) \((12, 24)\)
  • (4) \((18, 48)\)

Question 10:

Let \(L_1\) be the length of the common chord of the curves \(x^2+y^2 = 9\) and \(y^2 = 8x,\) and \(L_2\) be the length of the latus rectum of \(y^2 = 8x,\) then :

  • (1) \(L_1 > L_2\)
  • (2) \(L_1 = L_2\)
  • (3) \(L_1 < L_2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}} = \sqrt{2}\)

Question 11:

A stair-case of length \(l\) rests against a vertical wall and a floor of a room. Let P be a point on the stair-case, nearer to its end on the wall, that divides its length in the ratio \(1 : 2\). If the staircase begins to slide on the floor, then the locus of P is:

  • (1) an ellipse of eccentricity \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) an ellipse of eccentricity \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (3) a circle of radius \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) a circle of radius \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}l\)

Question 12:

Let P \(\left(3\, sec \,\theta, \,2 \,tan \,\theta\right)\) and Q \(\left(3\, sec\, \phi, \,2 \,tan \,\phi\right)\) where \(\theta + \phi = \frac{\pi}{2},\) be two distinct points on the hyperbola \(\frac{x^{2}}{9} - \frac{y^{2}}{4} = 1.\) Then the ordinate of the point of intersection of the normals at P and Q is :

  • (1) \(\frac{11}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{-11}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{13}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{-13}{2}\)

Question 13:

If \(\lim_{x \to 2} \frac{\tan\left((x-2)\left\{x^2 + (k-2)x - 2k\right\}\right)}{x^2 - 4x + 4} = 5\), then \(k\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(2\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 14:

The proposition \(\sim(p \vee \sim q) \vee \sim(p \vee q)\) is logically equivalent to:

  • (1) \(p\)
  • (2) \(q\)
  • (3) \(\sim p\)
  • (4) \(\sim q\)

Question 15:

Two ships A and B are sailing straight away from a fixed point O along routes such that \(\angle AOB\) is always \(120^\circ\). At a certain instance, \(OA = 8\) km, \(OB = 6\) km and the ship A is sailing at the rate of 20 km/hr while the ship B sailing at the rate of 30 km/hr. Then the distance between A and B is changing at the rate (in km/hr):

  • (1) \(\frac{260}{\sqrt{37}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{260}{37}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{80}{\sqrt{37}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{80}{37}\)

Question 16:

The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point P on the horizontal ground was observed to be \(\alpha\). After moving a distance 2 metres from P towards the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation changes to \(\beta\). Then the height (in metres) of the tower is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2\sin\alpha\sin\beta}{\sin(\beta-\alpha)}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sin\alpha\sin\beta}{\cos(\beta-\alpha)}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2\sin(\beta-\alpha)}{\sin\alpha\sin\beta}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\cos(\beta-\alpha)}{\sin\alpha\sin\beta}\)

Question 17:

Let \(A(2,3,5)\), \(B(-1,3,2)\) and \(C(\lambda,5,\mu)\) be the vertices of a \(\triangle ABC\). If the median through A is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then:

  • (1) \(5\lambda-8\mu=0\)
  • (2) \(8\lambda-5\mu=0\)
  • (3) \(10\lambda-7\mu=0\)
  • (4) \(7\lambda-10\mu=0\)

Question 18:

Let A be a \(3\times3\) matrix such that \(A\begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\\0&2&3\\0&1&1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}0&0&1\\1&0&0\\0&1&0\end{bmatrix}\). Then \(A^{-1}\) is:

  • (1) \(\begin{bmatrix}3&1&2\\3&0&2\\1&0&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{bmatrix}3&2&1\\3&2&0\\1&1&0\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{bmatrix}0&1&3\\0&2&3\\1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{bmatrix}1&2&3\\0&1&1\\0&2&3\end{bmatrix}\)

Question 19:

Let for \(i = 1,2,3\), \(p_i(x)\) be a polynomial of degree 2 in x, \(p_i'(x)\) and \(p_i''(x)\) be the first and second order derivatives of \(p_i(x)\) respectively. Let, \(A(x) = \begin{bmatrix}p_1(x)&p_1'(x)&p_1''(x)\\p_2(x)&p_2'(x)&p_2''(x)\\p_3(x)&p_3'(x)&p_3''(x)\end{bmatrix}\) and \(B(x) = [A(x)]^{T}A(x)\). Then determinant of B(x):

  • (1) is a polynomial of degree 6 in x.
  • (2) is a polynomial of degree 3 in x.
  • (3) is a polynomial of degree 2 in x.
  • (4) does not depend on x.

Question 20:

Let f be an odd function defined on the set of real numbers such that for \(x \ge 0\), \(f(x) = 3\sin x + 4\cos x\). Then f(x) at \(x = -\frac{11\pi}{6}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}+2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{3}{2}+2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}-2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{3}{2}-2\sqrt{3}\)

Question 21:

Let \(f(x) = x|x|\), \(g(x) = \sin x\) and \(h(x) = (g\circ f)(x)\). Then

  • (1) \(h(x)\) is not differentiable at \(x = 0\).
  • (2) \(h(x)\) is differentiable at \(x = 0\), but \(h'(x)\) is not continuous at \(x = 0\)
  • (3) \(h'(x)\) is continuous at \(x = 0\) but it is not differentiable at \(x = 0\)
  • (4) \(h'(x)\) is differentiable at \(x = 0\)

Question 22:

For the curve \(y = 3\sin\theta\cos\theta\), \(x = e^{\theta}\sin\theta\), \(0 \le \theta \le \pi\), the tangent is parallel to x-axis when \(\theta\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{3\pi}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 23:

The volume of the largest possible right circular cylinder that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius \(= \sqrt{3}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}\sqrt{3}\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{3}\sqrt{3}\pi\)
  • (3) \(4\pi\)
  • (4) \(2\pi\)

Question 24:

The integral \(\int x \,cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right) \,dx\, \left(x > 0\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(- x + (1 + x^2) tan^{-1} x + c\)
  • (2) \(x- (1 + x^2) cot^{-1} x + c\)
  • (3) \(- x + (1 + x^2) cot^{-1} x + c\)
  • (4) \(x- (1 + x^2) tan^{-1} x + c\)

Question 25:

If \(n \ge 1\), \(P_n = \int_1^e (\log x)^n\,dx\), then \(P_{10} - 90P_8\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-9\)
  • (2) \(10e\)
  • (3) \(-9e\)
  • (4) \(10\)

Question 26:

If the general solution of the differential equation \(y' = \frac{y}{x} + \Phi\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)\), for some function \(\Phi\), is given by \(y\ln|cx| = x\), where c is an arbitrary constant, then \(\Phi(2)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(4\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (3) \(-4\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 27:

If \(|\vec{c}|^2 = 60\) and \(\vec{c}\times(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+5\hat{k}) = \vec{0}\), then a value of \(\vec{c}\cdot(-7\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\) is:

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(12\)
  • (3) \(24\)
  • (4) \(12\sqrt{2}\)

Question 28:

The plane containing the line \(\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y-2}{2} = \frac{z-3}{3}\) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x}{1} = \frac{y}{1} = \frac{z}{4}\) passes through the point:

  • (1) \((1,-2,5)\)
  • (2) \((1,0,5)\)
  • (3) \((0,3,-5)\)
  • (4) \((-1,-3,0)\)

Question 29:

A set S contains 7 elements. A non-empty subset A of S and an element x of S are chosen at random. Then the probability that \(x \in A\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{64}{127}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{63}{128}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{31}{128}\)

Question 30:

If \(X\) has a binomial distribution, \(B(n,p)\) with parameters \(n\) and \(p\) such that \(P(X=2)=P(X=3)\), then \(E(X)\), the mean of variable \(X\), is

  • (1) \(2-p\)
  • (2) \(3-p\)
  • (3) \(\frac{p}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{p}{3}\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

In terms of resistance \(R\) and time \(T\), the dimensions of ratio \(\frac{\mu}{\epsilon}\) of the permeability \({\mu}\) and permittivity \({\epsilon}\) is :

  • (1) \([RT^{-2}]\)
  • (2) \([R^2 T^{-1}]\)
  • (3) \([R^2]\)
  • (4) \([R^2 T^2]\)

Question 32:

The initial speed of a bullet fired from a rifle is \(630\, m/ s\). The rifle is fired at the centre of a target \(700\, m\) away at the same level as the target. How far above the centre of the target the rifle must be aimed in order to hit the target ?

  • (1) 1.0 m
  • (2) 4.2 m
  • (3) 6.1 m
  • (4) 9.8 m

Question 33:

A body of mass \(5\, kg\) under the action of constant force \(\vec{F}=F_{x} \hat{i} +F_{y} \hat{j}\) has velocity at \(t = 0\,s\) as \(\vec{\upsilon} = \left(6\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}\right)\) m/s and at \(t = 10 s\) as \(\vec{\upsilon}=+6 \hat{j}\) m/s. The force \(\vec{F}\) is :

  • (1) \( \left(-3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}\right) N\)
  • (2) \( \left(-\frac{3}{5}\hat{i} + \frac{4}{5}\hat{j}\right) N\)
  • (3) \( \left(3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j}\right) N\)
  • (4) \( \left(\frac{3}{5}\hat{i} - \frac{4}{5}\hat{j}\right) N\)

Question 34:

A small ball of mass m starts at a point A with speed \(v_o\) and moves along a frictionless track AB as shown. The track BC has coefficient of friction \(\mu\). The ball comes to stop at C after travelling a distance \(L\) which is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2h}{\mu}+\frac{v_o^2}{2\mu g}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{h}{\mu}+\frac{v_o^2}{2\mu g}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{h}{2\mu}+\frac{v_o^2}{\mu g}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{h}{2\mu}+\frac{v_o^2}{2\mu g}\)

Question 35:

A thin bar of length \(L\) has a mass per unit length \(\lambda\), that increases linearly with distance from one end. If its total mass is \(M\) and its mass per unit length at the lighter end is \(\lambda_{0}\), then the distance of the centre of mass from the lighter end is :

  • (1) \(\frac{L}{2} - \frac{\lambda_{0}L^{2}}{4M}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{L}{3} + \frac{\lambda_{0}L^{2}}{8M}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{L}{3} + \frac{\lambda_{0}L^{2}}{4M}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2L}{3} - \frac{\lambda_{0}L^{2}}{6M}\)

Question 36:

From a sphere of mass \(M\) and radius R, a smaller sphere of radius \(\frac{R}{2}\) is carved out such that the cavity made in the original sphere is between its centre and the periphery (See figure). For the configuration in the figure where the distance between the centre of the original sphere and the removed sphere is 3R, the gravitational force between the two sphere is:

  • (1) \(\frac{41GM^2}{3600R^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{41GM^2}{450R^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{59GM^2}{450R^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{GM^2}{225R^2}\)

Question 37:

The bulk moduli of ethanol, mercury and water are given as \(0.9,\ 25\) and \(2.2\) respectively in units of \(10^9\,\mathrm{Nm^{-2}}\). For a given value of pressure, the fractional compression in volume is \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\). Which of the following statements about \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\) for these three liquids is correct ?

  • (1) Ethanol > Water > Mercury
  • (2) Water > Ethanol > Mercury
  • (3) Mercury > Ethanol > Water
  • (4) Ethanol > Mercury > Water

Question 38:

The average mass of rain drops is \(3.0 \times 10^{-5}\) kg and their average terminal velocity is \(9\, m/s.\) Calculate the energy transferred by rain to each square metre of the surface at a place which receives \(100\, cm\) of rain in a year.

  • (1) \(3.5 \times 10^5 J\)
  • (2) \(4.05 \times 10^4 J\)
  • (3) \(3.0 \times 10^5 J\)
  • (4) \(9.0 \times 10^4 J\)

Question 39:

A tank with a small hole at the bottom has been filled with water and kerosene (specific gravity 0.8 ). The height of water is 3 m and that of kerosene 2 m. When the hole is opened the velocity of fluid coming out from it is nearly: (take \(g=10\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\) and density of water \(=10^3\ \mathrm{kg\,m^{-3}}\))

  • (1) \(10.7\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \(9.6\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \(8.5\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \(7.6\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\)

Question 40:

An air bubble of radius \(0.1\, cm\) is in a liquid having surface tension \(0.06\, N/m\) and density \(10^3\, kg/m^3\). The pressure inside the bubble is 1100 \(Nm^{-2}\) greater than the atmospheric pressure. At what depth is the bubble below the surface of the liquid ? \((g = 9.8 \,ms^{-2})\)

  • (1) 0.1 m
  • (2) 0.15 m
  • (3) 0.20 m
  • (4) 0.25 m

Question 41:

A hot body, obeying Newton's law of cooling is cooling down from its peak value \(80^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to an ambient temperature of \(30^\circ\mathrm{C}\). It takes 5 minutes in cooling down from \(80^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(40^\circ\mathrm{C}\). How much time will it take to cool down from \(62^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(32^\circ\mathrm{C}\) ? (Given \(\ln 2=0.693,\ \ln 5=1.609\) )

  • (1) 3.75 minutes
  • (2) 8.6 minutes
  • (3) 9.6 minutes
  • (4) 6.5 minutes

Question 42:

During an adiabatic compression, \(830\, J\) of work is done on \(2\) moles of a diatomic ideal gas to reduce its volume by \(50\%\). The change in its temperature is nearly : \((R = 8.3 JK^{-1}\, mol^{-1})\)

  • (1) 40 K
  • (2) 33 K
  • (3) 20 K
  • (4) 14 K

Question 43:

An ideal monoatomic gas is confined in a cylinder by a spring loaded piston of cros section \(8.0 \times 10^{-3} \, m^2\). Initially the gas is at 300K and occupies a volume of \(2.4 \times 10^{-3} \, m^3\) and the spring is in its relaxed state as shown in figure. The gas is heated by a small heater until the piston moves out slowly by \(0.1\, m\). The force constant of the spring is \(8000\, N/m\) and the atmospheric pressure is \(1.0 \times 10^5 \, N/m^2\). The cylinder and the piston are thermally insulated. The piston and the spring are massless and there is no friction between the piston and the cylinder. The final temperature of the gas will be : (Neglect the heat loss through the lead wires of the heater. The heat capacity of the heater coil is also negligible)

  • (1) 300 K
  • (2) 800 K
  • (3) 500 K
  • (4) 1000 K

Question 44:

The angular frequency of the damped oscillator is given by, \(\omega = \sqrt{\left(\frac{k}{m} - \frac{r^{2}}{4m^{2}}\right)}\) where \(k\) is the spring constant, \(m\) is the mass of the oscillator and \(r\) is the damping constant. If the ratio \(\frac{r^{2}}{mk}\) is \(8\%\), the change in time period compared to the undamped oscillator is approximately as follows :

  • (1) increases by 1%
  • (2) increases by 8%
  • (3) decreases by 1%
  • (4) decreases by 8%

Question 45:

Two factories are sounding their sirens at \(800\, Hz\). A man goes from one factory to other at a speed of \(2\, m/s\). The velocity of sound is \(320\, m/s\). The number of beats heard by the person in one second will be :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10

Question 46:

A cone of base radius R and height h is located in a uniform electric field \(\overrightarrow{E}\) parallel to its base. The electric flux entering the cone is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\) E h R
  • (2) E h R
  • (3) 2 E h R
  • (4) 4 E h R

Question 47:

A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length \(l\), width \(w\) and separated by distance \(d\). A dielectric slab (dielectric constant K ) that fits exactly between the plates is held near the edge of the plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force \(F=-\frac{\partial U}{\partial x}\) where \(U\) is the energy of the capacitor when dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance \(x\) (See figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the force on the dielectric when it is near the edge is:

  • (1) \(\frac{Q^2d}{2wl^2\varepsilon_0}K\)
  • (2) \(\frac{Q^2W}{2dl^2\varepsilon_0}(K-1)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{Q^2d}{2wl^2\varepsilon_0}(K-1)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{Q^2w}{2dl^2\varepsilon_0}K\)

Question 48:

In the circuit shown, current (in A) through the 50 V and 30 V batteries are, respectively :

  • (1) 2.5 and 3
  • (2) 3.5 and 2
  • (3) 4.5 and 1
  • (4) 3 and 2.5

Question 49:

In the circuit diagrams (A, B, C and D) shown below, R is a high resistance and S is a resistance of the order of galvanometer resistance G. The correct circuit, corresponding to the half deflection method for finding the resistance and figure of merit of the galvanometer, is the circuit labelled as:

  • (1) Circuit A with \(G=\frac{RS}{(R-S)}\)
  • (2) Circuit B with \(G=S\)
  • (3) Circuit C with \(G=S\)
  • (4) Circuit D with \(G=\frac{RS}{(R-S)}\)

Question 50:

Three identical bars A, B and C are made of different magnetic materials. When kept in a uniform magnetic field, the field lines around them look as follows:

Make the correspondence of these bars with their material being diamagnetic ( D), ferromagnetic (F) and paramagnetic (P) :

  • (1) A \(\leftrightarrow\) D, B \(\leftrightarrow\) P, C \(\leftrightarrow\) F
  • (2) A \(\leftrightarrow\) F, B \(\leftrightarrow\) D, C \(\leftrightarrow\) P
  • (3) A \(\leftrightarrow\) P, B \(\leftrightarrow\) F, C \(\leftrightarrow\) D
  • (4) A \(\leftrightarrow\) F, B \(\leftrightarrow\) P, C \(\leftrightarrow\) D

Question 51:

Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. The force experienced by the middle conductor of length 25 cm is:

  • (1) \(3\times10^{-4}\) N toward right
  • (2) \(6\times10^{-4}\) N toward right
  • (3) \(9\times10^{-4}\) N toward right
  • (4) Zero

Question 52:

A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns and \(4\ \mathrm{cm^2}\) face area is placed with its axis parallel to a magnetic field which decreases by \(10^{-2}\ \mathrm{Wb\,m^{-2}}\) in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:

  • (1) 400mV
  • (2) 200mV
  • (3) 4mV
  • (4) 0.4mV

Question 53:

An electromagnetic wave of frequency \(1\times10^{14}\) hertz is propagating along z-axis. The amplitude of electric field is 4 V/m. If \(\varepsilon_0=8.8\times10^{-12}\ \mathrm{C^2/N\text{-}m^2}\), then average energy density of electric field will be:

  • (1) \(35.2\times10^{-10}\ \mathrm{J/m^3}\)
  • (2) \(35.2\times10^{-11}\ \mathrm{J/m^3}\)
  • (3) \(35.2\times10^{-12}\ \mathrm{J/m^3}\)
  • (4) \(35.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{J/m^3}\)

Question 54:

An object is located in a fixed position in front of a screen. Sharp image is obtained on the screen for two positions of a thin lens separated by \(10\, cm\). The size of the images in two situations are in the ratio 3 : 2. What is the distance between the screen and the object ?

  • (1) \(124.5 \,cm\)
  • (2) \(144.5 \,cm\)
  • (3) \(65.0 \,cm\)
  • (4) \(99.0\, cm\)

Question 55:

In a compound microscope the focal length of objective lens is \(1.2\ \mathrm{cm}\) and focal length of eye piece is \(3.0\ \mathrm{cm}\). When object is kept at \(1.25\ \mathrm{cm}\) in front of objective, final image is formed at infinity. Magnifying power of the compound microscope should be:

  • (1) 200
  • (2) 100
  • (3) 400
  • (4) 150

Question 56:

Two monochromatic light beams of intensity 16 and 9 units are interfering. The ratio of intensities of bright and dark parts of the resultant pattern is:

  • (1) \(\frac{16}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7}{1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{49}{1}\)

Question 57:

A photon of wavelength \(\lambda\) is scattered from an electron, which was at rest. The wavelength shift \(\Delta\lambda\) is three times of \(\lambda\) and the angle of scattering \(\theta\) is \(60^\circ\). The angle at which the electron recoiled is \(\phi\). The value of \(\tan\phi\) is : (electron speed is much smaller than the speed of light)

  • (1) 0.16
  • (2) 0.22
  • (3) 0.25
  • (4) 0.28

Question 58: Match the List-I (Phenomenon associated with electromagnetic radiation) with List-II (Part of electromagnetic spectrum) and select the correct code from the choices given below this lists:
List IList II
IDoublet of sodium(A)Visible radiation
IIWavelength corresponding to temperature associated with the isotropic radiation filling all space(B)Microwave
IIIWavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space(C)Short radio wave
IVWavelength of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen(D)X-rays
  • (1) (I)-(A), (II)-(B), (III)-(B), (IV)-(C)
  • (2) (I)-(A), (II)-(B), (III)-(C), (IV)-(C)
  • (3) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(A), (IV)-(B)
  • (4) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A)

Question 59:

A radioactive nuclei with decay constant \(0.5/\mathrm{s}\) is being produced at a constant rate of 100 nuclei/s. If at \(t=0\) there were no nuclei, the time when there are 50 nuclei is:

  • (1) \(1\ \mathrm{s}\)
  • (2) \(2\ln\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\mathrm{s}\)
  • (3) \(\ln 2\ \mathrm{s}\)
  • (4) \(\ln\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\mathrm{s}\)

Question 60:

A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as shown below : The currents \(I, I_z\) and \(I_L\) are respectively

  • (1) \(15\, mA, 5 \,mA, 10\, mA\)
  • (2) \(15\, mA, 7.5\, mA, 7.5 \,mA\)
  • (3) \(12.5\,mA, 5 \,mA, 7.5\, mA\)
  • (4) \(12.5 \,mA, 7.5\, mA, 5 \,mA\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

A gaseous compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of hydrogen. The density of the compound relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular formula of the compound is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{NH_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{N_3H}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{N_2H_4}\)

Question 62:

If \(\lambda_{0}\) and \(\lambda\) be the threshold wavelength and wavelength of incident light, the velocity of photoelectron ejected from the metal surface is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{2h}{m}\left(\lambda_{0}-\lambda\right)}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{2hc}{m}\left(\lambda_{0}-\lambda\right)}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{2hc}{m}\left(\frac{\lambda_{0}-\lambda}{\lambda\,\lambda_{0}}\right)}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{2h}{m}\left(\frac{1}{\lambda_{0}}-\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)}\)

Question 63:

Based on the equation : \(\Delta E = -2.0 \times 10^{-18} J \left(\frac{1}{n^{2}_{2}}-\frac{1}{n^{2}_{1}}\right)\) the wavelength of the light that must be absorbed to excite hydrogen electron from level n=l to level n=2 will be : \(\left(h = 6.625 \times 10^{-34} \,Js, C= 3\times10^{8} \,ms^{-1}\right)\)

  • (1) \(1.325 \times 10^{-7} m\)
  • (2) \(1.325 \times 10^{-10} m\)
  • (3) \(2.650 \times 10^{-7} m\)
  • (4) \(5.300 \times 10^{-10} m\)

Question 64:

Which of the following series correctly represents relations between the elements from X to Y?
\(X\to Y\)

  • (1) \(_{3}Li \to_{19}K\) - Ionization enthalpy increases.
  • (2) \(_{9}F\to_{35}Br\) - Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign increases.
  • (3) \(_{6}C \to_{32}Ge\) - Atomic radii increases.
  • (4) \(_{18}Ar\to_{54}Xe\) - Noble character increases.

Question 65:

The correct order of bond dissociation energy among \(N_2, O_2, O_2^-\) is shown in which of the following arrangements ?

  • (1) \(N_{2}> O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}\)
  • (2) \(O^{-}_{2}> O_{2}>N_{2}\)
  • (3) \(N_{2}> O_{2}>O_{2}^{-}\)
  • (4) \(O_{2}> O_{2}^{-}>N_{2}\)

Question 66:

Which one of the following does not have a pyramidal shape?

  • (1) \((\mathrm{CH_3})_3\mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \((\mathrm{SiH_3})_3\mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{CH_3})_3\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{SiH_3})_3\)

Question 67:

In allene (\(\mathrm{C_3H_4}\)), the type(s) of hybridization of the carbon atoms is (are) :

  • (1) sp and \(sp^3\)
  • (2) \(sp^2\) and sp
  • (3) only \(sp^2\)
  • (4) \(sp^2\) and \(sp^3\)

Question 68:

The initial volume of a gas cylinder is 750.0 \,mL. If the pressure of gas inside the cylinder changes from \(840.0 \,mm\) Hg to 360.0 mm Hg, the final volume the gas will be :

  • (1) 1.750 L
  • (2) 3.60 L
  • (3) 4.032 L
  • (4) 7.50 L

Question 69:

The molar heat capacity (\(\mathrm{C_p}\)) of \(\mathrm{CD_2O}\) is 10 cals at 1000 K. The change in entropy associated with cooling 32 g of \(\mathrm{CD_2O}\) vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure will be: (D = deuterium, atomic mass = 2u)

  • (1) \(23.03\ \mathrm{cal\,deg^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \(-23.03\ \mathrm{cal\,deg^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \(2.303\ \mathrm{cal\,deg^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \(-2.303\ \mathrm{cal\,deg^{-1}}\)

Question 70:

Consider the following equilibrium
\(\mathrm{AgCl}\downarrow + 2\mathrm{NH_3} \rightleftharpoons [\mathrm{Ag(NH_3)_2}]^+ + \mathrm{Cl^-}\)
White precipitate of AgCl appears on adding which of the following?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (2) aqueous \(\mathrm{NaCl}\)
  • (3) aqueous \(\mathrm{HNO_3}\)
  • (4) aqueous \(\mathrm{NH_4Cl}\)

Question 71:

Assuming that the degree of hydrolysis is small, the pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium acetate \((K_a = 1.0 \times 10^{-5})\) will be :

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 9

Question 72:

Which of the following statements about \(Na_2O_2\) is not correct?

  • (1) It is diamagnetic in nature.
  • (2) It is a derivative of \(H_2O_2\)
  • (3) \(Na_2O_2\) oxidises \(Cr^{3+}\) to \(CrO_4^{2-}\) in acid medium.
  • (4) It is the super oxide of sodium.

Question 73:

The reagent needed for converting

  • (1) Cat. Hydrogenation
  • (2) \(\mathrm{H_2}\) /Lindlar Cat.
  • (3) Li/\(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{LiAlH_4}\)

Question 74:

The gas liberated by the electrolysis of Dipotassium succinate solution is:

  • (1) Ethane
  • (2) Ethyne
  • (3) Ethene
  • (4) Propene

Question 75:

Which of the following statements about the depletion of ozone layer is correct?

  • (1) The problem of ozone depletion is less serious at poles because \(\mathrm{NO_2}\) solidifies and is not available for consuming \(\mathrm{ClO^\bullet}\) radicals.
  • (2) The problem of ozone depletion is more serious at poles because ice crystals in the clouds over poles act as catalyst for photochemical reactions involving the decomposition of ozone of \(\mathrm{Cl^\bullet}\) and \(\mathrm{ClO^\bullet}\) radicals.
  • (3) Freons, chlorofluorocarbons, are inert. Chemically, they do not react with ozone in stratosphere.
  • (4) Oxides of nitrogen also do not react with ozone in stratosphere.

Question 76:

The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to :

  • (1) Schottky defect
  • (2) Frenkel defect
  • (3) Interstitial position
  • (4) F-centres

Question 77:

In some solutions, the concentration of \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\) remains constant even when small amounts of strong acid or strong base are added to them. These solutions are known as:

  • (1) Ideal solutions
  • (2) Colloidal solutions
  • (3) True solutions
  • (4) Buffer solutions

Question 78:

Given
\(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}(aq)} + e^- \rightarrow \mathrm{Fe^{2+}(aq)};\ E^0 = +0.77\ \mathrm{V}\)
\(\mathrm{Al^{3+}(aq)} + 3e^- \rightarrow \mathrm{Al(s)};\ E^0 = -1.66\ \mathrm{V}\)
\(\mathrm{Br_2(aq)} + 2e^- \rightarrow 2\mathrm{Br^-};\ E^0 = +1.09\ \mathrm{V}\)
Considering the electrode potentials, which of the following represents the correct order of reducing power?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}} \lt \mathrm{Al} \lt \mathrm{Br^-}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Br^-} \lt \mathrm{Fe^{2+}} \lt \mathrm{Al}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Al} \lt \mathrm{Br^-} \lt \mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Al} \lt \mathrm{Fe^{2+}} \lt \mathrm{Br^-}\)

Question 79:

In the reaction of formation of sulphur trioxide by contact process \(2\mathrm{SO_2} + \mathrm{O_2} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{SO_3}\) the rate of reaction was measured as \(\frac{d[\mathrm{O_2}]}{dt} = -2.5\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{mol\,L^{-1}\,s^{-1}}\). The rate of reaction in terms of \([\mathrm{SO_2}]\) in \(\mathrm{mol\,L^{-1}\,s^{-1}}\) will be:

  • (1) \(-1.25\times10^{-4}\)
  • (2) \(-2.50\times10^{-4}\)
  • (3) \(-3.75\times10^{-4}\)
  • (4) \(-5.00\times10^{-4}\)

Question 80:

For the reaction, \(2\mathrm{N_2O_5} \rightarrow 4\mathrm{NO_2} + \mathrm{O_2}\), the rate equation can be expressed in two ways \(-\frac{d[\mathrm{N_2O_5}]}{dt} = k[\mathrm{N_2O_5}]^n\) and \(+\frac{d[\mathrm{NO_2}]}{dt} = k'[\mathrm{N_2O_5}]^n\). \(k\) and \(k'\) are related as:

  • (1) \(k = k'\)
  • (2) \(2k = k'\)
  • (3) \(k = 2k'\)
  • (4) \(k = 4k'\)

Question 81:

Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are stated below. Which one of them is not correctly stated?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{IF_7}\) : pentagonal bipyramid
  • (2) \(\mathrm{BrF_5}\) : trigonal bipyramid
  • (3) \(\mathrm{BrF_3}\) : planar T-shaped
  • (4) \(\mathrm{ICl_3}\) : planar dimeric

Question 82:

Which of the following name formula combinations is not correct?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{K_2[Pt(CN)_4]}\) - Potassium tetracyanoplatinate (II)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{[Mn(CN)_5]^{2-}}\) - Pentacyanomagnate (II) ion
  • (3) \(\mathrm{K[Cr(NH_3)_2Cl_4]}\) - Potassium diammine tetrachlorochromate (III)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)I]SO_4}\) - Magnetron value.

Question 83:

Consider the coordination compound, \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_6}]\mathrm{Cl_3}\). In the formation of this complex, the species which acts as the Lewis acid is:

  • (1) \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_6}]^{3+}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Cl^-}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Co^{3+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)

Question 84:

Chlorobenzene reacts with trichloroacetaldehyde (chloral) in the presence of \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\). The major product formed is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 85:

Tischenko reaction is a modification of :

  • (1) Aldol condensation
  • (2) Claisen condensation
  • (3) Cannizzaro reaction
  • (4) Pinacol-pinacolon reaction

Question 86:

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  • (1) Alcohols are weaker acids than water
  • (2) Acid strength of alcohols decreases in the following \(\mathrm{RCH_2OH > R_2CHOH > R_3COH}\)
  • (3) Carbon-oxygen bond length in methanol, \(\mathrm{CH_3OH}\) is shorter than that of C - O bond length in phenol.
  • (4) The bond angle \(\mathrm{C{-}O{-}H}\) in methanol is \(108.9^\circ\).

Question 87:

The following reaction is known as:

  • (1) Perkin reaction
  • (2) Gatterman-Koch Formylation
  • (3) Kolbe's reaction
  • (4) Gattermann reaction

Question 88:

An organic compound A, \(\mathrm{C_5H_8O}\), reacts with \(\mathrm{H_2O}\), \(\mathrm{NH_3}\) and \(\mathrm{CH_3COOH}\) as described below: A is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 89:

Complete reduction of benzene-diazonium chloride with \(\mathrm{Zn/HCl}\) gives:

  • (1) Aniline
  • (2) Phenylhydrazine
  • (3) Azobenzene
  • (4) Hydrazobenzene

Question 90:

Which one of the following is used as Antihistamine?

  • (1) Omeprazole
  • (2) Chloranphenicol
  • (3) Diphenhydramine
  • (4) Norethindrone

JEE Main 2014 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2014 April 11 Difficulty Level

In terms of difficulty level, B.E/B.Tech was of Moderate to difficult level.

JEE Main 2014 Question Paper Analysis

  • The question paper comprised a total of 90 questions divided among 3 sections i.e, Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Each section consists of 30 questions
  • Physics Paper was moderate to difficult level
  • Chemistry Paper was easy
  • Maths Paper was Lengthy but not tough

For every correct answer, candidates got 4 and for each wrong attempt -1 marks were deducted.