JEE Main 2017 April 8 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) Paper 1 on April 8, 2017, in the morning session from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2017 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2017 April 8 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2017 April 8 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

Let \(f(x) = 2^{10}\cdot x + 1\) and \(g(x) = 3^{10}\cdot x - 1\). If \((f\circ g)(x) = x\), then \(x\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{3^{10}-1}{3^{10}-2^{-10}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2^{10}-1}{2^{10}-3^{-10}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1-3^{-10}}{2^{10}-3^{-10}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1-2^{-10}}{3^{10}-2^{-10}}\)

Question 2:

Let \(p(x)\) be a quadratic polynomial such that \(p(0) = 1\). If \(p(x)\) leaves remainder 4 when divided by \(x - 1\) and it leaves remainder 6 when divided by \(x + 1\); then :

  • (1) \(p(2) = 11\)
  • (2) \(p(2) = 19\)
  • (3) \(p(-2) = 19\)
  • (4) \(p(-2) = 11\)

Question 3:

Let \(z \in C\), the set of complex numbers. Then the equation, \(2 | z + 3i| - | z - i| = 0 \) represents :

  • (1) a circle with radius \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (2) a circle with diameter \(\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (3) an ellipse with length of major axis \(\frac{16}{3}\)
  • (4) an ellipse with length of minor axis \(\frac{16}{9}\)

Question 4:

The number of real values of \(\lambda\) for which the system of linear equations
\(2x + 4y - \lambda z = 0\)
\(4x + \lambda y + 2z = 0\)
\(\lambda x + 2y + 2z = 0\)
has infinitely many solutions, is :

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 5:

Let \(A\) be any \(3 \times 3\) invertible matrix. Then which one of the following is not always true ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{adj}\,(A) = |A|\cdot A^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{adj}\,(\mathrm{adj}(A)) = |A|\cdot A\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{adj}\,(\mathrm{adj}(A)) = |A|^2\cdot(\mathrm{adj}(A))^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{adj}\,(\mathrm{adj}(A)) = |A|\cdot(\mathrm{adj}(A))^{-1}\)

Question 6:

If all the words, with or without meaning, are written using the letters of the word QUEEN and are arranged as in English dictionary, then the position of the word QUEEN is :

  • (1) \(44^{\mathrm{th}}\)
  • (2) \(45^{\mathrm{th}}\)
  • (3) \(46^{\mathrm{th}}\)
  • (4) \(47^{\mathrm{th}}\)

Question 7:

If \((27)^{999}\) is divided by \(7\), then the remainder is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 6

Question 8:

If the arithmetic mean of two numbers \(a\) and \(b\), \(a \gt b \gt 0\), is five times their geometric mean, then \(\frac{a+b}{a-b}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{6}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7\sqrt{3}}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5\sqrt{6}}{12}\)

Question 9:

If the sum of the first \(n\) terms of the series \(\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{75} + \sqrt{243} + \sqrt{507} + \ldots\) is \(435\sqrt{3}\), then \(n\) equals :

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 29

Question 10:

\(\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 3} \frac{\sqrt{3x} - 3}{\sqrt{2x - 4} - \sqrt{2}}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 11:

The tangent at the point \((2, -2)\) to the curve, \(x^2y^2 - 2x = 4(1 - y)\) does not pass through the point :

  • (1) \(\left(4, \frac{1}{3}\right)\)
  • (2) \((8, 5)\)
  • (3) \((-4, -9)\)
  • (4) \((-2, -7)\)

Question 12:

If \(y = \left[x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1}\right]^{15} + \left[x - \sqrt{x^2 - 1}\right]^{15}\), then \((x^2 - 1)\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2} + x\dfrac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(125\,y\)
  • (2) \(224\,y^2\)
  • (3) \(225\,y^2\)
  • (4) \(225\,y\)

Question 13:

If a point \(P\) has co-ordinates \((0, -2)\) and \(Q\) is any point on the circle, \(x^2 + y^2 - 5x - y + 5 = 0\), then the maximum value of \((PQ)^2\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{25 + \sqrt{6}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(14 + 5\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{47 + 10\sqrt{6}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(8 + 5\sqrt{3}\)

Question 14:

The integral \(\int \sqrt{ 1 + 2 \cot \, x (cosec \, x + \cot \, x) } dx \, \left( 0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2} \right)\) is equal to : (where \(C\) is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(4 \log\left(\sin \frac{x}{2}\right) + C \)
  • (2) \(2 \log\left(\sin \frac{x}{2}\right) + C \)
  • (3) \(2 \log\left(\cos\frac{x}{2}\right) + C \)
  • (4) \(4 \log\left(\cos\frac{x}{2}\right) + C \)

Question 15:

The integral \(\displaystyle\int_{\pi/12}^{\pi/4} \frac{8\cos 2x}{(\tan x + \cot x)^3}\,dx\) equals :

  • (1) \(\frac{15}{128}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{64}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{13}{32}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{13}{256}\)

Question 16:

The area (in sq. units) of the smaller portion enclosed between the curves, \(x^2 + y^2 = 4\) and \(y^2 = 3x\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}} + \frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} + \frac{2\pi}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}} + \frac{2\pi}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} + \frac{4\pi}{3}\)

Question 17:

The curve satisfying the differential equation, \(y\,dx - (x + 3y^2)\,dy = 0\) and passing through the point \((1, 1)\), also passes through the point :

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{1}{4}, -\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{3}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{1}{3}, -\frac{1}{3}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}\right)\)

Question 18:

The locus of the point of intersection of the straight lines,
\(tx - 2y - 3t = 0\)
\(x - 2ty + 3 = 0\) \((t \in \mathbf{R})\), is :

  • (1) an ellipse with eccentricity \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (2) an ellipse with the length of major axis \(6\)
  • (3) a hyperbola with eccentricity \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (4) a hyperbola with the length of conjugate axis \(3\)

Question 19:

If two parallel chords of a circle, having diameter 4 units, lie on the opposite sides of the centre and subtend angles \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{7}\right)\) and \(\sec^{-1}(7)\) at the centre respectively, then the distance between these chords, is :

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{7}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{16}{7}\)

Question 20:

If the common tangents to the parabola, \(x^2 = 4y\) and the circle, \(x^2 + y^2 = 4\) intersect at the point P, then the distance of P from the origin, is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2} + 1\)
  • (2) \(2(3 + 2\sqrt{2})\)
  • (3) \(2(\sqrt{2} + 1)\)
  • (4) \(3 + 2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 21:

Consider an ellipse, whose centre is at the origin and its major axis is along the x-axis. If its eccentricity is \(\frac{3}{5}\) and the distance between its foci is 6, then the area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral inscribed in the ellipse, with the vertices as the vertices of the ellipse, is :

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 80
  • (4) 40

Question 22:

The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular from the point \((1, -2, 1)\) on the plane containing the lines, \(\frac{x+1}{6} = \frac{y-1}{7} = \frac{z-3}{8}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{3} = \frac{y-2}{5} = \frac{z-3}{7}\), is :

  • (1) \((2, -4, 2)\)
  • (2) \((-1, 2, -1)\)
  • (3) \((0, 0, 0)\)
  • (4) \((1, 1, 1)\)

Question 23:

The line of intersection of the planes \(\vec{r} \cdot (3\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}) = 1\) and \(\vec{r} \cdot (\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}) = 2\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{x - \frac{4}{7}}{-2} = \frac{y}{7} = \frac{z - \frac{5}{7}}{13}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x - \frac{4}{7}}{2} = \frac{y}{-7} = \frac{z + \frac{5}{7}}{13}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x - \frac{6}{13}}{2} = \frac{y - \frac{5}{13}}{-7} = \frac{z}{-13}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x - \frac{6}{13}}{2} = \frac{y - \frac{5}{13}}{7} = \frac{z}{-13}\)

Question 24:

The area (in sq. units) of the parallelogram whose diagonals are along the vectors \(8\hat{i} - 6\hat{j}\) and \(3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 12\hat{k}\), is :

  • (1) 26
  • (2) 65
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 52

Question 25:

The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher retires at the age of 60 years and a new teacher is appointed in his place. If now the mean age of the teachers in this school is 39 years, then the age (in years) of the newly appointed teacher is :

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 35
  • (4) 40

Question 26:

Three persons P, Q and R independently try to hit a target. If the probabilities of their hitting the target are \(\frac{3}{4}\), \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{5}{8}\) respectively, then the probability that the target is hit by P or Q but not by R is :

  • (1) \(\frac{21}{64}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{9}{64}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{15}{64}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{39}{64}\)

Question 27:

An unbiased coin is tossed eight times. The probability of obtaining at least one head and at least one tail is :

  • (1) \(\frac{255}{256}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{127}{128}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{63}{64}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 28:

If
\(S = \left\{x \in [0, 2\pi] : \begin{vmatrix} 0 \& \cos x \& -\sin x \\ \sin x \& 0 \& \cos x \\ \cos x \& \sin x \& 0 \end{vmatrix} = 0\right\}\),
then \(\sum_{x \in S} \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{3} + x\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(4 + 2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(-2 + \sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(-2 - \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(-4 - 2\sqrt{3}\)

Question 29:

The value of \(\tan^{-1} \left[\frac{\sqrt{1+x^{2}} + \sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}} - \sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\right] , \left|x\right| < \frac{1}{2}, x \ne0, \) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2} \cos^{-1} x^{2} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{4} + \cos^{-1} x^{2} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2} \cos^{-1} x^{2} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{4} - \cos^{-1} x^{2} \)

Question 30:

The proposition \((\sim p) \vee (p \wedge \sim q)\) is equivalent to :

  • (1) \(p \vee \sim q\)
  • (2) \(p \rightarrow \sim q\)
  • (3) \(p \wedge \sim q\)
  • (4) \(q \rightarrow p\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

Time (T), velocity (C) and angular momentum (h) are chosen as fundamental quantities instead of mass, length and time. In terms of these, the dimensions of mass would be :

  • (1) \([M] = [T^{-1} C^{-2} h]\)
  • (2) \([M] = [T^{-1} C^{2} h]\)
  • (3) \([M] = [T^{-1} C^{-2} h^{-1}]\)
  • (4) \([M] = [T C^{-2} h]\)

Question 32:

Which graph corresponds to an object moving with a constant negative acceleration and a positive velocity ?

  • (1) velocity-time graph
  • (2) velocity-time graph
  • (3) velocity-time graph
  • (4) velocity-time graph

Question 33:

A 1 kg block attached to a spring vibrates with a frequency of 1 Hz on a frictionless horizontal table. Two springs identical to the original spring are attached in parallel to an 8 kg block placed on the same table. So, the frequency of vibration of the 8 kg block is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\) Hz
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\) Hz
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\) Hz
  • (4) 2 Hz

Question 34:

An object is dropped from a height \(h\) from the ground. Every time it hits the ground it looses \(50\%\) of its kinetic energy. The total distance covered as \(t\to\infty\) is :

  • (1) \(2h\)
  • (2) \(\infty\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{3}h\)
  • (4) \(\frac{8}{3}h\)

Question 35:

A uniform disc of radius R and mass M is free to rotate only about its axis. A string is wrapped over its rim and a body of mass m is tied to the free end of the string as shown in the figure. The body is released from rest. Then the acceleration of the body is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2 mg}{ 2 m + M }\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2 Mg}{ 2 m + M }\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2 mg}{ 2 M + m }\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2 Mg}{ 2 M + m }\)

Question 36:

Moment of inertia of an equilateral triangular lamina \(ABC\), about the axis passing through its centre \(O\) and perpendicular to its plane is \(I_o\) as shown in the figure. A cavity \(DEF\) is cut out from the lamina, where \(D, E, F\) are the mid points of the sides. Moment of inertia of the remaining part of lamina about the same axis is :

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{8} I_o\)
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{16} I_o\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3I_o}{4} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{3 1I_o}{32} \)

Question 37:

If the Earth has no rotational motion, the weight of a person on the equator is \(W\). Determine the speed with which the earth would have to rotate about its axis so that the person at the equator will weigh \(\frac{3}{4}W\). Radius of the Earth is \(6400\ \mathrm{km}\) and \(g = 10\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\).

  • (1) \(1.1\times10^{-3}\ \mathrm{rad/s}\)
  • (2) \(0.83\times10^{-3}\ \mathrm{rad/s}\)
  • (3) \(0.63\times10^{-3}\ \mathrm{rad/s}\)
  • (4) \(0.28\times10^{-3}\ \mathrm{rad/s}\)

Question 38:

In an experiment a sphere of aluminium of mass 0.20 kg is heated upto \(150^{\circ}C\). Immediately, it is put into water of volume 150 cc at \(27^{\circ}C\) kept in a calorimeter of water equivalent to 0.025 kg. Final temperature of the system is \(40^{\circ}C\). The specific heat of aluminium is : (take 4.2 Joule=1 calorie)

  • (1) \(378 \, J/kg - {^{\circ}C}\)
  • (2) \(315 \, J/kg - {^{\circ}C}\)
  • (3) \(476 \, J/kg - {^{\circ}C}\)
  • (4) \(434 \, J/kg - {^{\circ}C}\)

Question 39:

A compressive force, F is applied at the two ends of a long thin steel rod. It is heated, simultaneously, such that its temperature increases by ΔT. The net change in its length is zero. Let L be the length of the rod, A is its area of cross-section. Y is Young’s modulus, and α is its coefficient of linear expansion. Then, F is equal to

  • (1) (A) L2YaΔT
  • (2) (B) AYaΔT
  • (3) (C) AYaΔT
  • (4) (D) LAYaΔT

Question 40:

An engine operates by taking \(n\) moles of an ideal gas through the cycle \(ABCDA\) shown in figure. The thermal efficiency of the engine is : (Take \(C_v = 1.5 \, R,\) where \(R\) is gas constant)

  • (1) 0.24
  • (2) 0.15
  • (3) 0.32
  • (4) 0.08

Question 41:

An ideal gas has molecules with 5 degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure \((C_p)\) and at constant volume \((C_v)\) is :

  • (1) \(6\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{5}\)

Question 42:

The ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum velocity in a simple harmonic motion is \(10\ \mathrm{s^{-1}}\). At \(t=0\) the displacement is \(5\ \mathrm{m}\). What is the maximum acceleration ? The initial phase is \(\frac{\pi}{4}\).

  • (1) \(500\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\)
  • (2) \(500\sqrt2\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\)
  • (3) \(750\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\)
  • (4) \(750\sqrt2\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\)

Question 43:

Two wires \(W_1\) and \(W_2\) have the same radius \(r\) and respective densities \(\rho_1\) and \(\rho_2\) such that \(\rho_2=4\rho_1\). They are joined together at the point O, as shown in the figure. The combination is used as a sonometer wire and kept under tension \(T\). The point O is midway between the two bridges. When a stationary wave is set up in the composite wire, the joint is found to be a node. The ratio of the number of antinodes formed in \(W_1\) to \(W_2\) is :

  • (1) \(1:1\)
  • (2) \(1:2\)
  • (3) \(1:3\)
  • (4) \(4:1\)

Question 44:

There is a uniform electrostatic field in a region. The potential at various points on a small sphere centred at \(P\), in the region, is found to vary between the limits \(589.0\, V\) to \(589.8\, V\). What is the potential at a point on the sphere whose radius vector makes an angle of \(60^{\circ}\) with the direction of the field ?

  • (1) 589.5 V
  • (2) 589.2 V
  • (3) 589.4 V
  • (4) 589.6 V

Question 45:

The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is \(4.5\, J\). If the sphere contains \( 4 \, \mu C\) charge, its radius will be : [Take : \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o } = 9 \times 10^{9} \, N - m^2 / C^2\) ]

  • (1) 20 mm
  • (2) 32 mm
  • (3) 28 mm
  • (4) 16 mm

Question 46:

What is the conductivity of a semiconductor sample having electron concentration of \(5 \times 10^{18} \, m^{-3}\), hole concentration of \(5 \times 10^{19} \, m^{-3} \) , electron mobility of \(2.0 \, m^2 \, V^{-1} \, s^{-1}\) and hole mobility of \(0.01 \, m^2 \, V^{-1} \, s^{-1}\) ? (Take charge of electron as \(1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\))

  • (1) \(1.68 (\Omega - m)^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(1.83 (\Omega - m)^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(0.59 (\Omega - m)^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(1.20 (\Omega - m)^{-1}\)

Question 47:


A \(9\ \mathrm{V}\) battery with internal resistance of \(0.5\ \Omega\) is connected across an infinite network as shown in the figure. All ammeters \(A_1, A_2, A_3\) and voltmeter \(V\) are ideal.
Choose correct statement.

  • (1) Reading of \(A_1\) is \(2\ \mathrm{A}\)
  • (2) Reading of \(A_1\) is \(18\ \mathrm{A}\)
  • (3) Reading of \(V\) is \(9\ \mathrm{V}\)
  • (4) Reading of \(V\) is \(7\ \mathrm{V}\)

Question 48:

In a certain region static electric and magnetic fields exist. The magnetic field is given by \(\vec B=B_0\left(\hat i+2\hat j-4\hat k\right)\). If a test charge moving with a velocity \(\vec v=v_0\left(3\hat i-\hat j+2\hat k\right)\) experiences no force in that region, then the electric field in the region, in SI units, is :

  • (1) \(\vec E=-v_0B_0\left(3\hat i-2\hat j-4\hat k\right)\)
  • (2) \(\vec E=-v_0B_0\left(\hat i+\hat j+7\hat k\right)\)
  • (3) \(\vec E=v_0B_0\left(14\hat j+7\hat k\right)\)
  • (4) \(\vec E=-v_0B_0\left(14\hat j+7\hat k\right)\)

Question 49:

A magnetic dipole in a constant magnetic field has :

  • (1) maximum potential energy when the torque is maximum.
  • (2) zero potential energy when the torque is minimum.
  • (3) zero potential energy when the torque is maximum.
  • (4) minimum potential energy when the torque is maximum.

Question 50:

A small circular loop of wire of radius \(a\) is located at the centre of a much larger circular wire loop of radius \(b\). The two loops are in the same plane. The outer loop of radius \(b\) carries an alternating current \(I=I_o\cos(\omega t)\). The emf induced in the smaller inner loop is nearly :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi\mu_oI_o}{2}\cdot\frac{a^2}{b}\,\omega\sin(\omega t)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi\mu_oI_o}{2}\cdot\frac{a^2}{b}\,\omega\cos(\omega t)\)
  • (3) \(\pi\mu_oI_o\frac{a^2}{b}\,\omega\sin(\omega t)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi\mu_oI_o\,b^2}{a}\,\omega\cos(\omega t)\)

Question 51:

Magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by \(\vec B=B_0\sin(kx+\omega t)\,\hat j\ \mathrm{T}\). Expression for corresponding electric field will be : Where \(c\) is speed of light.

  • (1) \(\vec E=B_0c\sin(kx+\omega t)\,\hat k\ \mathrm{V/m}\)
  • (2) \(\vec E=\frac{B_0}{c}\sin(kx+\omega t)\,\hat k\ \mathrm{V/m}\)
  • (3) \(\vec E=-B_0c\sin(kx+\omega t)\,\hat k\ \mathrm{V/m}\)
  • (4) \(\vec E=B_0c\sin(kx-\omega t)\,\hat k\ \mathrm{V/m}\)

Question 52:

Let the refractive index of a denser medium with respect to a rarer medium be \(n_{12}\) and its critical angle be \(\theta_C\). At an angle of incidence \(A\) when light is travelling from denser medium to rarer medium, a part of the light is reflected and the rest is refracted and the angle between reflected and refracted rays is \(90^\circ\). Angle \(A\) is given by :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{\cos^{-1}(\sin\theta_C)}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\tan^{-1}(\sin\theta_C)}\)
  • (3) \(\cos^{-1}(\sin\theta_C)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1}(\sin\theta_C)\)

Question 53:

A single slit of width b is illuminated by a coherent monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\). If the second and fourth minima in the diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the slit are at 3 cm and 6 cm respectively from the central maximum, what is the width of the central maximum ? (i.e. distance between first minimum on either side of the central maximum)

  • (1) 1.5 cm
  • (2) 3.0 cm
  • (3) 4.5 cm
  • (4) 6.0 cm

Question 54:

The maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted from the surface is v when light of frequency n falls on a metal surface. If the incident frequency is increased to 3n, the maximum velocity of the ejected photoelectrons will be :

  • (1) less than \(\sqrt{3}\) v
  • (2) v
  • (3) more than \(\sqrt{3}\) v
  • (4) equal to \(\sqrt{3}\) v

Question 55:

According to Bohr's theory, the time averaged magnetic field at the centre (i.e. nucleus) of a hydrogen atom due to the motion of electrons in the nth orbit is proportional to : (n = principal quantum number)

  • (1) \(n^{-4}\)
  • (2) \(n^{-5}\)
  • (3) \(n^{-3}\)
  • (4) \(n^{-2}\)

Question 56:

Two deuterons undergo nuclear fusion to form a Helium nucleus. Energy released in this process is : (given binding energy per nucleon for deuteron = 1.1 MeV and for helium = 7.0 MeV)

  • (1) 30.2 MeV
  • (2) 32.4 MeV
  • (3) 23.6 MeV
  • (4) 25.8 MeV

Question 57:

The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is :

  • (1) 10
  • (2) \(10^{-6}\)
  • (3) \(10^{6}\)
  • (4) 100

Question 58:

A signal of frequency 20 kHz and peak voltage of 5 Volt is used to modulate a carrier wave of frequency 1.2 MHz and peak voltage 25 Volts. Choose the correct statement.

  • (1) Modulation index = 5, side frequency bands are at 1400 kHz and 1000 kHz
  • (2) Modulation index = 5, side frequency bands are at 21.2 kHz and 18.8 kHz
  • (3) Modulation index = 0.8, side frequency bands are at 1180 kHz and 1220 kHz
  • (4) Modulation index = 0.2, side frequency bands are at 1220 kHz and 1180 kHz

Question 59:

In a physical balance working on the principle of moments, when \(5\,mg\) weight is placed on the left pan, the beam becomes horizontal. Both the empty pans of the balance are of equal mass. Which of the following statements is correct ?

  • (1) Left arm is longer than the right arm
  • (2) Both the arms are of same length
  • (3) Left arm is shorter than the right arm
  • (4) Every object that is weighed using this balance appears lighter than its actual weight.

Question 60:

A potentiometer PQ is set up to compare two resistances as shown in the figure. The ammeter A in the circuit reads 1.0 A when two way key K3 is open. The balance point is at a length \(l_1\) cm from P when two way key K3 is plugged in between 2 and 1, while the balance point is at a length \(l_2\) cm from P when key K3 is plugged in between 3 and 1. The ratio of two resistances \(\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}\), is found to be :

  • (1) \(\dfrac{l_1}{l_1 + l_2}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{l_2}{l_2 - l_1}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{l_1}{l_1 - l_2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{l_1}{l_2 - l_1}\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Among the following, correct statement is :

  • (1) Brownian movement is more pronounced for smaller particles than for bigger-particles.
  • (2) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic.
  • (3) Hardy Schulze law states that bigger the size of the ions, the greater is its coagulating power.
  • (4) One would expect charcoal to adsorb chlorine more than hydrogen sulphide.

Question 62:

Excess of \(NaOH_{(aq)}\) was added to \(100\, mL\) of \({ FeCl_3}\) (aq) resulting into \(2.14\, g\) of \({Fe(OH)_3}\). The molarity of \({FeCl_3}\) (aq) is : (Given molar mass of \({Fe = 56 \, g \, mol^{-1}}\) and molar mass of \({Cl = 35.5 \, g \, mol^{-1}}\))

  • (1) \(0.2\, M\)
  • (2) \(0.3\, M\)
  • (3) \(0.6\, M\)
  • (4) \(1.8\, M\)

Question 63:

Among the following, the incorrect statement is :

  • (1) At low pressure, real gases show ideal behaviour.
  • (2) At very low temperature, real gases show ideal behaviour.
  • (3) At very large volume, real gases show ideal behaviour.
  • (4) At Boyle's temperature, real gases show ideal behaviour.

Question 64:

For a reaction, \( {A_(g) \to A_(l); \Delta H = - 3RT}\). The correct statement for the reaction is :

  • (1) \(\Delta H = \Delta U \neq O \)
  • (2) \(\Delta H = \Delta U = O \)
  • (3) \( | \Delta H| < | \Delta U|\)
  • (4) \( | \Delta H| > | \Delta U|\)

Question 65:

What is the standard reduction potential \((E^{\circ}) \) for \({Fe^{3+} \to Fe}\) ? Given that : \({Fe^{2+} + 2e^{-} -> Fe ; E^{\circ}_{Fe^{2+} / Fe} = - 0.47 V }\) \({Fe^{3+} + e^{-} -> Fe^{2+} ; E^{\circ}_{Fe^{3+} / Fe^{2+}} = + 0.77 V }\)

  • (1) \(-0.057\, V\)
  • (2) \(+0.057\, V\)
  • (3) \(+0.30\, V\)
  • (4) \(-0.30\, V\)

Question 66:

If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen atom is \(A\), then the longest wavelength in Paschen series of \(He^{+}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{5A}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{9A}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{36A}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{36A}{7}\)

Question 67:

5 g of \(\mathrm{Na_2SO_4}\) was dissolved in x g of \(\mathrm{H_2O}\). The change in freezing point was found to be 3.82\(^\circ\)C. If \(\mathrm{Na_2SO_4}\) is 81.5% ionised, the value of x (\(K_f\) for water = 1.86\(^\circ\)C kg mol-1) is approximately :
(molar mass of S = 32 g mol-1 and that of Na = 23 g mol-1)

  • (1) 15 g
  • (2) 25 g
  • (3) 45 g
  • (4) 65 g

Question 68:

Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid (HA) results in a buffer of pH 6. If ionisation constant of HA is \(10^{-5}\), the ratio of salt to acid concentration in the buffer solution will be :

  • (1) 4:05
  • (2) 1:10
  • (3) 10:01
  • (4) 5:04

Question 69:

The rate of a reaction A doubles on increasing the temperature from 300 to 310 K. By how much, the temperature of reaction B should be increased from 300 K so that rate doubles if activation energy of the reaction B is twice to that of reaction A.

  • (1) 9.84 K
  • (2) 4.92 K
  • (3) 2.45 K
  • (4) 19.67 K

Question 70:

The enthalpy change on freezing of 1 mol of water at 5\(^\circ\)C to ice at \(-5^\circ\)C is :
(Given \(\Delta_{fus}H = 6\) kJ mol-1 at 0\(^\circ\)C, \(C_p(\mathrm{H_2O}, l) = 75.3\) J mol-1 K-1, \(C_p(\mathrm{H_2O}, s) = 36.8\) J mol-1 K-1)

  • (1) 5.44 kJ mol-1
  • (2) 5.81 kJ mol-1
  • (3) 6.56 kJ mol-1
  • (4) 6.00 kJ mol-1

Question 71:

Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{NO^+}\)
  • (2) CO
  • (3) \(\mathrm{O_2^{2-}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{B_2}\)

Question 72:

The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{MnO_2}\) and \(\mathrm{CrO_2Cl_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{[NiCl_4]^{2-}}\) and \(\mathrm{[CoCl_4]^{2-}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{[Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}}\) and \(\mathrm{[Cu(CN)_4]^{2-}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{[FeCl_4]^-}\) and \(\mathrm{Co_2O_3}\)

Question 73:

\(sp^3d^2\) hybridization is not displayed by :

  • (1) \({BrF5}\)
  • (2) \({SF6}\)
  • (3) \({[CrF6]^{3-}}\)
  • (4) \({PF_5}\)

Question 74:

Identify the pollutant gases largely responsible for the discoloured and lustreless nature of marble of the Taj Mahal.

  • (1) \(\mathrm{O_3}\) and \(\mathrm{CO_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CO_2}\) and \(\mathrm{NO_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{SO_2}\) and \(\mathrm{NO_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{SO_2}\) and \(\mathrm{O_3}\)

Question 75:

In which of the following reactions, hydrogen peroxide acts as an oxidizing agent ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{HOCl + H_2O_2 \rightarrow H_3O^+ + Cl^- + O_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{I_2 + H_2O_2 + 2OH^- \rightarrow 2I^- + 2H_2O + O_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{2MnO_4^- + 3H_2O_2 \rightarrow 2MnO_2 + 3O_2 + 2H_2O + 2OH^-}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{PbS + 4H_2O_2 \rightarrow PbSO_4 + 4H_2O}\)

Question 76: Consider the following ionization enthalpies of two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’.
ElementIonization enthalpy (kJ/mol)
1st2nd3rd
A899175714847
B73714507731
Which of the following statements is correct ?
  • (1) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-1 where ‘B’ comes below ‘A’.
  • (2) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-1 where ‘A’ comes below ‘B’.
  • (3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-2 where ‘B’ comes below ‘A’.
  • (4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-2 where ‘A’ comes below ‘B’.

Question 77: Consider the following standard electrode potentials (E° in volts) in aqueous solution :
ElementM3+ / MM+ / M
Al−1.66+0.55
Tl+1.26−0.34
Based on these data, which of the following statements is correct ?
  • (1) \(\mathrm{Tl^+}\) is more stable than \(\mathrm{Al^{3+}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Al^+}\) is more stable than \(\mathrm{Al^{3+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Tl^+}\) is more stable than \(\mathrm{Al^+}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Tl^{3+}}\) is more stable than \(\mathrm{Al^{3+}}\)

Question 78:

A metal ‘M’ reacts with nitrogen gas to afford ‘M3N’. ‘M3N’ on heating at high temperature gives back ‘M’ and on reaction with water produces a gas ‘B’. Gas ‘B’ reacts with aqueous solution of \(\mathrm{CuSO_4}\) to form a deep blue compound. ‘M’ and ‘B’ respectively are :

  • (1) Li and \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (2) Ba and \(\mathrm{N_2}\)
  • (3) Na and \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (4) Al and \(\mathrm{N_2}\)

Question 79:

The number of \(S=O\) and \(S-OH\) bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid respectively are :

  • (1) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2)
  • (2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
  • (3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)
  • (4) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)

Question 80:

A solution containing a group-IV cation gives a precipitate on passing \(\mathrm{H_2S}\). A solution of this precipitate in dil.HCl produces a white precipitate with NaOH solution and bluish-white precipitate with basic potassium ferrocyanide. The cation is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{Co^{2+}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Ni^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Mn^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Zn^{2+}}\)

Question 81:

A mixture containing the following four compounds is extracted with 1M HCl. The compound that goes to aqueous layer is :

  • (1) (I)
  • (2) (II)
  • (3) (III)
  • (4) (IV)

Question 82:

The reason for “drug induced poisoning” is :

  • (1) Binding reversibly at the active site of the enzyme
  • (2) Bringing conformational change in the binding site of enzyme
  • (3) Binding irreversibly to the active site of the enzyme
  • (4) Binding at the allosteric sites of the enzyme

Question 83:

Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedel Craft’s reaction with benzene ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 84:

Among the following, the essential amino acid is :

  • (1) Alanine
  • (2) Valine
  • (3) Aspartic acid
  • (4) Serine

Question 85:

The major product expected from the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 86:

The major product of the following reaction is :
\(\mathrm{CH_3\underset{Br}{CH}CH_2\underset{Br}{CH}CH_2CH_3} \xrightarrow[\text{heat}]{\mathrm{KOH,\ CH_3OH}}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_2{=}CHCH_2CH{=}CHCH_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_2{=}CHCH{=}CHCH_2CH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH{=}C{=}CHCH_2CH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_3CH{=}CH{-}CH{=}CHCH_3}\)

Question 87:

Which of the following statements is not true about partition chromatography ?

  • (1) Mobile phase can be a gas
  • (2) Stationary phase is a finely divided solid adsorbent
  • (3) Separation depends upon equilibration of solute between a mobile and a stationary phase
  • (4) Paper chromatography is an example of partition chromatography

Question 88:

The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

  • (1) 1, 1-Dimethyl-2-ethylcyclohexane
  • (2) 2-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
  • (3) 1-Ethyl-2,2-dimethylcyclohexane
  • (4) 2, 2-Dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane

Question 89:

The major product of the following reaction is :
\(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_2-\underset{Br}{\overset{CH_3}{C}}-CH_2-CH_3}\) \(\xrightarrow[\mathrm{C_2H_5OH}]{\mathrm{C_2H_5ONa}}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_2-\underset{OC_2H_5}{\overset{CH_3}{C}}-CH_2CH_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH=\underset{CH_3}{C}-CH_2CH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_2-\underset{CH_3}{C}=CHCH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{C_6H_5CH_2-\underset{CH_2CH_3}{C}=CH_2}\)

Question 90:

The major product of the following reaction is :

1. K2CO3
2. CH3I (1 eq.)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

JEE Main 2017 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2017 April 8 Difficulty Level

In terms of difficulty level, B.E/B.Tech was of moderate to difficult level.

JEE Main 2017 Question Paper Analysis

  • The question paper comprised a total of 90 questions divided among 3 sections i.e, Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Each section consists of 30 questions
  • Physics Paper the questions were more calculative and formula based than theoretical. In terms of difficulty, the paper was moderate for students having good conceptual knowledge along with its applications.
  • Chemistry Paper had more theoretical questions than calculative, making it the quickest subject to solve
  • Maths Paper had Lengthy and application based questions several students rated as the most difficult section.

For every correct answer, candidates got 4 and for each wrong attempt -1 marks were deducted.