JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1 Answer Key PDF is out. Candidates can use the link provided by Collegedunia here to download NTA JEE Main 2023 Answer Key for April 15 Shift 1 exam. JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1 answer key PDF mentioned below are links to the official answer key solution PDF released by NTA.

JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1 Answer Key PDF Download

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Apr 15 Shift 1- Download PDF

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Question 1:

Let \( S \) be the set of all values of \( \lambda \), for which the shortest distance between the lines \[ \frac{x - 0}{1} = \frac{y - 4}{3} = \frac{z + \lambda}{6} \quad and \quad \frac{x - 3}{1} = \frac{y + \lambda}{-4} = \frac{z}{0} \]
is 13. Then, \( \sum \lambda \in S \) is equal to:

  • (1) 302
  • (2) 306
  • (3) 304
  • (4) 308
Correct Answer: (2) 306
View Solution

Question 2:

Let \( S \) be the set of all \( (\lambda, \mu) \) for which the vectors \( \lambda \hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \, \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k} \) and \( 3\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \), where \( \lambda - \mu = 5 \), are coplanar, then \[ \sum_{(\lambda, \mu) \in S} 80(\lambda^2 + \mu^2) \]
is equal to:

  • (1) 2130
  • (2) 2210
  • (3) 2290
  • (4) 2370
Correct Answer: (3) 2290
View Solution

Question 3:

Let the foot of perpendicular of the point \( P(3, -2, -9) \) on the plane passing through the points \( (1, -2, -3), (9, 3, 4), (9, -2, 1) \) be \( Q(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \). Then the distance of \( Q \) from the origin is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{29} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{38} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{42} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{35} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \sqrt{42} \)
View Solution

Question 4:

If the set \( \left\{ Re \left( \frac{z - \bar{z} + z^2}{2 - 3z + 5z^2} \right): z \in \mathbb{C}, Re(z) = 3 \right\} \) is equal to the interval \( (\alpha, \beta) \), then \( 24(\beta - \alpha) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 42
Correct Answer: (3) 30
View Solution

Question 5:

Let \( x = y \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ 2(y + 2) \log(y + 2) \, dx + (x + 4) - 2 \log(x + 2) \, dy = 0, \quad with \quad x(1) = -2. \]
Then, \( x'(-2) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{9} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{32}{9} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10}{3} \)
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{32}{9} \)
View Solution

Question 6:

If \[ \int_{0}^{2} \frac{1}{(5 + 2x - 2x^2) \left( 1 + \left( e^{2 - 4x} \right) \right)} \, dx = \frac{1}{\alpha} \log \left( \frac{\alpha + 1}{\beta} \right), \quad \alpha, \beta > 0, \]
then \( \alpha^4 - \beta^4 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 19
  • (2) -21
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (3) 21 \textbf{Solution:}
We are given the integral: \[ I = \int_0^2 \frac{dx}{(5 + 2x - 2x^2) \left( 1 + e^{2 - 4x} \right)} \quad \dots (i) \] Let \( x = 1 - t \), then: \[ dx = -dt \] Substituting into the equation: \[ I = \int_0^2 \frac{e^{2 - 4x} \, dx}{(5 + 2x - 2x^2) \left( 1 + e^{2 - 4x} \right)} \quad \dots (ii) \] Now, adding equations (i) and (ii), we get: \[ 2I = \int_0^2 \frac{dx}{(5 + 2x - 2x^2) \left( 1 + e^{2 - 4x} \right)} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1}}. \] Thus, we have: \[ I = \frac{32}{9}. \] Therefore, the correct value of \( \alpha^4 - \beta^4 \) is: \[ \alpha^4 - \beta^4 = 21. \] \textbf{Answer:} \( \boxed{21} \).
View Solution

Question 7:

The number of common tangents, to the circles \( x^2 + y^2 - 18x - 15y + 131 = 0 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 6y - 7 = 0 \), is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (3) 3
View Solution

Question 8:

Let ABCD be a quadrilateral. If E and F are the midpoints of the diagonals AC and BD respectively and \[ (AB - BC) + (AD - DC) = k \, FE \quad then \quad k \, is equal to: \]

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) -2
  • (4) -4
Correct Answer: (4) -4
View Solution

Question 9:

Let \( (a + bx + cx^2)^{10} = \sum_{i=0}^{20} P_i x^i \), where \( a, b, c \in \mathbb{N} \). If \( p_1 = 20 \) and \( p_2 = 210 \), then \( 2(a + b + c) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (2) 12
View Solution

Question 10:

Let \( [x] \) denote the greatest integer function and \( f(x) = \max \{ 1 + x + [x], 2 + x, x + 2[x] \} \), where \( 0 \leq x \leq 2 \). Let \( m \) be the number of points in \([0, 2]\), where \( f \) is not continuous and \( n \) be the number of points in \( (0, 2) \), where \( f \) is differentiable. Then \( (m + n)^2 + 2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 11
Correct Answer: (3) 3
View Solution

Question 11:

A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. A die is rolled once and the number of balls equal to the number obtained on the die are drawn from the bag at random. The probability that all the balls drawn are white is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{9}{50} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11}{50} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

If the domain of the function \[ f(x) = \log_e \left( 4x^2 + 11x + 6 \right) + \sin^{-1} \left( 4x + 3 \right) + \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{10x + 6}{3} \right), \]
then \( 36|\alpha + \beta| \) is equal to:

  • (1) 72
  • (2) 63
  • (3) 45
  • (4) 54
Correct Answer: (3) 45
View Solution

Question 13:

Let the determinant of a square matrix A of order \( m \) be \( m - n \), where \( m \) and \( n \) satisfy \( 4m + n = 22 \) and \( 17m + 4n = 93 \). If \( det (n \, adj(adj(mA))) = 3^a 5^b 6^c \), then \( a + b + c \) is equal to:

  • (1) 101
  • (2) 84
  • (3) 109
  • (4) 96
Correct Answer: (4) 96
View Solution

Question 14:

The mean and standard deviation of 10 observations are 20 and 8 respectively. Later on, it was observed that one observation was recorded as 50 instead of 40. Then the correct variance is:

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 13
Correct Answer: (4) 13
View Solution

Question 15:

If \( (\alpha, \beta) \) is the orthocenter of the triangle ABC with vertices \( A(3, -7), B(-1, 2), C(4, 5) \), then \( 9\alpha - 6\beta + 60 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 35
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 25
Correct Answer: (4) 25
View Solution

Question 16:

The number of real roots of the equation \[ x |x| - 5 |x + 2| + 6 = 0, \]
is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (4) 3
View Solution

Question 17:

Let the system of linear equations \[ -x + 2y - 9z = 7
-x + 3y + 7z = 9
-2x + y + 5z = 8
-3x + y + 13z = \lambda \]
has a unique solution \( x = \alpha, y = \beta, z = \gamma \). Then the distance of the point \( (\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) from the plane \( 2x - 2y + z = \lambda \) is:

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 11
Correct Answer: (1) 7
View Solution

Question 18:

Let \( A_1 \) and \( A_2 \) be two arithmetic means and \( G_1, G_2, G_3 \) be three geometric means of two distinct positive numbers. Then \[ G_1^4 + G_2^4 + G_3^4 + G_1^2 G_3^2 is equal to: \]

  • (1) \( 2(A_1 + A_2) G_1 G_3 \)
  • (2) \( (A_1 + A_2)^2 G_1 G_3 \)
  • (3) \( 2(A_1 + A_2)^2 G_1^2 G_3^2 \)
  • (4) \( (A_1 + A_2) G_1^2 G_2^2 G_3^2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( (A_1 + A_2)^2 G_1 G_3 \)
View Solution

Question 19:

Negation of \( p \land (q \land \neg (p \land q)) \) is:

  • (1) \( \neg (p \land q) \land q \)
  • (2) \( \neg (p \lor q) \)
  • (3) \( p \lor q \)
  • (4) \( (\neg (p \land q)) \lor p \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( (\neg (p \land q)) \lor p \)
View Solution




We are given the expression \( p \land (q \land \neg (p \land q)) \), and we need to find its negation.

Step 1: Apply De Morgan’s Law to \( \neg (p \land (q \land \neg (p \land q))) \). \[ \neg [ p \land (q \land \neg (p \land q)) ] = \neg p \lor \neg (q \land \neg (p \land q)). \]

Step 2: Simplify \( \neg (q \land \neg (p \land q)) \). \[ \neg (q \land \neg (p \land q)) = \neg q \lor \neg \neg (p \land q) = \neg q \lor (p \land q). \]

Thus, the final negation is: \[ \neg p \lor (\neg q \lor (p \land q)) = (\neg (p \land q)) \lor p. \]

Hence, the correct answer is \( (\neg (p \land q)) \lor p \).

\begin{quicktipbox
Use De Morgan's laws to simplify negations in logical expressions. This helps convert complex expressions into simpler forms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use De Morgan's laws to simplify negations in logical expressions. This helps convert complex expressions into simpler forms.


Question 20:

The total number of three-digit numbers, divisible by 3, which can be formed using the digits 1, 3, 5, 8, if repetition of digits is allowed, is:

  • (1) 21
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 22
Correct Answer: (4) 22
View Solution

Question 21:

Let \( A = \{ 1, 2, 3, 4 \} \) and \( R \) be a relation on the set \( A \times A \) defined by \[ R = \{(a, b), (c, d): 2a + 3b = 4c + 5d \}. \]
Then the number of elements in \( R \) is:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 22:

The number of elements in the set \( \{ n \in \mathbb{N}: 10 \leq n \leq 100 and 3n^3 - 3 is a multiple of 7 \} \) is:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 23:

Let an ellipse with center \( (1, 0) \) and latus rectum of length \( \frac{1}{2} \) have its major axis along the x-axis. If its minor axis subtends an angle of \( 60^\circ \) at the foci, then the square of the sum of the lengths of its minor and major axes is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 24:

If the area bounded by the curve \( 2y^2 = 3x \), lines \( x + y = 3 \), \( y = 0 \), and outside the circle \( (x - 3)^2 + y^2 = 2 \) is \( A \), then \( 4(\pi + 4A) \) is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 25:

Consider the triangles with vertices \( A(2,1) \), \( B(0,0) \) and \( C(t,4) \), \( t \in [0,4] \). If the maximum and the minimum perimeters of such triangles are obtained at \( t = \alpha \) and \( t = \beta \) respectively, then \( 6\alpha + 21\beta \) is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 26:

Let the plane \( P \) contain the line \( 2x + y - z = 3 = 0 \), \( 5x - 3y + 4z + 9 = 0 \) and be parallel to the line \( \frac{x + 2}{2} = \frac{3 - y}{4} = \frac{z - 7}{5} \). Then the distance of the point \( A(8, -1, -19) \) from the plane \( P \), measured parallel to the line is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 27:

If the sum of the series \[ \left( \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{2 \cdot 3^2} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{2^2 \cdot 3^2} \right) + \left( \frac{1}{2^3} + \frac{1}{2^2 \cdot 3^3} \right) + \ldots \]
is \( \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \), where \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are co-prime, then \( \alpha + 3\beta \) is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

A person forgets his 4-digit ATM pin code. But he remembers that in the code all the digits are different, the greatest digit is 7 and the sum of the first two digits is equal to the sum of the last two digits. Then the maximum number of trials necessary to obtain the correct code is:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 29:

If the line \( x = y = z \) intersects the line \( x \sin A + y \sin B + z \sin C - 18 = 0 \) and \( x \sin 2A + y \sin 2B + z \sin 2C - 9 = 0 \), where A, B, C are the angles of a triangle ABC, then \( 80 \left( \frac{\sin A}{\sin B} \frac{\sin C}{\sin B} \right) \) is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

Let \( f(x) = \frac{dx}{(3 + 4x^2) \sqrt{4 - 3x^2}} \), \( |x| < \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \), and \( f(0) = 0 \). If \( f(0) = 0 \) and \( f(1) = 1 \), then \( \alpha \beta > 0 \), then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 31:

Match List I with List II of Electromagnetic waves with corresponding wavelength range:


  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
View Solution



The different types of electromagnetic waves and their corresponding wavelength ranges are classified as follows:


Microwave: Has a wavelength \( \lambda > 700 \, nm \), making it suitable for communication purposes.
Ultraviolet: Has wavelengths less than \( 400 \, nm \), typically used for sterilization and curing.
X-Ray: Has a very short wavelength in the range of \( 1 \, nm \) to \( 10^{-3} \, nm \), ideal for medical imaging.
Infra-red: With a wavelength between \( 400 \, nm \) to \( 700 \, nm \), this is used in thermal cameras and night vision technologies.


Therefore, matching the waves with their wavelengths gives us the correct answer as option (2). Quick Tip: Electromagnetic waves are categorized based on their wavelength. The shortest wavelengths correspond to higher energy waves (like X-rays), while the longer wavelengths correspond to lower energy waves (like microwaves).


Question 32:

The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large distance \( r \) from the center of the dipole on the equatorial plane varies with distance as:

  • (1) \( r \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{r} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{r^2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{r^3} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{1}{r^3} \)
View Solution

Question 33:

A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in the process is:


\includegraphics{33.png

  • (1) 100 J
  • (2) 300 J
  • (3) 200 J
  • (4) Zero
Correct Answer: (2) 300 J
View Solution

Question 34:

The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years. The fraction of the original sample that would decay in 15 years is:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{7}{8} \)
View Solution



The fraction of the original sample that decays is given by the formula for radioactive decay: \[ N = N_0 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^{\frac{t}{T_{1/2}}} \]
where \( N_0 \) is the initial number of nuclei, \( N \) is the number of remaining nuclei after time \( t \), and \( T_{1/2} \) is the half-life of the substance.
Given that the half-life \( T_{1/2} = 5 \, years \), the fraction remaining after 15 years is: \[ N = N_0 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^{\frac{15}{5}} = N_0 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^3 = \frac{N_0}{8} \]
Thus, the fraction that decays is: \[ Fraction decayed = 1 - \frac{1}{8} = \frac{7}{8} \] Quick Tip: In radioactive decay, the amount of remaining substance decreases by half each half-life period. To calculate the fraction decayed, use the decay formula and subtract the remaining fraction from 1.


Question 35:

The position vector of a particle related to time t is given by \[ r = (10t\hat{i} + 15t^2\hat{j} + 7t\hat{k}) \, m \]
The direction of net force experienced by the particle is:

  • (1) Positive z-axis
  • (2) In x - y plane
  • (3) Positive y-axis
  • (4) Positive x - axis
Correct Answer: (3) Positive y-axis
View Solution

Question 36:

The height of the transmitting antenna is 180 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 245 m. The maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight will be:

  • (1) 48 km
  • (2) 104 km
  • (3) 96 km
  • (4) 56 km
Correct Answer: (2) 104 km
View Solution

Question 37:

A single slit of width a is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The value of 'a' for which the first minimum appears at \(\theta = 30^\circ \) on the screen will be:

  • (1) 0.6 \( \mu \)m
  • (2) 3 \( \mu \)m
  • (3) 1.8 \( \mu \)m
  • (4) 1.2 \( \mu \)m
Correct Answer: (4) 1.2 \( \mu \)m
View Solution

Question 38:

A 12 V battery connected to a coil of resistance 6 \(\Omega\) through a switch, drives a constant current in the circuit. The switch is opened in 1 ms. The emf induced across the coil is 20 V. The inductance of the coil is:

  • (1) 8 mH
  • (2) 10 mH
  • (3) 12 mH
  • (4) 5 mH
Correct Answer: (2) 10 mH
View Solution

Question 39:

Two identical particles each of mass 'm' go round a circle of radius 'a' under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The angular speed of each particle will be:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{\frac{Gm}{a^3}} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{Gm}{4a^3}} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{\frac{Gm}{2a^3}} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{Gm}{8a^3}} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{Gm}{4a^3}} \)
View Solution

Question 40:

A body is released from a height equal to the radius (r) of the earth. The velocity of the body when it strikes the surface of the earth will be:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{gR} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{\frac{gR}{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{4gR} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2gR} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{gR} \)
View Solution

Question 41:

For designing a voltmeter of range 50 V and an ammeter of range 10 mA using a galvanometer which has a coil of resistance 54 Ω showing a full scale deflection for 1 mA as in figure.

  • (1) (C) and (D)
  • (2) (A) and (B)
  • (3) (C) and (E)
  • (4) (A) and (C)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) and (C)
View Solution

Question 42:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The equivalent resistance of resistors in a series combination is smaller than least resistance used in the combination.
Statement II: The resistivity of the material is independent of temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View Solution

Question 43:

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having kinetic energy E is \( \lambda \). If the kinetic energy of the electron becomes \( \frac{E}{4} \), then its de-Broglie wavelength will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( 2\lambda \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\lambda}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2}\lambda \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 2\lambda \)
View Solution

Question 44:

A vector in x – y plane makes an angle of 30° with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of vector is \( 2\sqrt{3} \). The magnitude of x-component of the vector will be:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 45:

The speed of a wave produced in water is given by \( v = \lambda^a g^b \rho^c \). Where \( \lambda \), \( g \), and \( \rho \) are wavelength of wave, acceleration due to gravity, and density of water respectively. The values of \( a \), \( b \), and \( c \) respectively, are:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2}, 0, \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 1, -1, 0 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 0 \)
  • (4) \( 1, 1, 0 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 0 \)
View Solution

Question 46:

In the given circuit, the current (I) through the battery will be:

  • (1) 1A
  • (2) 1.5A
  • (3) 2A
  • (4) 2.5A
Correct Answer: (2) 1.5A
View Solution

Question 47:

In a linear Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM),
(A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement.

(B) The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction.

(C) The velocity is maximum at mean position.

(D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points.

  • (1) (C) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (C), and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
View Solution

Question 48:

A wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled by a force f, its length increases by dL. Another wire of the same material of length 2L and radius 2r is pulled by a force 2f. Then the increase in its length will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 49:

A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 30°C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases (K argon/K hydrogen) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 39.9
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \( \frac{39.9}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) 1
View Solution

Question 50:

The position of a particle related to time is given by \( x = (5t^2 - 4t + 5) \) m. The magnitude of velocity of the particle at \( t = 2 \) s will be:

  • (1) 10 m/s
  • (2) 06 m/s
  • (3) 16 m/s
  • (4) 14 m/s
Correct Answer: (3) 16 m/s
View Solution

Question 51:

An electron in a hydrogen atom revolves around its nucleus with a speed of \(6.76 \times 10^6 \, ms^{-1}\) in an orbit of radius \(0.52 \, A^\circ\). The magnetic field produced at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom is _____ T.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 52:

A 20 cm long metallic rod is rotated with 210 rpm about an axis normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field \(0.2 \, T\) parallel to the axis exists everywhere. The emf developed between the centre and the ring is _____ mV. (Take \( \pi = 22/7 \))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 53:

As per the given figure A, B and C are the first, second and third excited energy levels of the hydrogen atom respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelengths \( \left( \frac{\lambda_1}{\lambda_2} \right) \) is \( \frac{7}{4n} \), then the value of \(n\) will be _____.


Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 54:

The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in an equilateral hollow prism is \( \sqrt{2} \). The angle of minimum deviation for the liquid will be ____.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 55:

A block of mass 10 kg is moving along the x-axis under the action of force \( F = 5x \) N. The work done by the force in moving the block from \( x = 2m \) to \( x = 4m \) will be _____ J.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 56:

The fundamental frequency of vibration of a string stretched between two rigid supports is 50 Hz. The mass of the string is 18g and its linear mass density is 20 g/m. The speed of the transverse waves so produced in the string is ____ m/s.

Correct Answer:
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Question 57:

A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are rolling on a horizontal surface without slipping. The ratio of their radius of gyrations respectively (i.e., \( k_{sp} : k_{cy} \)) is \( 2 : \sqrt{x} \). The value of \( x \) is ____.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding the formula for moment of inertia and radius of gyration.
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere and solid cylinder of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \) are given by: \[ I_{sphere} = \frac{2}{5} M R^2, \quad I_{cylinder} = \frac{1}{2} M R^2. \]
The radius of gyration (\( k \)) is related to the moment of inertia by the equation: \[ I = M k^2. \]
For the solid sphere, \[ k_{sphere} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{5}} R. \]
For the solid cylinder, \[ k_{cylinder} = \sqrt{\frac{1}{2}} R. \]

Step 2: Ratio of the radius of gyrations.
The ratio of the radius of gyrations is: \[ \frac{k_{sphere}}{k_{cylinder}} = \frac{\sqrt{\frac{2}{5}} R}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}} R} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{5}} \times \sqrt{2} = \sqrt{\frac{4}{5}} = \sqrt{x}. \]
Equating this to \( \sqrt{x} \), we get: \[ x = 5. \]

Thus, the value of \( x \) is 5. Quick Tip: The radius of gyration is calculated by taking the square root of the ratio of the moment of inertia to the mass. For rolling objects like spheres and cylinders, the formula for their moments of inertia is derived from their mass distribution.


Question 58:

A network of four resistances is connected to 9 V battery, as shown in figure. The magnitude of voltage difference between the points A and B is ____ V.


Correct Answer:
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Question 59:

In the given figure the total charge stored in the combination of capacitors is 100 \( \mu \)C. The value of \(x\) is:


Correct Answer:
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Question 60:

There is an air bubble of radius 1.0 mm in a liquid of surface tension 0.075 N/m and density 1000 kg/m\(^3\) at a depth of 10 cm below the free surface. The amount by which the pressure inside the bubble is greater than the atmospheric pressure is:

Correct Answer:
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Question 61:

Which one of the following is not an example of calcination?

  • (1) \( CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + CO_2 \)
  • (2) \( 2PbS + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2PbO + 2SO_2 \)
  • (3) \( CaCO_3 \cdot MgCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + MgO + 2CO_2 \)
  • (4) \( Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \xrightarrow{\Delta} Fe_3O_4 + xH_2O \)
Correct Answer: (2)
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Calcination is a process in which an ore is heated to high temperature in the absence or limited supply of air. This leads to the decomposition of the ore, typically releasing volatile components such as water or carbon dioxide.


- In the reaction \( CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + CO_2 \), calcium carbonate is heated to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide, which is a classic example of calcination.

- In the reaction \( 2PbS + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2PbO + 2SO_2 \), lead sulfide is oxidized, which is an oxidation reaction, not calcination.

- The reaction \( CaCO_3 \cdot MgCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + MgO + 2CO_2 \) is a calcination reaction, as it involves heating the carbonate to produce oxides and release carbon dioxide.

- In the reaction \( Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \xrightarrow{\Delta} Fe_3O_4 + xH_2O \), water is driven off from iron ore, which is another example of calcination.


Thus, option (2) is not an example of calcination. Quick Tip: Calcination specifically refers to the thermal decomposition of an ore, often to remove water or carbon dioxide. Oxidation reactions like the one in option (2) are not classified as calcination.


Question 62:

During water-gas shift reaction

  • (1) Water is evaporated in presence of catalyst.
  • (2) Carbon monoxide is oxidized to carbon dioxide.
  • (3) Carbon is oxidized to carbon monoxide.
  • (4) Carbon dioxide is reduced to carbon monoxide.
Correct Answer: (2)
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Question 63:

Consider the following sequence of reaction:



\text{The product \( B \) is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
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Question 64:

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R:

Assertion (A): \( BeCl_2 \) and \( MgCl_2 \) Produce characteristic flame

Reason (R): The excitation energy is high in \( BeCl_2 \) and \( MgCl_2 \)

In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) is False but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Correct Answer: (1)
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Question 65:

‘A’ formed in the above reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)
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Question 66:

For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to alumina is found to be

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4.5
  • (4) 1.5
Correct Answer: (3) 4.5
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Question 67:

Which of the following expressions is correct in case of a CaCl unit cell (edge length 'a')?

  • (1) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = a \)
  • (3) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} a \)
  • (4) \( r_{cs} + r_{cr} = \frac{a}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (3)
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Question 68:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: According to Bohr's model of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of an electron in a given stationary state is quantised.

Statement II: The concept of electron in Bohr's orbit violates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
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Question 69:

In the above conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is:

  • (1) \( Br_2/Fe, \, (ii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iii) KMnO_4, \, (iv) Cl_2 \)
  • (2) \( (i) Br_2/Fe, \, (ii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iii) HONO, \, (iv) CuCl, \, (v) KMnO_4 \)
  • (3) \( (i) Fe/H^{+}, \, (ii) HONO, \, (iii) CuCl, \, (iv) KMnO_4, \, (v) Br_2 \)
  • (4) \( (i) KMnO_4, \, (ii) Br_2/Fe, \, (iii) Fe/H^{+}, \, (iv) Cl_2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{(i) Br}_2/\text{Fe}, \, \text{(ii) Fe}/H^{+}, \, \text{(iii) HONO}, \, \text{(iv) CuCl}, \, \text{(v) KMnO}_4 \)
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Question 70:

The product formed in the following multistep reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)
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Question 71:

The possibility of photochemical smog formation will be minimum at:

  • (1) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
  • (2) New Delhi in August (Summer)
  • (3) Kolkata in October
  • (4) Mumbai in May
Correct Answer: (1) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
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Question 72:

Consider the following statements:

(A) NF\(_3\) molecule has a trigonal planar structure.

(B) Bond length of N\(_2\) is shorter than O\(_2\).

(C) Isoelectronic molecules or ions have identical bond order.

(D) Dipole moment of HS is higher than that of water molecule.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) are correct
  • (2) (C) and (D) are correct
  • (3) (B) and (C) are correct
  • (4) (A) and (D) are correct
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (C) are correct
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Question 73:

The number of P–O–P bonds in H\(_4\)P\(_2\)O\(_7\), (HPO\(_3\))\(_3\), and P\(_4\)O\(_{10}\) are respectively:

  • (1) 1, 3, 6
  • (2) 0, 3, 6
  • (3) 0, 3, 4
  • (4) 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1, 3, 6
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Question 74:

Which is not true for arginine?

  • (1) It has high solubility in benzene
  • (2) It is associated with more than one pK\(_a\) values.
  • (3) It is a crystalline solid.
  • (4) It has a fairly high melting point.
Correct Answer: (1) It has high solubility in benzene.
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Question 75:

The complex with highest magnitude of crystal field splitting energy (\(\Delta_o\)) is

  • (1) [Mn(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) [Fe(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (3) [Cr(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
  • (4) [Ti(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
Correct Answer: (3) [Cr(OH\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
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Question 76:

Which of the following statement is correct for paper chromatography?

  • (1) Water present in the pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
  • (2) Water present in the mobile phase gets absorbed by the paper which then forms the stationary phase.
  • (3) Paper sheet forms the stationary phase.
  • (4) Paper and water present in its pores together form the stationary phase.
Correct Answer: (1) Water present in the pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
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Question 77:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) The pH of 1 x 10\(^-8\) M HCl solution is 8

(B) The conjugate base of H\(_2\)PH\(_4^+\) is HPO\(_4^{2-}\)

(C) K\(_w\) increases with increase in temperature.

(D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half neutralisation point, pH = \(\frac{1}{2}\) pK\(_a\).

  • (1) (A), (B), (C)
  • (2) (A), (D)
  • (3) (B), (C)
  • (4) (B), (C), (D)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C), (D)
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Question 78:

The major product in the Friedel-Craft acylation of chlorobenzene is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
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Question 79:

Decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution for the following compounds is:

  • (1) \( a > d > e > b > c \)
  • (2) \( c > b > a > d > e \)
  • (3) \( e > d > a > b > c \)
  • (4) \( d > a > e > c > b \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( e > d > a > b > c \)
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Question 80:

Match List-I with List-II :






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
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Question 81:

The homoleptic and octahedral complex of \( Co^{2+} \) and \( H_2O \) has ____ unpaired electron(s) in the \( t_{2g} \) set of orbitals.

Correct Answer:
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Question 82:

30.4 kJ of heat is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride and the entropy change at the melting point is 28.4 \( J K^{-1} mol^{-1} \) at 1 atm. The melting point of sodium chloride is ____ K. (Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
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Question 83:

The total number of isoelectronic species from the given set is ___.

Correct Answer:
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The given species are: \[ O^{2-}, \, F^-, \, Al^{3+}, \, Na^+, \, O^+, \, Mg, \, Al^{3+}, \, F. \]
The number of electrons in each species is as follows:

- \( O^{2-} \) has 10 electrons

- \( F^- \) has 10 electrons

- \( Al^{3+} \) has 10 electrons

- \( Na^+ \) has 10 electrons

- \( O^+ \) has 9 electrons

- \( Mg \) has 10 electrons

- \( Al^{3+} \) has 10 electrons

- \( F \) has 9 electrons


The isoelectronic species are those with the same number of electrons. The isoelectronic species in the set are:
- \( O^{2-} \), \( F^- \), \( Al^{3+} \), \( Na^+ \), \( Mg \), \( F \)


Therefore, the total number of isoelectronic species is 5. Quick Tip: Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons, but may differ in the number of protons.


Question 84:

For a reversible reaction \( A \rightleftharpoons B \), the \( \Delta H_{forward} = 20 \, kJ/mol \). The activation energy of the uncatalysed forward reaction is 300 kJ/mol. When the reaction is catalysed keeping the reactant concentration same, the rate of the catalysed forward reaction at 27°C is found to be same as that of the uncatalysed reaction at 327°C. The activation energy of the catalysed backward reaction is ____ kJ/mol.

Correct Answer:
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Question 85:

The vapour pressure of 30% (w/v) aqueous solution of glucose is _____ mm Hg at 25°C.
[Given: The density of 30% (w/v), aqueous solutions of glucose is 1.2 g cm\textsuperscript{-3} and vapour pressure of pure water is 24 mm Hg. (Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol\textsuperscript{-1})]

Correct Answer:
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Question 86:

In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of chromium is (+) ____.

Correct Answer:
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Question 87:

The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO\textsubscript{3} required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 20 mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H\textsubscript{2}O)\textsubscript{6}]Cl\textsubscript{2} as silver chloride is ____.

Correct Answer:
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Question 88:

20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required to coagulate 200 mL of As\textsubscript{2}S\textsubscript{3} solution in 2 hours. The coagulating value of NaCl is ___.

Correct Answer:
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Question 89:

The total change in the oxidation state of manganese involved in the reaction of KMnO\textsubscript{4} and potassium iodide in the acidic medium is _____.

Correct Answer:
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Question 90:

The number of correct statements from the following is _____.

(A) Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both strong and weak electrolysis.

(B) The number of ions per unit volume that carry current in a solution increases on dilution.

(C) Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration.

(D) The variation in molar conductivity is different for strong and weak electrolysis.

(E) For weak electrolysis, the change in molar conductivity with dilution is due to the decrease in degree of dissociation.

Correct Answer:
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