JEE Main 2023 April 10 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 10, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 10 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 10 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If I(x) = \(\int e^{sin^2x}\)\((cos \;x \;sin \;2x - sin \;x)dx\) and I (0) = 1, then \(I(π/3)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(-e^{\frac{3}{4}}\)
  • (2) \(e^{\frac{3}{4}}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{2}e^{\frac{3}{4}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}e^{\frac{3}{4}}\)

Question 2:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x+2}{1}=\frac{y}{-2}=\frac{z-5}{2}\) and \(\frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z+3}{0}\) is

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 9

Question 3:

Let the ellipse \(E : x^2 + 9y^2 = 9\) intersect the positive x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively Let the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing through A and B meet the circle C at the point P. If the area of the triangle which vertices A, P and the origin O is m/n , where m and n are coprime, then m – n is equal to 

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 18

Question 4:

Let O be the origin and the position vector of the point P be \(\hat i-2\hat j+3\hat k\). If the position vectors of the points A, B and C are \(-2\hat i+\hat j-3\hat k,2\hat i+4\hat j-2\hat k\) and \(-4\hat i+2\hat j-\hat k\) respectively then the projection of the vector \(\overrightarrow{OP}\) on a vector perpendicular to the vectors \(\overrightarrow{ AB}\) and \(\overrightarrow {AC}\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (3) 3
  • (4) \(\frac{10}{3}\)

Question 5:

if f(x)= \(\frac{(tan1\degree)x+\log_e(123)}{x\log_e(1234)-(tan1\degree)},x>0\) , then the least value of \(f(f(x))+f(f(\frac{4}{x}))\)is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8

Question 6:

If the coefficient of x7 in expansion of \((ax- \frac{1}{bx^2})^{13}\) is equal to the coefficient of x-5 in expansion of \((ax + \frac{1}{bx^2})13\), then a4b4 is ______

  • (1) 22
  • (2) 44
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 33

Question 7:

An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its centre O. The mid point of the arc PQ is R. If OP = μ, OR=v and OQ=αv+βv, then α, β2 are the roots of the equation

  • (1) \(3x^2-2x-1=0\)
  • (2) \(3x^2+2x-1=0\)
  • (3) \(x^2-x-2=0\)
  • (4) \(x^2+x-2=0\)

Question 8:

Two dice are rolled and sum of numbers of two dice is N then probability that 2N < N! is m/n , where m and n are co-prime, then 11m – 3n is?


Question 9:

From a square of side 30 cm the squares of side x cm is cut off to make a cuboid of maximum volume. The surface area of cuboid with open top is?

  • (1) 400 cm2
  • (2) 464 cm2
  • (3) 800 cm2
  • (4) 900 cm2

Question 10:

\(96\cos\frac{π}{33}\cos \frac{2π}{33}\cos\frac{4π}{33}\cos\frac{8π}{33}\cos\frac{16π}{33}\) is equal to

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 11:

For the system of linear equations
\(2x-y+3z=5\)
\(3x+2y-z=7\)
\(4x+5y+\alpha z=\beta\),
which of the following is NOT correct?

  • (1) The system has infinitely many solutions for \(\alpha=-6\) and \(\beta=9\)
  • (2) The system has a unique solution for \(\alpha\neq-5\) and \(\beta=8\)
  • (3) The system is inconsistent for \(\alpha=-5\) and \(\beta=8\)
  • (4) The system has infinitely many solutions for \(\alpha=-5\) and \(\beta=9\)

Question 12:

A line segment AB of length λ moves such that the points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle of radius λ. Then the locus of the point, that divides the line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 3, is a circle of radius

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{19}}{7}\lambda\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{19}}{5}\lambda\)
  • (3) \(\frac{{2}}{3}\lambda\)
  • (4) \(\frac{{3}}{5}\lambda\)

Question 13:

Let f be a differentiable function such that x2 f(x) - x = \(4 \int^x_0tf(t)dt,f(1)=\frac{2}{3}. \;\text{Then 18f(3)is equal to}\)
 

  • (1) 150
  • (2) 160
  • (3) 180
  • (4) 210

Question 14:

Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a geometric progression be positive integers. If the sum of its squares of first three terms is 33033, then the sum of these three terms is equal to

  • (1) 231
  • (2) 220
  • (3) 210
  • (4) 241

Question 15:

Let the complex number \( z = x + iy \) be such that \(\frac{2z - 3i}{2z + i}\) is purely imaginary. If \( x + y^2 = 0 \), then \( y^4 + y^2 - y \) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Question 16:

Let two vertices of triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and (0, –2, –5), and its centroid be (2, 1, –1). If the image of third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z = 11 is (α, β, γ), then αβ + βγ + γα is equal to

  • (1) 70
  • (2) 72
  • (3) 74
  • (4) 76

Question 17:

The negation of the statement
(p v q) ∧ (q v(∼r)) is

  • (1) (p v r) ∧ (∼q)
  • (2) ((∼p v r)) ∧ (∼q)
  • (3) ((∼p ) v (∼q) v(∼r)
  • (4) ((∼p ) v (∼q) ∧(∼r)

Question 18:

Let P be the point of intersection of the line \(\frac{x+3}{3}=\frac{y+2}{1}=\frac{1-z}{2}\) and the plane x + y + z = 2. If the distance of the point P from the plane 3x – 4y + 12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the equation 

  • (1) \(x^2+18x+72=0\)
  • (2) \(x^2-18x-72=0\)
  • (3) \(x^2+18x-72=0\)
  • (4) \(x^2-18x+72=0\)

Question 19:

The slope of tangent at any point (x, y) on a curve y = y(x) is \(\frac{x^2+y^2}{2xy},x>0\) If y(2) = 0, then a value of y(8) is
 

  • (1) 4√3
  • (2) -4√2
  • (3) 2√3
  • (4) -2√3

Question 20:

If the order of matrix A is \(3 \times 3\) and \(|A|=2\), then the value of \(|3adj (|3A|A2)|\) is?

  • (1) \(3^{10}.2^{21}\)
  • (2) \(2^{10}.3^{21}\)
  • (3) \(2^{12}.3^{15}\)
  • (4) \(3^{12}.2^{15}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let f : (-2, 2) → IR be defined by \(f(x) =   \begin{cases}     x[x]       & \quad -2<x<0\\     (x-1)[x],  & \quad 0\leq x<2   \end{cases}\)
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. If m and n respectively are the number of points in (-2, 2) at which y = |f(x)| is not continuous and not differentiable, then m + n is equal to ______.


Question 22:

Let y = p(x) be the parabola passing through the points (–1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 0). If the area of the region \(\{x,y):(x+1)^2+(y-1)^2≤1,y≤p(x)\}\) is A, then 12(π-4A) is equal to__.


Question 23:

The number of elements in the set \(\{n ∈ Z : n^2-10n+19| < 6\}\) is __.


Question 24:
The mean of the data
 0-1010-2020-3030-4040-50
525x6
is 26 , then variance of the data is?

Question 25:

The number of permutations, of the digits 1, 2, 3, ..., 7 without repetition, which neither contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is ___________.


Question 26:

The coefficient of \(x^7\) in \((1-x+2x^3)^{10}\) is ___________.


Question 27:

If the number of ways in which a mixed double badminton can be played such that no couples played into a same game is 840. Then find the number of players?


Question 28:

Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real numbers such that (2a)logea = (bc)logeb and bloge2 = alogec. Then 6a + 5bc is equal to _____.


Question 29:

Let a common tangent to the curves y2 = 4x and (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 touch the curves at the points P and Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to ________.


Question 30:

3, 8, 13, ......,373 are in arithmetic series. The sum of numbers not divisible by three is

  • (1) 9310
  • (2) 8340
  • (3) 9525
  • (4) 7325

Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Given below are two statement :  
Statement I : If the number of turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is doubled then the current sensitivity becomes double.  
Statement II : Increasing current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the number of turns in the coil will also increase its voltage sensitivity in the same ratio.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 32:

A physical quantity P is given as
\( P = \frac{a^2b^2 }{ c\sqrt{d}} .\)
The percentage error in the measurement of a,b, c and d are1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of quantity P  will be

  • (1) 11%
  • (2) 12%
  • (3) 9%
  • (4) 13%

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:  
Statement I : Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.  
Statement II : The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 34:

The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained in a small volume oscillates with

  • (1) zero frequency
  • (2) half the frequency of the wave
  • (3) double the frequency of the wave
  • (4) the frequency of the wave

Question 35:

Find the equivalent capacitance across points A and B in the given electric circuit.

  • (1) \(\frac{C}{2}\)
  • (2) 2C
  • (3) \(\frac{5C}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3C}{4}\)

Question 36:

Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P), Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to \(\frac{1}{8}\) of its original volume while the gas in B is com pressed adiabatically to \(\frac{1}{8}\) of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (2) 8 
  • (3) 4
  • (4) \(8^{\frac{2}{3}}\)

Question 37:

The range of the projectile projected at an angle of 15° with hor izontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected with same velocity at an angle of 45° with horizontal, then its range will be

  • (1) 50 m
  • (2) 100 m
  • (3) 80 m
  • (4) 120 m

Question 38:

For a particle performing linear SHM, its position (x) as a function of time (t) is given by x = Asin(ωt + δ). Given that, at t = 0, particle is at +A/2 and is moving towards x = +A. Find δ

  • (1) π/3 rad
  • (2) π/6 rad
  • (3) π/4 rad
  • (4) 5π/6 rad

Question 39:

The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room tem perature (300 K) is λ1. If the temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K, then the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas molecule becomes

  • (1) \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
  • (2) \({2\lambda}\)
  • (3) \({\lambda}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5\lambda}{2}\)

Question 40:

Find the equivalent resistance across A and B for given circuit.
equivalent resistance across A and B

  • (1) 6.4 Ω
  • (2) 4Ω
  • (3) 3.2Ω
  • (4) 8Ω

Question 41:

An object is placed Infront of a plane mirror 12 cm away from it. The object is kept fixed while the plane mirror is shifted towards the object by a distance of 4 cm. The length of shift in the position of image is equal to ___________ cm.


Question 42:

Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is

  • (1) √3 :1
  • (2) 1:√3
  • (3) √2 :1
  • (4) 1:2

Question 43:

The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from school to their homes are shown in the figure.
graphs for two students A and B returning from school
A. A lives closer to the school
B. B lives closer to the school
C. A takes lesser time to reach home
D. A travels faster than B
E. B travels faster than A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (2) (A) and (E) only
  • (3) (B) and (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Question 44:

The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr’s orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular momentum will be

  • (1) L
  • (2) 1L
  • (3) 2L
  • (4) 1.5L

Question 45:

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Statement (1) and the other is labeled as Statement (2).
Statement (1): Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, a ca pacitor and a resistor connected in series with an AC source, when resonance occurs
Statement (2): Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase difference between current and voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option:

  • (1) (1) and (2) both are correct
  • (2) (1) is correct but (2) is incorrect
  • (3) (1) is incorrect but (2) is correct
  • (4) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect

Question 46: Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A3 Translational degrees of freedomIMonoatomic gases
B3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees of freedomsIIPolyatomic gases
C3 Translational, 2 rotational and 1 vibrational degrees of freedomIIIRigid diatomic gases
D3 Translational, 3 rotational and more than one vibrational degrees of freedomIVNonrigid diatomic gases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Question 47:

Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, the weight of a body at a depth \(d=\frac{R}{2}\) from the surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of earth is 200 N, will be 

  • (1) 100 N
  • (2) 300 N
  • (3) 50 N
  • (4) 150 N

Question 48:

A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is used as a voltage regula tor. If the zener diode has a breakdown voltage of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V, what is the value of resistance Rs for safe operation of the diode?
zener diode of power rating

  • (1) 10 Ω
  • (2) 12 Ω
  • (3) 13 Ω
  • (4) 13.3 Ω

Question 49:

A particle of mass m moving with a velocity v collides with a particle of mass 2m at rest and sticks to it. Velocity of the combined mass equal to? 

  • (1) v
  • (2) \(\frac{v}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v}{4}\)

Question 50:

A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V modulated by a sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3 V. The ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude in an amplitude modulated wave is

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by y(x,t) = 5 sin(6t + 0.003x) where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is _______ ms-1


Question 52:

10 resistors each of resistance 10Ω can be connected in such as to get maximum and minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be_______ .


Question 53:

A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as shown in f igure. The plane of the circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5ω, the force needed to move the rod in direction, as indicated, with a constant speed of 4 m/s will be ____10−3 N
1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit


Question 54:

A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical plane. A block of mass 1 kg just fit inside the tube. The speed of block is 22 m/s, when it is introduced at the top of tube. After completing five oscillations, the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The work done by the tube on the block is J. (Given: g = 10 ms−2)
closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm,


Question 55:

Unpolarised light of intensity 32Wm-2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the pass axis of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroid. If intensity of emerging light is 3Wm-2 , then the angle between pass axis of first two polaroids is ______º .


Question 56:

Three concentric shells A, B and C having surface charge density σ, –σ and σ respectively. The radii of A and B are 2 cm and 3 cm respectively. Electric potential at surface A is VA and at C is VC. If VA = VC then find the radius of C in cm.

Three concentric shells A, B and C


Question 57:

If the earth suddenly shrinks to \(\frac{1}{ 64}\) th of its original volume with its mass remaining the same, the period of rotation of earth becomes \(\frac{24}{ x}\) h. The value of x is .


Question 58:

The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order to demagnetize a bar magnet of magnetic intensity \(2.4 × 10^3Am^{−1}\) is A.


Question 59:

Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown in the figure. The elongation of the steel wire is _____ x 10-6 m .
Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass
[Young’s modulus for steel = 2 x 1011 Nm-2 and g = 10ms-2]


Question 60:

The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is \(1.5 × 10^{−5}s^{−1}\). Atomic weight of the substance is 60 g mole−1. (\(N_A = 6×10^{23}\)). The activity of 1.0 µg of the substance is _____\(×10^{10}\) Bq.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

The compound which does not exist.

  • (1) BeCl2
  • (2) NaO2
  • (3) PbEt4
  • (4) (NH4)2 BeF4

Question 62:

Number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litre of O2 at STP.


Question 63:

One which does not stabilize secondary and tertiary protein?

  • (1) H-H linkage
  • (2) S-S linkage 
     
  • (3) Vanderwoal’s force 
     
  • (4) Hydrogen bonding 
     

Question 64:

The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is

  • (1) Option 1
  • (2) Option 2
  • (3) Option 3
  • (4) Option 4

Question 65:

Prolonged heating of ferrous ammonium sulphate is avoided to prevent :

  • (1) Oxidation
  • (2) Reduction
  • (3) Hydrolysis
  • (4) Breaking

Question 66:

Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese 
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row dblock elements get stabilized by oxide ion. 
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid. 
(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  • (1) (A), (B) only
  • (2) (B), (C) only
  • (3) (C), (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (D) only

Question 67:

The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex among the following is

  • (1) [CO(NH3)6]3+
  • (2) [COF6]3-
  • (3) [COCl6]3- 
  • (4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+

Question 68:

Using column chromatography, mixture of two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ was separated. ‘A’ eluted first, this indicates ‘B’ has

  • (1) high Rf , weaker adsorption
  • (2) high Rf , stronger adsorption
  • (3) low Rf , weaker adsorption
  • (4) low Rf , stronger adsorption

Question 69:

Select the correct option:
\(2CO (g) + O_2 (g) → 2CO_2 (g) ; ΔH = -x KJ/mol\)
\(C (graphite) + O_2(g) → CO_2 (g) ; AH = -y KJ/mol\)
Then AH for, \(C(graphite) + \frac{1}{2} O_2 (g) → CO (g):\)

  • (1) \(x-\frac{y}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x-2y}{2}\)
  • (3) \(x+\frac{2y}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x-y}{2}\)

Question 70:

Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8 H11N give the following tests
Isomer (P) ⇒ Can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Isomer (Q) ⇒ Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH
Isomer (R) ⇒ Reacts with HONO followed by β-naphthol in NaOH to give red dye.
Isomers (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are

  • (1) Option 1
  • (2) Option 2
  • (3) Option 3
  • (4) Option 4

Question 71:

Read the following two statements:
Statement I: Potassium dichromate is used in volumetric analysis.
Statement II: \(K_2Cr_2O_7\) is more soluble in water than \(Na_2Cr_2O_7\)

  • (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
  • (2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

Question 72:

Suitable reaction condition for preparation of Methyl phenyl ether is

  • (1) PhO- Na+ , MeBr
  • (2) PhO- Na+ , MeOH
  • (3) Ph - Br, MeO- Na+
  • (4) Benzene, MeBr

Question 73:

Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective mechanism
pairs towards the respective mechanism
pairs towards the respective mechanism
pairs towards the respective mechanism
pairs towards the respective mechanism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Question 74:

The pair of compounds from the following pairs having both the compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is

  • (1) Cis-dichloroethene; trans-dichloroethene
  • (2) \(CH_2Cl_2 ; CHCl_3\)
  • (3) 1,4-dichlorobenzene;1,3,5-trichlorobenzene
  • (4) Benzene; p-Anisidine

Question 75:

The enthalpy change for the adsorption process and micelle for mation respectively are

  • (1) \(∆H_{ads} < 0\ and\ ∆H_{mic} < 0\)
  • (2) \(∆H_{ads} > 0\ and\ ∆H_{mic} < 0\)
  • (3) \(∆H_{ads} < 0\ and\ ∆H_{mic} > 0\)
  • (4) \(∆H_{ads} > 0\ and\ ∆H_{mic} > 0\)

Question 76:

Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’ which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution of ‘A’ is often used for the test of CO2 , a test in which insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with CO2 then soluble compound is formed ‘A’ is

  • (1) Quick lime
  • (2) Lime water
  • (3) Slaked lime
  • (4) White lime

Question 77:

Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during the concen tration of sulphide ores?

  • (1) Fatty acids
  • (2) Pine oil
  • (3) Cresol 
  • (4) Xanthates

Question 78:

Given below are two reactions, involved in the commercial production of dihydrogen (H2). The two reactions are carried out at temperature “T1 ” and “T2 ” respectively
\(C(S)+H_2O(g)\underrightarrow {T_1}\;CO(g)+H_2(g)\)
\(CO(g)+H_2O(g)\underrightarrow{T_2}\;CO_2(g)+H_2(g)\)
The temperature \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) are correctly related as 

  • (1) \(T_1>T_2\)
  • (2) \(T_1<T_2\)
  • (3) T1=T2
  • (4) T1=100 K, T2=1270 K

Question 79: Match the following List-I and List-II:
List-IIndustryList-IIWaste Generated
(A)Steel Plants(I)Gypsum
(B)Thermal Power Plants(II)Fly ash
(C)Fertilizer industries(III)Slag
(D)Ppaer mills(IV)Bio-degradable Wastes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Question 80: Match List I with List II
List-IPolymerList-IIType/ Class
(A)Nylon-2-Nylon-6(I)Thermosetting polymer
(B)Buna-N(II)Biodegradable polymer
(C)Urea-formaldehyde(III)Synthetic rubber resin
(D)Dacron(IV)Polyester
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

In potassium ferrocyanide, there are ____ pairs of electrons in the \(t_{2g}\) set of orbitals.


Question 82:

The number of bent-shaped molecule(s) from the following is_______? 
SO2, O3, I3-, N3-


Question 83:

The number of correct statement/s involving equilibria in physical process from the following is
(A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature 
(B) Both the opposing processes occur at the same rate. 
(C) When equilibrium is attained at a given temperature, the value of all its parameters became equal 
(D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility is constant at a given temperature


Question 84:

The Sum of number of lone pairs in central atom in IF5 and IF7 is:


Question 85:

The number of incorrect statement/s about the black body from the following is _______
(A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation 
(B) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation depends on temperature
(C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency curve passes through a maximum value 
(D) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency curve is at a higher frequency at higher temperature compared to that at lower temperature


Question 86:

A molecule undergoes two independent first order reactions whose respective half lives are 12 min and 3 min. If both the reactions are occurring then the time taken for the 50% consumption of the reactant is _____ min. (Nearest integer)


Question 87:

In the following reactions, the total number of oxygen atoms in X and Y is _______
Na2O + H2O → 2X
Cl2O7 + H2O → 2Y


Question 88:

\(FeO^{2-}_4+\underrightarrow{2.2v}\;Fe^{3+}\underrightarrow{+0.70v}\;Fe^{2+}\underrightarrow{-0.45v}\;Fe^0\)
\(E^0_{FeO_4^{2+}}\; is \;x × 10^{-3} V\). The Value of \(x\) is __


Question 89:

The degree of dissociation of monobasic acid is 0 3 By what percent is the observed depression in freezing point greater than the calculated depression in freezing point ?


Question 90:

At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of 940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume decreases by 40% is mm Hg. (Nearest integer)

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis 10 April Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam conducted on 10 April Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam conducted on 10 April Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

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JEE Main 2023 Session 1 Question Paper

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