JEE Main 2023 February 1 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on February 1, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 February 1 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 February 1 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The value of \(\frac{1}{1 ! 50 !}+\frac{1}{3 ! 48 !}+\frac{1}{5 ! 46 !}+\ldots +\frac{1}{49 ! 2 !}+\frac{1}{51 ! 1 !}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2^{51}}{50 !}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2^{50}}{50 !}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2^{51}}{51 !}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2^{50}}{51 !}\)

Question 2:

Let \(S\) be the set of all solutions of the equation \(\cos ^{-1}(2 x)-2 \cos ^{-1}\left(\sqrt{1-x^2}\right)=\pi\), \(x \in\left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\) Then \(\displaystyle\sum_{x \in S} 2 \sin ^{-1}\left(x^2-1\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) 0
  • (2) \(\frac{-2 \pi}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\pi-2 \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\pi-\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\right)\)

Question 3:

Let \(R\) be a relation on \(R\), given by \(R=\{(a, b): 3 a-3 b+\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number \(\}\)Then \(R\) is

  • (1) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
  • (2) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
  • (3) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
  • (4) an equivalence relation

Question 4:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x-5}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-4}{-3}\) and \(\frac{x+3}{1}=\frac{y+5}{4}=\frac{z-1}{-5}\) is

  • (1) \(7 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(6 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(4 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(5 \sqrt{3}\)

Question 5:

Let \(S\) denote the set of all real values of \(\lambda\) such that the system of equations
\( \lambda x+y+z=1 \)
\(x+\lambda y+z=1 \)
\(x+y+\lambda z=1\)
is inconsistent, then \(\displaystyle \sum_{\lambda \in S}\left(|\lambda|^2+|\lambda|\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6

Question 6:

Let \(S=x: x∈R\) and \(\left(\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2})^{x^2-4}+(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})^{x^2-4}=10\right\}\)Then \(n(S)\) is equal to

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 6

Question 7:

If the center and radius of the circle \(\left|\frac{z-2}{z-3}\right|=2\) are respectively \((\alpha, \beta)\) and \(\gamma\), then \(3(\alpha+\beta+\gamma)\) is equal to

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 9

Question 8:

The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16, respectively. If one observation 14 is omitted and a and b are respectively the mean and variance of the remaining 6 observations, then \(a+3b−5\) is equal to


Question 9:

Let \(f(x)=2 x+\tan ^{-1} x\) and \(g(x)=\log _e\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}+x\right), x \in[0,3]\) Then

  • (1) \(\min f^{\prime}(x)=1+\max g^{\prime}(x)\)
  • (2) there exist \(0 \lt x_1 \lt x_2 \lt 3\) such that \(f(x) \lt g(x), \forall x \in\left(x_1, x_2\right)\)
  • (3) \(\max f(x)\gt \max g(x)\)
  • (4) there exists \(\hat{x} \in[0,3]\) such that \(f^{\prime}(\hat{x}) \lt g^{\prime}(\hat{x})\)

Question 10:

Let \(f(x)= \begin{vmatrix} 1+\sin ^2 x & \cos ^2 x & \sin 2 x \\ \sin ^2 x & 1+\cos ^2 x & \sin 2 x \\ \sin ^2 x & \cos ^2 x & 1+\sin 2 x\end{vmatrix}, x \in\left[\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{3}\right] \) If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) respectively are the maximum and the minimum values of \(f\), then

  • (1) \(\beta^2+2 \sqrt{\alpha}=\frac{19}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\alpha^2+\beta^2=\frac{9}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\alpha^2-\beta^2=4 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(\beta^2-2 \sqrt{\alpha}=\frac{19}{4}\)

Question 11:

The area enclosed by the closed curve \(C\) given by the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{x+a}{y-2}=0, y(1)=0\) is \(4 \pi\).

Let \(P\) and \(Q\) be the points of intersection of the curve \(C\) and the \(y\)-axis If normals at \(P\) and \(Q\) on the curve \(C\) intersect \(x\)-axis at points \(R\) and \(S\) respectively, then the length of the line segment \(R S\) is 

  • (1) \(\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2 \sqrt{3}}{3}\)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \(\quad 2 \sqrt{3}\)

Question 12:

If the orthocentre of the triangle, whose vertices are \((1,2),(2,3)\) and \((3,1)\) is \((\alpha, \beta)\), then the quadratic equation whose roots are \(\alpha+4 \beta\) and \(4 \alpha+\beta\), is

  • (1) \(x^2-19 x+90=0\)
  • (2) \(x^2-20 x+99=0\)
  • (3) \(x^2-18 x+80=0\)
  • (4) \(x^2-22 x+120=0\)

Question 13:

If \(y=y(x)\) is the solution curve of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}+y \tan x=x \sec x, 0 \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{3}, y(0)=1\) then \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{12}-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \log _e\left(\frac{2}{e \sqrt{3}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{12}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \log _e\left(\frac{2}{e \sqrt{3}}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{12}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \log _e\left(\frac{2 \sqrt{3}}{e}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{12}-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \log _e\left(\frac{2 \sqrt{3}}{e}\right)\)

Question 14:

\(\displaystyle \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left[\frac{1}{1+n}+\frac{1}{2+n}+\frac{1}{3+n}+\ldots+\frac{1}{2 n}\right]\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\log _e2\)
  • (2) \(\log _e\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \(\log _e\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\)

Question 15:

The sum to \(10\) terms of the series \(\frac{1}{1+1^2+1^4}+\frac{2}{1+2^2+2^4}+\frac{3}{1+3^2+3^4}+\ldots \) is

  • (1) \(\frac{56}{111}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{58}{111}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{55}{111}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{59}{111}\)

Question 16:

The combined equation of the two lines \(a x+b y+c=0\) and \(a^{\prime} x+b^{\prime} y+c^{\prime}=0\) can be written as \((a x+b y+c)\left(a^{\prime} x+b^{\prime} y+c^{\prime}\right)=0\)
The equation of the angle bisectors of the lines represented by the equation \(2 x^2+x y-3 y^2=0\) is

  • (1) \(3 x^2+5 x y+2 y^2=0\)
  • (2) \(x^2-y^2-10 x y=0\)
  • (3) \(3 x^2+x y-2 y^2=0\)
  • (4) \(x^2-y^2+10 x y=0\)

Question 17:

In a binomial distribution \(B(n, p)\), the sum and the product of the mean and the variance are 5 and 6 respectively, then \(6(n+p-q)\) is equal to

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 53
  • (3) 52
  • (4) 51

Question 18:

The negation of the expression \(q \vee((\sim q) \wedge p)\) is equivalent to

  • (1) \(p \wedge(\sim q)\)
  • (2) \((\sim p) \wedge(\sim q)\)
  • (3) \((\sim p) \vee(\sim q)\)
  • (4) \((\sim p) \vee q\)

Question 19:

For a triangle \(A B C\), the value of \(\cos 2 A+\cos 2 B+\cos 2 C\) is least If its inradius is \(3\) and incentre is \(M\), then which of the following is NOT correct?

  • (1) area of \(\triangle A B C\) is \(\frac{27 \sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sin 2 A+\sin 2 B+\sin 2 C=\sin A+\sin B+\sin C\)
  • (3) perimeter of \(\triangle A B C\) is \(18 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(\overrightarrow{M A} \cdot \overrightarrow{M B}=-18\)

Question 20:

Let the image of the point \(P(2,-1,3)\) in the plane \(x+2 y-z=0\) be \(Q\) Then the distance of the plane \(3 x+2 y+z+29=0\) from the point \(Q\) is

  • (1) \(2 \sqrt{14}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{22 \sqrt{2}}{7}\)
  • (3) \(3 \sqrt{14}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{24 \sqrt{2}}{7}\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

If \(\int\limits_0^1\left(x^{21}+x^{14}+x^7\right)\left(2 x^{14}+3 x^7+6\right)^{1 / 7} d x=\frac{1}{l}(11)^{m / n}\) where \(l, m, n \in N , m\) and \(n\) are coprime then \(l+m+n\) is equal to ______


Question 22:

Let \(a_1=8, a_2, a_3, \ldots, a_n\) be an AP If the sum of its first four terms is \(50\) and the sum of its last four terms is \(170\) , then the product of its middle two terms is______


Question 23:

Let \(f: R \rightarrow R\) be a differentiable function such that \(f^{\prime}(x)+f(x)=\int\limits_0^2 f(t) d t\)If \(f(0)=e^{-2}\), then \(2 f(0)-f(2)\) is equal to_____


Question 24:

The remainder, when \(19^{200}+23^{200}\) is divided by \(49\) , is_______


Question 25:

The number of \(3\)-digit numbers, that are divisible by either \(2\) or \(3\) but not divisible by \(7\) , is_________


Question 26:

The number of words, with or without meaning, that can be formed using all the letters of the word ASSASSINATION so that the vowels occur together, is ___________.


Question 27:

Let \(A\) be the area bounded by the curve \(y=x|x-3|\), the \(x\)-axis and the ordinates \(x=-1\) and \(x=2\) Then \(12 A\) is equal to _____


Question 28:

\(A(2,6,2), B(-4,0, \lambda), C(2,3,-1)\) and \(D(4,5,0),|\lambda| \leq 5\) are the vertices of a quadrilateral \(A B C D\) If its area is 18 square units, then \(5-6 \lambda\) is equal to________


Question 29:

If \(f(x)=x^2+g^{\prime}(1) x+g^{\prime \prime}(2)\) and \(g(x)=f(1) x^2+x f^{\prime}(x)+f^{\prime \prime}(x)\), then the value of \(f(4)-g(4)\) is equal to ______


Question 30:

Let \(\vec{v}=\alpha \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-3 \hat{k}, \vec{w}=2 \alpha \hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{u}\) be a vector such that \(|\vec{u}|=\alpha>\) If the minimum value of the scalar triple product \([\vec{u}\,\, \vec{v}\,\, \vec{w}]\) is \(-\alpha \sqrt{3401}\), and \(|\vec{u} \cdot \hat{i}|^2=\frac{m}{n}\) where \(m\) and \(n\) are coprime natural numbers, then \(m+n\) is equal to _____


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Let \(\sigma\) be the uniform surface charge density of two infinite thin plane sheets shown in figure Then the electric fields in three different region \(E_I, E_{I I}\) and \(E_{I I I}\) are:

  • (1) \(\vec{E}_I=0, \vec{E}_{I I}=\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0} \hat{n}, E_{I I I}=0\)
  • (2) \(\vec{E}_I=\frac{2 \sigma}{\epsilon_0} \hat{n}, \vec{E}_{I I}=0, \vec{E}_{I I I}=\frac{2 \sigma}{\epsilon_0} \hat{n}\)
  • (3) \(\vec{E}_I=-\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0} \hat{n}, \vec{E}_{I I}=0, \vec{E}_{I I I}=\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0} \hat{n}\)
  • (4) \(\vec{E}_I=\frac{\sigma}{2 \epsilon_0} \hat{n}, \vec{E}_{I I}=0, \vec{E}_{I I I}=\frac{\sigma}{2 \epsilon_0} \hat{n}\)

Question 32:

' \(n\) ' polarizing sheets are arranged such that each makes an angle \(45^{\circ}\) with the preceeding sheet An unpolarized light of intensity I is incident into this arrangement The output intensity is found to be \(I / 64\) The value of \(n\) will be:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 33: Match List I with List II:
List IList II
AAC generatoriPresence of both L and C
BTransformeriiElectromagnetic Induction
CResonance phenomenon to occuriiiQuality factor
DSharpness of resonanceivMutual Induction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 34: Match List I with List II:
List IList II
AIntrinsic SemiconductorIFermi-level near the conduction band
Bn-type semiconductorIIFermi-level in the middle of valence and conduction band
Cp-type semiconductorIIIFermi-level near the valence band
DMetalsIVFermi-level inside the conduction band
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 35:

Find the magnetic field at the point \(P\) in figure. The curved portion is a semicircle connected to two long straight wires
curved portion is a semicircle

  • (1) \(\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 r}\left(1+\frac{1}{\pi}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 r}\left(1+\frac{2}{\pi}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 r}\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{\pi}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\mu_0 i}{2 r}\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2 \pi}\right)\)

Question 36:

The equivalent resistance between \(A\) and \(B\) of the network shown in figure:

  • (1) \(11 \frac{2}{3} R\)
  • (2) \(14 R\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{3} R\)
  • (4) \(21 R\)

Question 37:

If a planet has mass equal to 16 times the mass of earth, and radius equal to 4 times that of earth. The ratio of escape speed of a planet to that of earth is?

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) √2:1
  • (4) 4:1

Question 38:

A steel wire with mass per unit length \(70 \times 10^{-3} kg\, m ^{-1}\) is under tension of \(70 \,N\).
The speed of transverse waves in the wire will be:

  • (1) \(10 \,m / s\)
  • (2) \(100\, m / s\)
  • (3) \(200 \,\pi m / s\)
  • (4) \(50\, m / s\)

Question 39:

An object moves with speed \(v_1, v_2\) and \(v_3\) along a line segment \(AB , BC\) and \(C D\) respectively as shown in figure Where \(AB = BC\) and \(AD =3 AB\), then average speed of the object will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{\left(v_1+v_2+v_3\right)}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3 v_1 v_2 v_3}{\left(v_1 v_2+v_2 v_3+v_3 v_1\right)}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\left(v_1+v_2+v_3\right)}{3 v_1 v_2 v_3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v_1 v_2 v_3}{3\left(v_1 v_2+v_2 v_3+v_3 v_1\right)}\)

Question 40:

A child stands on the edge of the cliff \(10 m\) above the ground and throws a stone horizontally with an initial speed of \(5 \,ms ^{-1}\) Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with which the stone hits the ground will be ______\(ms ^{-1}\) (given, \(g=10 \,ms ^{-2}\) )

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 25

Question 41:

A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of light has a certain de Broglie wavelength of \(\lambda\) An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy has the same de-Brogle wavelength \(\lambda\) The ratio of kinetic energy of proton and that of alpha particle is:

  • (1) \(2: 1\)
  • (2) \(4: 1\)
  • (3) \(1: 4\)
  • (4) \(1: 2\)

Question 42:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Acceleration due to gravity is different at different places on the surface of earth
Statement II : Acceleration due to gravity increases as we go down below the earth's surface
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement \(I\) is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 43:

A sample of gas at temperature \(T\) is adiabatically expanded to double its volume The work done by the gas in the process is (given, \(\gamma=\frac{3}{2}\))

  • (1) \(W=T R[\sqrt{2}-2]\)
  • (2) \(W=\frac{R}{T}[2-\sqrt{2}]\)
  • (3) \(W=R T[2-\sqrt{2}]\)
  • (4) \(W=\frac{T}{R}[\sqrt{2}-2]\)

Question 44:

A block of mass 100 gm is placed on a smooth surface, moves with the acceleration of a=2x, the change in kinetic energy can be given as \((\frac {x^n}{10})\), find the value of n.


Question 45: Match List I with List II:
List IList II
AMicrowavesiRadioactive decay of the nucleus
BGamma wavesiiRapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons in aerials
CRadio wavesiiiInner shell electrons
DX - raysivKlystron valve
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 46:

The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are respectively \(10073\, u\), \(10087\, u\) and \(40015\, u\) The binding energy of helium nucleus is:

  • (1) \(14.2 \, MeV\)
  • (2) \(7.1 \, MeV\)
  • (3) \(56.8\, MeV\)
  • (4) \(28.4 \, MeV\)

Question 47:

\(\left(P+\frac{a}{V^2}\right)(V-b)=R T\) represents the equation of state of some gases Where \(P\) is the pressure, \(V\) is the volume, \(T\) is the temperature and \(a, b, R\) are the constants The physical quantity, which has dimensional formula as that of \(\frac{b^2}{a}\), will be:

  • (1) Bulk modulus
  • (2) Compressibility
  • (3) Modulus of rigidity
  • (4) Energy density

Question 48:

The average kinetic energy of a molecule of the gas is

  • (1) proportional to absolute temperature
  • (2) proportional to volume
  • (3) dependent on the nature of the gas
  • (4) proportional to pressure

Question 49:

A mercury drop of radius \(10^{-3} m\) is broken into \(125\) equal size droplets Surface tension of mercury is \(045\, Nm ^{-1}\) The gain in surface energy is:

  • (1) \(5 \times 10^{-5} J\)
  • (2) \(17.5 \times 10^{-5} J\)
  • (3) \(2.26 \times 10^{-5} J\)
  • (4) \(28 \times 10^{-5} J\)

Question 50:

Which of the following frequencies does not belong to FM broadcast?

  • (1) \(64 \,MHz\)
  • (2) \(106 \,MHz\)
  • (3) \(99\, MHz\)
  • (4) \(89 \,MHz\)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

Two equal positive point charges are separated by a distance \(2 a\) The distance of a point from the centre of the line joining two charges on the equatorial line (perpendicular bisector) at which force experienced by a test charge \(q_0\) becomes maximum is \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{x}}\) The value of \(x\) is ______


Question 52:

A charge particle of \(2 \,\mu C\) accelerated by a potential difference of \(100\, V\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude \(4 \,mT\) at right angle to the direction of field The charge particle completes semicircle of radius \(3 \,cm\) inside magnetic field The mass of the charge particle is _______ \(\times 10^{-18} kg\)


Question 53:

A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom in its ground state. The atom absorbs the radiation and reaches to one of its excited states. The angular momentum of the atom in the excited state is \(\frac{x}{π} \times 10^{-17} eVs\). The value of x __________ is (use \(h=4.14 \times 10^{-15} eVs\), \(c=3 \times 108 ms^{-1}\)).


Question 54:

A thin cylindrical rod of length \(10\, cm\) is placed horizontally on the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal length \(20 \,cm\) The rod is placed in a such a way that mid point of the rod is at \(40 \,cm\) from the pole of mirror The length of the image formed by the mirror will be \(\frac{x}{3} cm\) The value of \(x\) is ______


Question 55:

A small particle moves to position \(5 \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\) from its initial position \(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}-4 \hat{k}\) under the action of force \(5 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+7 \hat{k} N\). The value of work done will be ________\(J\)


Question 56:

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source of \(220\, V , 50\, Hz\) The circuit contain a resistance \(R =100\, \Omega\) and an inductor of inductive reactance \(X _{ L }=796\, \Omega\) The capacitance of the capacitor needed to maximize the average rate at which energy is supplied will be ________\(\mu F\)


Question 57:

A solid cylinder is released from rest from the top of an inclined plane of inclination 30° and length 60 cm If the cylinder rolls without slipping, its speed upon reaching the bottom of the inclined plane is ________ \(ms ^{-1}\)(Given \(g =10 \,ms ^{-2}\) )


Question 58:

The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is \(3 \,cm\) The displacement at which its kinetic energy will be \(25 \%\) more than the potential energy is:_______ \(cm\)


Question 59:

A certain pressure ' \(P\) ' is applied to \(1\) litre of water and \(2\) litre of a liquid separately Water gets compressed to \(0.01 \%\) whereas the liquid gets compressed to \(0.03 \%\) The ratio of Bulk modulus of water to that of the liquid is \(\frac{3}{x}\) The value of \(x\) is ________


Question 60:

In an experiment to find emf of a cell using potentiometer, the length of null point for a cell of emf \(15 \,V\) is found to be \(60 \,cm\) If this cell is replaced by another cell of emf \(E\), the length-of null point increases by \(40 \,cm\) The value of \(E\) is \(\frac{x}{10} V\) The value of \(x\) is _______


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Which of the following complex will show largest splitting of \(d\)-orbitals?

  • (1) \(\left[ F _{ e }\left( C _2 O _4\right)_3\right]^{3-}\)
  • (2) \(\left[ F _{ e }( CN )_6\right]^{3-}\)
  • (3) \(\left[ F _{ e }\left( NH _3\right)_6\right]^{3+}\)
  • (4) \(\left[ F _{ e } F _6\right]^{3-}\)

Question 62:

Which of the following are the example of double salt?
A \(FeSO _4 \left( NH _4\right)_2 SO _4 \cdot 6 H _2 O\)
B \(CuSO _4 4 NH _3 H _2 O\)
C \(K _2 SO _4 \cdot Al _2\left( SO _4\right)_3 \cdot 24 H _2 O\)
D \(Fe ( CN )_2 \cdot 4 KCN\)
Choose the correct answer

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 63:

Highest oxidation state of \(Mn\) is exhibited in \(Mn _2 O _7\) The correct statements about \(Mn _2 O _7\) are
(A) Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
(B) \(Mn\) is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
(C) Contains \(Mn-O-Mn\) bridge
(D) Contains \(Mn - Mn\) bond
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 64:

The correct representation in six-membered pyranose form for the following sugar \( [X]\) is 

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole of Hydrogen as shown below: 

 

A. A is more soluble than B
B. B The boiling point & melting point of \(A\) are higher and lower than \(B\) respectively 
C. A is more polar than \(B\) because dipole moment of \(A\) is zero 
D. \(Br _2\) adds easily to \(B\) than \(A\) 
Identify the incorrect statements from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C & D only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) B, C & D only
  • (4) B and C only

Question 66:

Resonance in carbonate ion \(\left( CO _3{ }^{2-}\right)\) is

Which of the following is true?

  • (1) All these structures are in dynamic equilibrium with each other.
  • (2) Each structure exists for equal amount of time.
  • (3) \(CO _3{ }^{2-}\) has a single structure i.e., resonance hybrid of the above three structures.
  • (4) It is possible to identify each structure individually by some physical or chemical method.

Question 67:

Match List I with List II

List I TestList II Functional group / Class of Compound
AMolisch's TestIPeptide
BBiuret TestIICarbohydrate
CCarbylamine TestIIIPrimary amine
DSchiff's TestIVAldehyde

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - II, (D) - I
  • (2) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - III, (D) - IV
  • (3) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (4) (A) - I, (B) - II, (C) - III, (D) - IV

Question 68:

In the following reaction, ' \(A\) ' is
 

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69:

A solution of \(FeCl _3\) when treated with \(K _{ t }\left[ Fe ( CN )_6\right]\) gives a prussiun blue precipitate due to the formation of

  • (1) \(Fe \left[ Fe ( CN )_6\right]\)
  • (2) \(K \left[ Fe _2( CN )_6\right]\)
  • (3) \(Fe _4\left[ Fe ( CN )_6\right]_3\)
  • (4) \(Fe _3\left[ Fe ( CN )_6\right]_2\)

Question 70:

Identify the incorrect option from the following:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

Decreasing order of dehydration of the following alcohols is

  • (1) \(a\gt d\gt b\gt c\)
  • (2) \(d \gt b \gt c \gt a\)
  • (3) \(b \gt a \gt d \gt c\)
  • (4) \(b\gt d\gt c\gt a\)

Question 72:

How can photochemical smog be controlled?

  • (1) By using catalytic convertors in the automobiles/industry.
  • (2) By complete combustion of fuel.
  • (3) By using catalyst.
  • (4) By using tall chimneys.

Question 73:

Match List I with List II

List IList II
ASlaked limeI\(NaOH\)
BDead burnt plasterII\(Ca(OH)_2\)
CCaustic sodaIII\(Na_2CO_3 10H_2O\)
DWashing sodaIV\(CaSO_4\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - II, (D) - I
  • (2) (A) - III, (B) - II ,(C)- IV, (D) - I
  • (3) (A) - I, (B) - IV, (C) - II, (D) - III
  • (4) (A) - II ,(B)- IV,(C)- I, (D) - III

Question 74:
Match List I with List II 
List IList II
ATranquilizersiAnti blood clotting
BAspiriniiSalvarsan
CAntibioticiiiAntidepressant drugs
DAntisepticivSoframicine

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - II, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - III
  • (2) (A) - IV, (B) - II, (C) - I, (D) - III
  • (3) (A) - III, (B) - I, (C) - II, (D) - IV
  • (4) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - III, (D) - IV

Question 75:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In an Ellingham diagram, the oxidation of carbon to carbon monoxide shows a negative slope with respect to temperature. 
Reason R: CO tends to get decomposed at higher temperature. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below 

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 76:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion \(A\) and the other is labelled as Reason \(R\)
Assertion A : Hydrogen is an environment-friendly fuel
Reason R : Atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and it is a very light element
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (2) A is true but \(R\) is false
  • (3) \(A\) is false but \(R\) is true
  • (4) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true but \(R\) is NOT the correct explanation of \(A\)

Question 77:

Which of the following represents the lattice structure of \(A _{0.95} O\) containing \(A ^{2+}, A ^{3+}\) and \(O ^{2-}\) ions?

Which of the following represents the lattice structure of A 095 O

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A only
  • (4) B only

Question 78:

Choose the correct statement(s):
A Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature
B Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of \(CO _2\)
C Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in water
D Beryllium shows anomalous behavior
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A only

Question 79:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Chlorine can easily combine with oxygen to form oxides; and the product has a tendency to explode
Statement II : Chemical reactivity of an element can be determined by its reaction with oxygen and halogens
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both the Statements I and II are false
  • (2) Both the Statements I and II are true
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 80:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason \(R\)
Assertion A: Amongst \(He, Ne, Ar\) and \(Kr\); \(1 g\) of activated charcoal adsorbs more of \(Kr\)
Reason R: The critical volume \(V_c\left( cm ^3 mol ^{-1}\right)\) and critical pressure \(P_e\) (atm) is highest for Krypton but the compressibility factor at critical point \(Z_c\) is lowest for Krypton 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true but \(R\) is NOT the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (2) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (3) A is false but \(R\) is true
  • (4) \(A\) is true but \(R\) is false

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

\(25 \,mL\) of an aqueous solution of \(KCl\) was found to require \(20\, mL\) of \(1\, M\) \(AgNO _3\) solution when titrated using \(K _2 CrO _4\) as an indicator What is the depression in freezing point of \(KCl\) solution of the given concentration? _________ (Nearest integer) (Given: \(K _f=20 \,K \,kg \,mol ^{-1}\)) 
Assume 1) \(100 \%\) ionization and 
2) density of the aqueous solution as \(1 \,g \,mL ^{-1}\)


Question 82:

Electrons in a cathode ray tube have been emitted with a velocity of \(1000\, m s ^{-1}\). The number of following statements which is/are true about the emitted radiation is _______ Given : \(h =6 \times 10^{-34} J s , m _e=9 \times 10^{-31} kg\) 
(A) The deBroglie wavelength of the electron emitted is \(66667 nm\)
(B) The characteristic of electrons emitted depend upon the material of the electrodes of the cathode ray tube 
(C) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards anode 
(D) The nature of the emitted electrons depends on the nature of the gas present in cathode ray tube


Question 83:

At what \(pH\), given half cell \(MnO _4^{-}(01 M ) \mid Mn ^{2+}(0001 M )\) will have electrode potential of \(1.282\, V\)? (Nearest Integer)
(Given: \(E _{ MnO _{4}^-| Mn ^{2+}}^{ o }=154 \,V , \frac{2303 RT }{ F }=0059\, V\))


Question 84:

\(A\) and \(B\) are two substances undergoing radioactive decay in a container The half life of \(A\) is \(15 min\) and that of \(B\) is \(5\, min\) If the initial concentration of \(B\) is \(4\) times that of \(A\) and they both start decaying at the same time, how much time will it take for the concentration of both of them to be same? ______ min


Question 85:

At \(25^{\circ} C\), the enthalpy of the following processes are given: 
\(H _2( g )+ O _2( g ) \rightarrow 2 OH ( g ) \Delta H ^{\circ} =78 \,kJ \,mol ^{-1}\)
\(H _2( g )+1 / 2 O _2( g ) \rightarrow H _2 O ( g ) \Delta H ^{\circ} =-242 \,kJ \,mol ^{-1}\)
\(H _2( g ) \rightarrow 2 H ( g ) \Delta H ^{\circ} =436\, kJ \,mol ^{-1}\)
\(1 / 2 O _2( g ) \rightarrow O ( g ) \Delta H ^{\circ} =249\, kJ\, mol ^{-1}\) 
What would be the value of \(X\) for the following reaction?______ (Nearest integer) 
\(H _2 O ( g ) \rightarrow H ( g )+ OH ( g ) \Delta H ^{\circ}= X\, kJ\, mol -1\)


Question 86:

Sum of oxidation states of bromine in bromic acid and perbromic acid is ——-.


Question 87:

Number of isomeric compounds with molecular formula \(C _9 H _{10} O\) which 
(i) do not dissolve in \(NaOH\)
(ii) do not dissolve in \(HCl\)
(iii) do not give orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP 
(iv) on hydrogenation give identical compound with molecular formula \(C _9 H _{12} O\) is _________


Question 88:

The total number of chiral compound/s from the following is ________


Question 89:

(i) \(X ( g ) \rightleftharpoons Y ( g )+ Z\) (g) \(K _{ p 1}=3\)
(ii)\(A ( g ) \rightleftharpoons 2 B ( g )\,\, K _{ p 2}=1\)
If the degree of dissociation and initial concentration of both the reactants \(X ( g )\) and \(A ( g )\) are equal, then the ratio of the total pressure at equilibrium \(\left(\frac{p_1}{p_2}\right)\) is equal to \(x : 1\). The value of \(x\) is _________ (Nearest integer)


Question 90:

The density of \(3 M\) solution of \(NaCl\) is \(10 \,g \,mL -1\). Molality of the solution is _______ \(\times 10^{-2} m\) (Nearest integer). Given: Molar mass of Na and \(Cl\) is \(23\) and \(355 \,g \,mol ^{-1}\) respectively.

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

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