JEE Main 2023 April 11 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 11, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 11 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 11 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

A rectangle is drawn by lines x=0, x=2, y=0 and y=5. Points A and B lie on coordinate axes. If line AB divides the area of rectangle in 4:1, then the locus of mid-point of AB is?

  • (1) Circle
  • (2) Hyperbola
  • (3) Ellipse
  • (4) Straight line

Question 2:

Let \( S = \{ M = [a_{ij}], a_{ij} \in \{0, 1, 2\}, 1 \leq i, j \leq 2 \} \) be a sample space and \( A = \{ M \in S : M \text{ is invertible} \} \) be an event. Then \( P(A) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{16}{27}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{50}{81}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{47}{81}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{46}{81}\)

Question 3:

Let \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_{100}\) be in an arithmetic progression, with \(x_1 = 2\) and their mean equal to 200. If \(y_i = (i \cdot x_i)\), then the mean of \(y_1, y_2, \dots, y_{100}\) is:

  • (1) 10051.50
  • (2) 10100
  • (3) 10101.50
  • (4) 13433

Question 4:

Let \( w_1 \) be the point obtained by the rotation of \( z_1 = 5 + 4i \) about the origin through a right angle in the anticlockwise direction, and \( w_2 \) be the point obtained by the rotation of \( z_2 = 3 + 5i \) about the origin through a right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument of \( w_1 - w_2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \pi - \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{8}{9} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \pi - \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{48}{9} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \pi - \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{33}{5} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \pi - \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{33}{5} \right) \)

Question 5:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be a solution curve of the differential equation \[(1 - x^2 y)\,dx = y\,dx + x\,dy.\] If the line \(x = 1\) intersects the curve \(y = y(x)\) at \(y = 2\) and the line \(x = 2\) intersects the curve \(y = y(x)\) at \(y = \alpha\), then a value of \(\alpha\) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1 - 3e^2}{3(e^{2} - 1)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1 - 3e^2}{2(e^{2} - 1)} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3e^2}{2(e^{2} - 1)} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3e^2}{3(e^{2} - 1)} \)

Question 6:

The value of the integral \[ \int_{\log_2}^{-\log_2} e^x \left( \log \left( e^x + \sqrt{1 + e^{2x}} \right) \right) dx \] is equal to:

  • (1) \(\log \left( \frac{2 + \sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5}} \right)\)
  • (2) \(\log \left( \frac{2 + \sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5}} \right) / 2\)
  • (3) \(\log \left( \frac{2\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5}} \right)\)
  • (4) \(\log \left( \frac{2 + \sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{5}} \right) / 2\)

Question 7:

Let sets A and B have 5 elements each. Let mean of the elements in sets A and B be 5 and 8 respectively and the variance of the elements in sets A and B be 12 and 20 respectively. A new set C of 10 elements is formed by subtracting 3 from each element of A and adding 2 to each element of B. Then the sum of the mean and variance of the elements of C is:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 38

Question 8:

For any vector \( \mathbf{a} = a_1 \hat{i} + a_2 \hat{j} + a_3 \hat{k} \), with \( 10 | \mathbf{a} |<1 \), \( i = 1, 2, 3 \), consider the following statements:

  • (1) Only statement (A) is true
  • (2) Only statement (B) is true
  • (3) Both (A) and (B) are true
  • (4) Neither (A) nor (B) is true

Question 9:

Let A be a \( 2 \times 2 \) matrix with real entries such that \( A^T = \alpha A + I \), where \( \alpha \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{-1, 1\} \). If \( \text{det}(A^2 - A) = 4 \), then the sum of all possible values of \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 10:

Let f(x) = [x2 - x] + [x], where x ∈ R and [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then, f is:

  • (1) Not continuous at \(x = 0\) and at \(x = 1\)
  • (2) Continuous at \(x = 0\) and at \(x = 1\)
  • (3) Continuous at \(x = 1\), but not continuous at \(x = 0\)
  • (4) Continuous at \(x = 0\), but not continuous at \(x = 1\)

Question 11:

Consider ellipse \( E_k : \frac{x^2}{k} + \frac{y^2}{k} = 1 \), for \( k = 1, 2, \dots, 20 \). Let \( C_k \) be the circle which touches the four chords joining the end points (one on the minor axis and another on the major axis) of the ellipse \( E_k \). If \( r_k \) is the radius of the circle \( C_k \), then the value of \( \sum_{k=1}^{20} r_k^2 \) is:

  • (1) 3320
  • (2) 3210
  • (3) 3080
  • (4) 2870

Question 12:

Area of the region \((x, y) : x^2 + (y - 2)^2 \leq 4, \, x^2 \geq 2y\) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (2) \( 2\pi - \frac{16}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \pi - \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \pi \)

Question 13:

Let \( \mathbf{a} \) be a non-zero vector parallel to the line of intersection of the two planes described by \( i + j + k \) and \( -i - j - k \). If \( \theta \) is the angle between the vector \( \mathbf{a} \) and the vector \( \mathbf{b} = -2i - 2j + 2k \), and \( \left| \mathbf{a} \right| = 6 \), then ordered pair \( (\mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{b}) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{2}{3} \sqrt{6} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{3}{2} \sqrt{6} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{3}{5} \sqrt{6} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{2}{5} \sqrt{6} \right) \)

Question 14:

The number of triplets \( (x, y, z) \), where \( x, y, z \) are distinct non-negative integers satisfying \( x + y + z = 15 \), is:

  • (1) 136
  • (2) 114
  • (3) 80
  • (4) 92

Question 15:

The number of integral solutions of \( \log_2 \left( \frac{x - 7}{2x - 3} \right) \geq 0 \) is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

Question 16:

An organization awarded 48 medals in event 'A', 25 in event 'B' and 18 in event 'C'. If these medals went to total 60 men and only five men got medals in all the three events, then how many received medals in exactly two of three events?

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 10

Question 17:

Let (α, β, γ) be the image of the point P(3, 3, 5) in the plane 2x + y - 3z = 6. Then α + β + γ is equal to:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 12

Question 18:

If equation of the plane that contains the point \((-2,3,5)\) and is perpendicular to each of the planes \( 2x + 4y + 5z = 8 \) and \( 3x - 2y + 3z = 5 \), is \( \alpha x + \beta y + \gamma z = 97 \), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is:

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 16

Question 19:

Let \( f: [2, 4] \to \mathbb{R} \) be a differentiable function such that \( (x \log x) f'(x) + (\log x) f(x) \geq 1 \), \( x \in [2, 4] \) with \( f(2) = \frac{1}{2} \) and \( f(4) = \frac{1}{4} \). Consider the following two statements:
\( (A) \quad f(x) \geq 1 \quad \text{for all} \quad x \in [2, 4] \)
\( (B) \quad f(x) \leq \frac{1}{8} \quad \text{for all} \quad x \in [2, 4] \) Then,

  • (1) Only statement (B) is true
  • (2) Only statement (A) is true
  • (3) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) is true
  • (4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are true

Question 20:

The number of elements in the set \(S = \{ \theta \in [0, 2\pi] : 3 \cos^4 \theta - 5 \cos^2 \theta - 2 \sin^2 \theta + 2 = 0 \}\) is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 12

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 2 \\ 1 & 0 & 3 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \), where \( a, c \in \mathbb{R} \). If \( A^n = A \) and the positive value of \( a \) belongs to the interval \( (n-1, n] \), where \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), then \( n \) is equal to:


Question 22:

Let \( H_n : \frac{x^2}{1 + n} + \frac{y^2}{3 + n} = 1, n \in \mathbb{N} \). Let \( k \) be the smallest even value of \( n \) such that the eccentricity of \( H_n \) is a rational number. If \( l \) is the length of the latus rectum of \( H_k \), then 21 \( l \) is equal to:


Question 23:

For \( m, n>0 \), let \( \alpha(m,n) = \int_{0}^{1} (1 + 3t)^{n} \, dt \). If \( \alpha(10,6) = \int_{0}^{1} (1 + 3t)^{6} \, dt \) and \( \alpha(11,5) = p(14)^{5} \), then \( p \) is equal to:


Question 24:

In an examination, 5 students have been allotted their seats as per their roll numbers. The number of ways, in which none of the students sit on the allotted seat, is:


Question 25:

Let a line \( l \) pass through the origin and be perpendicular to the lines \[ l_1: \vec{r}_1 = i + j + 7k + \lambda(i + 2j + 3k), \quad \lambda \in \mathbb{R} \] \[ l_2: \vec{r}_2 = -i + j + 2k + \mu(i + 2j + k), \quad \mu \in \mathbb{R} \] If \( P \) is the point of intersection of \( l_1 \) and \( l_2 \), and \( Q (a, b, \gamma) \) is the foot of perpendicular from P on \( l \), then \( (a + b + \gamma) \) is equal to:


Question 26:

The mean of coefficients of x, x2, ....., x7 in the binomial expansion of (2 + x)9 is?


Question 27:

Let a and b are roots of x2 – 7x – 1 = 0. The value of \(\frac{a^{21} + b^{21} + a^{17} + b^{17}}{a^{19} + b^{19}}\) is?

  • (1) 29
  • (2) 49
  • (3) 53
  • (4) 51

Question 28:

The number of integral terms in the expansion of (31/2 + 51/4)680 is equal to:


Question 29:

The number of ordered triplets of the truth values of \( p, q, r \) and such that the truth value of the statement \[ (p \lor q) \land (p \lor r) \implies (q \lor r) \text{ is True, is equal to:} \]


Question 30:

Let \( S = 109 + \frac{108}{5} + \frac{107}{5^2} + \frac{106}{5^3} + \cdots \). Then the value of \( (16S - (25)^{3}) \) is equal to:


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Given below are two statements:
Statements 1: Astronomical unit (AU), Parsec (pc) and Light year (ly) are units for measuring astronomical distances.
Statement 2: The light of the above distances, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • (2) Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Question 32:

1 kg of water at 100°C is converted into steam at 100°C by boiling at atmospheric pressure. The volume of water changes from \(1.00 \times 10^{-3}\, \text{m}^3\) as a liquid to \(1.671 \times 10^{-3}\, \text{m}^3\) as steam. The change in internal energy of the system during the process will be:

  • (1) + 2476 kJ
  • (2) -2426 kJ
  • (3) -2090 kJ
  • (4) +2090 kJ

Question 33:

The critical angle for a denser refractive index is 45°. The speed of light in water medium is \( 3 \times 10^8 \) m/s. The speed of light in the denser medium is:

  • (1) \( 2.12 \times 10^7 \, \text{m/s} \)
  • (2) \( 5 \times 10^7 \, \text{m/s} \)
  • (3) \( 3.12 \times 10^7 \, \text{m/s} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{5} \times 10^7 \, \text{m/s} \)

Question 34:

On a temperature scale X, the boiling point of water is 65° X and the freezing point is 15° X. Assume that the X scale is linear. The equivalent temperature corresponding to 95° X on the Fahrenheit scale would be:

  • (1) 63° F
  • (2) 148° F
  • (3) 48° F
  • (4) 112° F

Question 35:

The radii of two planets 'A' and 'B' are 'R' and '4R' and their densities are \( \rho \) and \( \frac{\rho}{3} \) respectively. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at their surfaces (i.e. \( g_A : g_B \)) will be:

  • (1) 1:16
  • (2) 3:16
  • (3) 3:4
  • (4) 4:3

Question 36:

Three vessels of equal volume contain gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains neon (monoatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic) and the third contains uranium hexafluoride (polyatomic). Arrange these on the basis of their root mean square speed (\( V_{\text{rms}} \)) and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \( V_{\text{rms}} \text{(mono)}>V_{\text{rms}} \text{(dia)}>V_{\text{rms}} \text{(poly)} \)
  • (2) \( V_{\text{rms}} \text{(dia)}<V_{\text{rms}} \text{(poly)}<V_{\text{rms}} \text{(mono)} \)
  • (3) \( V_{\text{rms}} \text{(mono)}<V_{\text{rms}} \text{(dia)}<V_{\text{rms}} \text{(poly)} \)
  • (4) \( V_{\text{rms}} \text{(mono)} = V_{\text{rms}} \text{(dia)} = V_{\text{rms}} \text{(poly)} \)

Question 37:

The logic performed by the circuit shown in the figure is equivalent to:
the logic operation performed by the given circuit

  • (1) AND gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) NOR gate
  • (4) NAND gate

Question 38:

A coin placed on a rotating table just slips when it is placed at a distance of 1 cm from the center. If the angular velocity of the table is halved, it will just slip when placed at a distance of ----- from the centre:

  • (1) 6 cm
  • (2) 4 cm
  • (3) 2 cm
  • (4) 1 cm

Question 39:

The variation of kinetic energy (KE) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with the displacement (x) starting from mean position to extreme position (A) is given by:

  • (1) Parabola
  • (2) Straight line
  • (3) Kinetic energy and displacement are inversely proportional
  • (4) Sine curve

Question 40:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential V. The energy stored in the capacitor is E. The capacitor is now connected to another uncharged identical capacitor in parallel combination. The energy stored in the combination is E₅. The ratio \( E_5 / E_1 \) is:

  • (1) 2 : 3
  • (2) 1 : 2
  • (3) 1 : 4
  • (4) 2 : 1

Question 41:

The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given as \[ \vec{E} = 20 \sin \left( \omega t - \frac{x}{c} \right) \, \hat{j} \, \text{N/C} \] where \( \omega \) and \( c \) are angular frequency and velocity of electromagnetic wave respectively. The energy contained in a volume of \( 5 \times 10^4 \, \text{m}^3 \) will be (Given \( \epsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{C}^2 / \text{Nm}^2 \)):

  • (1) \( 8.85 \times 10^{-13} \, \text{J} \)
  • (2) \( 17.7 \times 10^{-13} \, \text{J} \)
  • (3) \( 8.85 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{J} \)
  • (4) \( 28.5 \times 10^{-13} \, \text{J} \)

Question 42:

An average force of 125 N is applied on a machine gun firing bullets each of mass 10 g at the speed of 250 m/s to keep it in position. The number of bullets fired per second by the machine gun is:

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 50

Question 43:

A metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\), the stopping potential is \(V_0\). If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(2\lambda\), the stopping potential becomes \(\frac{V_0}{4}\). The threshold wavelength for this metallic surface will be

  • (1) \(3\lambda\)
  • (2) \(4\lambda\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\lambda\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)

Question 44:

The free space inside a current carrying toroid is filled with a material of susceptibility \( 2 \times 10^3 \). The percentage increase in the value of magnetic field inside the toroid will be:

  • (1) 0.2%
  • (2) 1%
  • (3) 2%
  • (4) 0.1%

Question 45:

From the v - t graph shown, the ratio of distance to displacement in 25 s of motion is:

 ratio of distance to displacement in 25 s of motion

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 46:

Two identical heater filaments are connected first in parallel and then in series. At the same applied voltage, the ratio of heat produced in same time for parallel to series will be:

  • (1) 1 : 2
  • (2) 4 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 4
  • (4) 2 : 1

Question 47:

As per the given graph, choose the correct representation for curve A and curve B.

representation for curve A and curve B

(Where \( X_L = \) reactance of pure inductive circuit connected with A.C. source, \( X_C = \) reactance of pure capacitive circuit connected with A.C. source, \( R = \) impedance of pure resistive circuit connected with A.C. source, and \( Z = \) impedance of the LCR series circuit)

  • (1) \( A = X_L, B = R \)
  • (2) \( A = X_L, B = X_C \)
  • (3) \( A = X_C, B = R \)
  • (4) \( A = X_C, B = X_L \)

Question 48:

The current sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is increased by 25%.This increase is achieved only by changing in the number of turns of coils and area of cross section of the wire while keeping the resistance of galvanometer coil constant. The percentage change in the voltage sensitivity will be :

  • (1) +25%
  • (2) -25%
  • (3) -50%
  • (4) Zero

Question 49:

Two radioactive elements A and B initially have the same number of atoms. The half-life of A is the same as the average life of B. If \( \lambda_A \) and \( \lambda_B \) are the decay constants of A and B respectively, then choose the correct relation from the given options:

  • (1) \( \lambda_A = 2\lambda_B \)
  • (2) \( \lambda_A = \lambda_B \)
  • (3) \( \lambda_A \ln 2 = \lambda_B \)
  • (4) \( \lambda_A = \lambda_B \ln 2 \)

Question 50:

A transmitting antenna is kept on the surface of the earth. The minimum height of receiving antenna required to receive the signal in line of sight at 4 km distance from it is \( x \times 10^{-2} \) m. The value of \( x \) is:

  • (1) 125
  • (2) 12.5
  • (3) 1250
  • (4) 1.25

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The equation of wave is given by \( Y = 10^2 \sin 2 \pi \left( (60t - 0.5x + \frac{\pi}{4}) \right) \) where \( x \) and \( Y \) are in m and t in s. The speed of the wave is _____ km h\(^{-1}\).


Question 52:

As shown in the figure, a configuration of two equal point charges (q0 = + 2 \(\mu\)C) is placed on an inclined plane. Mass of each point charge is 20g. Assume that there is no friction between charge and plane. For the system of two point charges to be in equilibrium (at rest) the height \( h = x \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m} \). The value of \( x \) is _____

configuration of two equal point charges


Question 53:

A projectile fired at \(30^{\circ}\) to the ground is observed to be at the same height at time 3s and 5s after projection, during its flight. The speed of projection of the projectile is_____ ms\(^{-1}\).


Question 54:

The magnetic field B crossing normally a square metallic plate of area \( 4 \, \text{m}^2 \) is changing with time as shown in the figure. The magnitude of induced emf in the plate during \( t = 2 \, \text{s} \) to \( t = 4 \, \text{s} \) is _______ mV.

 magnetic field B crossing normally a square metallic plate


Question 55:

A force \( \mathbf{F} = (2 + 3x) \hat{i})\) acts on a particle in the \( x \)-direction where \( F \) is in newton and \( x \) is in meter. The work done by this force during a displacement from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = 4 \, \text{m} \) is _____ J.


Question 56:

A solid sphere of mass 500 g and radius 5 cm is rotated about one of its diameter with angular speed of 10 rad/s. If the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent is \( x \times 10^2 \) times its angular momentum about the diameter. Then the value of \( x \) will be_____


Question 57:

The length of a wire becomes \( l_1 \) and \( l_2 \) when 100 N and 120 N tensions are applied respectively. If \( l_1 = 11 \, \text{l}_0 \), the natural length of the wire will be \( \frac{1}{x} \, l_1 \). Here the value of \( x \) is _____


Question 58:

The radius of curvature of each surface of a convex lens having refractive index 1.8 is 20 cm. The lens is now immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5. The ratio of power of lens in air to its power in the liquid will be:


Question 59:

A monochromatic light is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb a fraction of light and subsequently emit radiation of six different wavelengths. The frequency of incident light is \( x \times 10^{15} \, \text{Hz} \). The value of \( x \) is_______


Question 60:

Find the current flowing in 3Ω resistor in the given circuit

  • (1) 0.4A
  • (2) 0.2A
  • (3) 0.8A
  • (4) 0.6A

Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Find out the correct statement from the options given below for the above 2 reactions.

nucleophile

  • (1) Reaction (I) is of 1st order and reaction (II) is of 2nd order 
     
  • (2) Reaction (I) and (II) both are 2nd order 
     
  • (3) Reaction (I) is of 1st order and reaction (II) is of 1st order 
     
  • (4) Reaction (I) is of 2nd order and reaction (II) is of 1st order

Question 62:

In the above reaction 'A' and 'B' are:

A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are

  • (1)
    A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are
  • (2)
    A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are
  • (3)
    A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are
  • (4)
    A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are

Question 63:

The complex that dissolves in water is:

  • (1) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃, Prussian Blue insoluble
  • (2) Fe₆[Fe(CN)₆]₃
  • (3) K₄[Co(CO)₆]
  • (4) (NH₄)₆[As(MoO₄)₆]

Question 64:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In the photoelectric effect electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light of frequency greater than threshold frequency strikes the surface.
Reason R: When the photon of any energy strikes an electron in the atom transfer of energy from the photon to the electron takes place.

  • (1) Assertion A is correct but Reason R is not correct
  • (2) Assertion A is not correct and Reason R is correct
  • (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 65: Match list I with list II:
List ISpeciesList IIGeometry/ Shape
AH3 O+ITetrahedral
BAcetylide anionIILinera
CNH4 +IIIPyramidal
DClO2–IVBent

Choose correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 66:

For elements B, C, N, Li, Be, O and F, the correct order of first ionization enthalpy is:

  • (1) \(\text{B<Li<Be<C<O<N<F} \)
     
  • (2) \(\text{Li<C<B<O<N<F} \)
     
  • (3) \(\text{Li<C<B<O<N<F} \)
     
  • (4) \(\text{Li<B<C<O<N<F}\)

Question 67:

25 mL of silver nitrate solution (1M) is added dropwise to 25 mL of potassium iodide (1.05 M) solution. The ions(s) present in very small quantity in the solution is/are:

  • (1) NO₃⁻ only
  • (2) Ag⁺ and I⁻ both
  • (3) Ag⁺ only
  • (4) I⁻ only

Question 68:

When a solution of mixture having two inorganic salts was treated with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate in acidic medium, a dark brown ferric ion was formed when treated with ferric chloride. It gave deep red colour which disappeared on boiling and a brown red ppt was formed. The mixture contains:

  • (1) CO\(_3^{2-}\) & NO\(_3^{-}\)
  • (2) SO\(_4^{2-}\) & CH\(_3\)COO\(^-\)
  • (3) CH\(_3\)COO\(^-\) & FeCl\(_3\)
  • (4) SO\(_4^{2-}\) & CH\(_3\)COO\(^-\)

Question 69:

Thin layer chromatography of a mixture shows the following observation:

Thin layer chromatography

The correct order of elution in the silica gel column chromatography is .

  • (1) A>B>C
  • (2) C>A>B
  • (3) A>C>B
  • (4) B>C>A

Question 70:

\(\text{o-Phenylenediamine}\) \(\xrightarrow{HNO_3} X\text{ Major Product X is}\): 

  • (1)
    o-Phenylenediamine
  • (2)
    o-Phenylenediamine
  • (3)
    o-Phenylenediamine
  • (4)
    o-Phenylenediamine

Question 71:

For compound having the formula GaCl\(_3\), the correct option from the following is:

  • (1) Ga forms bond with Cl in GaCl\(_3\).
  • (2) Ga is coordinated with Cl in GaCl\(_3\).
  • (3) Ga is more electronegative than Cl and is present as a cationic part of the salt.
  • (4) Oxidation state of Ga in GaCl\(_3\) is +3.

Question 72:

The set which does not have ambidentate ligands (labeled as (i)) is:

  • (1) CO\(_3^{2-}\), NO\(_3^{-}\), NCS\(^-\)
  • (2) EDTA\(^-\), NCS\(^-\), CO\(_2^{2-}\)
  • (3) NO\(^-\), CO\(_3^{2-}\), EDTA\(^-\)
  • (4) CO\(_2^{2-}\), ethylene diamine, H\(_2\)O

Question 73:

L-isomer of tetrose X (\(C_4H_8O_4\)) gives positive Schiff’s test and has two chiral carbons. On acetylation, ‘X’ yields triacetate. ‘X’ undergoes following reactions

L-isomer of tetrose
Chiral compound ‘X’ is

  • (1)
    Chiralcompound  ‘X’ is
  • (2)
    Chiralcompound  ‘X’ is
  • (3)
    Chiralcompound  ‘X’ is
  • (4)
    Chiralcompound  ‘X’ is

Question 74:

Which of the following complex has a possibility to exist as meridional isomer?

  • (1) [Co(en)\(_3\)]Cl\(_3\)
  • (2) [Pt(NH\(_3\))\(_2\)]Cl\(_2\)
  • (3) [Co(en)\(_3\)]
  • (4) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_3\)(NO\(_3\))\(_3\)]

Question 75:

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of rate of aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction:

aromatic electrophilic substitution

  • (1) (a)<(b)<(c)
  • (2) (b)<(c)<(a)
  • (3) (c)<(a)<(b)
  • (4) (c)<(b)<(a)

Question 76:

The polymer X consists of linear molecules and is closely packed. It is prepared in the presence of triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride under low pressure. The polymer X is:

  • (1) Polyacrylonitrile
  • (2) Polyterephthalate
  • (3) Low density polyethylene
  • (4) High density polyethylene

Question 77:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Methane and steam passed over a heated Ni catalyst produces hydrogen gas.
Statement II: Sodium nitrate reacts with NH\(_4\)Cl to give H\(_2\)O and NaCl.

  • (1) Both the statement I and II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both the statements I and II are correct

Question 78:

In the extraction process of copper, the product obtained after carrying out the reactions \[ \text{CuO} + \text{H}_2 \rightarrow \text{Cu} + \text{H}_2 \text{O} \] is called:

  • (1) Reduced copper
  • (2) Blister copper
     
  • (3) Copper scrap
     
  • (4) Copper slag

Question 79:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If BOD value is 4 ppm and dissolved oxygen is 8 ppm, it is a good quality water.
Statement II: If the concentration of zinc and nitrate is 5 ppm, then it can be used as good quality water.

  • (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
  • (3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
  • (4) Both statements I and II are correct

Question 80:
Match list I with list II:

List I

List II

AKIThermonuclear reactions
BKClIIFertilizer
CKOHIIISodium potassium pump
DLiIVAbsorbent of CO2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200g of its 25% solution and 500g of its 40% solution (both by mass). The mass percentage of the resulting sugar solution is ______ (Nearest integer)


Question 82:

0.004 M K₂SO₄ solution is isotonic with 0.01 M glucose solution. Percentage dissociation of K₂SO₄ is______ (Nearest integer)


Question 83:

The ratio of spin-only magnetic moment values \( \mu_{\text{eff}}[Cr(CN)_6]^{3-}/\mu_{\text{eff}}[Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \) is_____


Question 84:

The above reaction was studied at 300 K by monitoring the concentration of FeSO₄, in which initial concentration was 10 M and after half an hour became 8.8 M. The rate of production of Fe₂(SO₄)₃ is _____ × 10⁻⁶ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹


Question 85:

The number of hyperconjugation structures involved to stabilize carbocation formed in the below reaction is _______

hyperconjugation structures


Question 86:

The ratio x/y on completion of the above reaction is _____

 ratio x/y on completion of


Question 87:

A mixture of 1 mole of H₂O and 1 mole of CO is taken in a 10 liter container and heated to 725 K. At equilibrium, 10 M of water by mass reacts with carbon monoxide according to the equation: \[ CO(g) + H_2O(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g) + H_2(g) \] The equilibrium constant \( K_c \times 10^7 \) for the reaction is ______


Question 88:

Solid fuel used in rocket is a mixture of Fe₂O₃ and Al (in ratio 1 : 2) the heat evolved (KJ) per gram of the mixture is ______ (Nearest integer)
Given \(\Delta H_f^{\circ}(Al_2O_3) = -1700 \, \text{KJ mol}^{-1}\)
\(\Delta H_f^{\circ}(Fe_2O_3) = -840 \, \text{KJ mol}^{-1}\)


Question 89:

In an electrochemical reaction of lead, at standard temperature, if \( E^{\circ}(\text{Pb}^{2+}/\text{Pb}) = m \) volt and \( E^{\circ}(\text{Pb}^{4+}/\text{Pb}^{2+}) = n \) volt, then the value of \( E^{\circ}(\text{Pb}^{4+}/\text{Pb}) \) is given by \( m - xn \). The value of \( x \) is ____


Question 90:

An atomic substance A of molar mass 12 g mol\(^{-1}\) has a cubic crystal structure with edge length of 300 pm. The no. of atoms present in one unit cell of A is _____ (Nearest integer)

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 11 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis April 11 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam conducted on April 11 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam conducted on April 11 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

Also Check:

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

JEE Main aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the question papers from the January Session. The table below shows JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for Session 1 to practice.

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