JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 6, 2023, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If the coefficient of x7 in (\(ax^2 +\frac{ 1}{2bx}^{11}\)) and x-7 in (\(ax - \frac{1}{3bx^2}^{11}\)), are euual then

  • (1) 32ab=729
  • (2) 64ab=243
  • (3) 243ab=64
  • (4) 729ab=32

Question 2:

The area enclosed by \(y = |x-1| + |x-2|\) and \(y = 3\)


Question 3:

All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all possible orders and these words are written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. Then the serial number of the word PUBLIC is:

  • (1) 580
  • (2) 578
  • (3) 576
  • (4) 582

Question 4:

If \(a ≠ ±b\) and are purely real, z ϵ complex number, \(Re(az^{2}+bz)=a\) and \(Re(bz^{2}+az)=b\) then number of value of z possible is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 5:

Let \(P\) be a square matrix such that \(P^2 = I - P\). For \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma, \delta \in \mathbb{N}\), if \(P^\alpha + P^\beta = \gamma I - 29P\) and \(P^\alpha - P^\beta = \delta I - 13P\), then \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma - \delta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 18

Question 6:

Among the statements:

  • (1) only (S1) is correct
     
  • (2) both (S1) and (S2) are correct
  • (3) only (S2) is correct
  • (4) both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect

Question 7:

If the solution curve f(x, y) = 0 of the differential equation (1+loge x) \(\frac{dx}{dy} \)- x loge x = ey , x > 0, passes through the points (1,0) and (α, 2) then αa is equal to

  • (1) \(e^{e^{2}}\)
  • (2) \(e^{\sqrt2e^{2}}\)
  • (3) \(e^{2e^{\sqrt2}}\)
  • (4) \(e^{2e^{2}}\)

Question 8:

If \(f(x) + f(\pi-x) = \pi^{2}\) then \(_{0}\int^{\pi}f(x) sinx dx\) ?

  • (1) π2
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi_2}{4}\)
  • (3) 2π2
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi_2}{8}\)

Question 9:

\(lim _{n→∞}{(2^½-2^½)(2^½-2^½)….(2^½-^2{\frac{1}{2n+1}})}\) is equal to

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt2\)

Question 10:

In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of the two languages. If the number of persons, who speak only English is a and the number of persons who speak only Hindi is b, then the eccentricity of the ellipse 25(β2 x2 + α2 y2) = α2 β2 is

  • (1) \(\frac{117}{12}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{119}{12}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{129}{12}\)
  • (4) \(3\frac{15}{12}\)

Question 11:

Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting different numbers on the three dice is \(\frac{p}{q}\), where \(p\) and \(q\) are co-prime, then \(q - p\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3

Question 12:

For the system of equations
\(x+y+z=6\)
\(x+2y+\alpha z=10\)
\(x+3y+5z=\beta\),
which one of the following is NOT true?

  • (1) System has a unique solution for \(\alpha=3,\ \beta\neq 14\).
  • (2) System has infinitely many solutions for \(\alpha=3,\ \beta=14\).
  • (3) System has no solution for \(\alpha=3,\ \beta=24\).
  • (4) System has a unique solution for \(\alpha=-3,\ \beta=14\).

Question 13:

Let the sets A and B denote the domain and range respectively of the function \(f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt[x]-x}\) where [x] denotes the smallest integer greater than or equal to x . Then among the statements 
(S1) : A ∩ B = (1, ∞) – N and  
(S2) : A ∪ B = (1, ∞) 

  • (1) (1) only (S1) is true
  • (2) both (S1) and (S2) are true 
  • (3) neither (S1) nor (S2) is true
  • (4) only (S2) is true

Question 14:

A plane P contains the line of intersection of the plane  \(\overrightarrow{r} .( \^i+\^j+\^k )=6\) and \(\overrightarrow{r }.( 2\^i+3\^j+4\^k) = − 5\).  If P passes through the point (0, 2, –2), then the square of distance of the point (12, 12, 18) from the plane P is 

  • (1) 155
  • (2) 310
  • (3) 620
  • (4) 1240

Question 15:

If gcd \( (m, n) = 1 \) and \[ 1^2 - 2^2 + 3^2 - 4^2 + \cdots + (2022)^2 - (2023)^2 = 1012 \, m^2 n \] then \( m^2 - n^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 240
  • (2) 180
  • (3) 220
  • (4) 200

Question 16:

Let the vectors \(\mathbf{a}, \mathbf{b}, \mathbf{c}\) represent three coterminous edges of a parallelepiped of volume \(V\). Then the volume of the parallelepiped, whose coterminous edges are represented by \(\mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} + \mathbf{c}\) and \(\mathbf{a} + 2\mathbf{b} + 3\mathbf{c}\), is equal to:

  • (1) V
  • (2) 2 V
  • (3) 3 V
  • (4) 6 V

Question 17:

If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + y = 5 meet at the point R  \(( \frac{9}{4},2 ) \)then the area of the triangle PQR is 

  • (1) \(\frac{13}{8}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{4}\)

Question 18:

Among the statements
(S1) : \((p\Rightarrow q)\vee((\sim p)\wedge q)\) is a tautology
(S2) : \((q\Rightarrow p)\Rightarrow((\sim p)\wedge q)\) is a contradiction

  • (1) neither (S1) and (S2) is True
  • (2) only (S2) is True
  • (3) both (S1) and (S2) are True
  • (4) only (S1) is True

Question 19:

Let the line L pass through the point (0, 1, 2), intersect the line  \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{4}\) and be parallel to the plane 2x + y – 3z = 4. Then the distance of the point P(l, –9, 2) from the line L is 

  • (1) \(\sqrt54\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt69\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt74\)
  • (4) 9

Question 20:

The sum of all values of \( \alpha \), for which the points whose position vectors are:

\[ \mathbf{r_1} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{r_2} = 2\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{r_3} = (\alpha+1)\hat{i} + 2\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{r_4} = \hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \]

are coplanar, is equal to:

  • (1) -2
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:
Let the mean and variance of the frequency distribution
xi246810121416
fi44α158β45
are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of α2+β2-αβ is ____.

Question 22:

Let the eccentricity of an ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\), is reciprocal to that of the hyperbola 2x2-2y2=1. if the ellipse intersects the hyperbola at right angles, then square of length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse is___.


Question 23:

Find all the four letter words with two vowels and 2 consonants from the word UNIVERSE?


Question 24:

The value of tan 9°-tan27°-tan63°+tan81° is____.


Question 25:

For α, β, z ∈ C and λ > 1, if \(\sqrt{λ - 1}\) is the radius of the circle |z - α|2 + |z - β|2 = 2λ, then |α - β| is equal to _____.


Question 26:

If the lines \(\frac{x−1}{2}=\frac{2−y }{−3} =\frac{ z−3 }{α}\)  and \( \frac{x−4 }{5} =\frac{y−1}{ 2}= \frac{z}{ β}\) intersect, then the magnitude of the minimum value of 8αβ is ___.


Question 27:

If \((20)^{19}\) + \(2(21)(20)^{18} + 3(21)^2 (20)^{17} +\) \(\cdots + 20(21)^{19} =\) \(k(20)^{19}\), then \(k\) is equal to _____ :


Question 28:

The number of points, where the curve y = x5 – 20x3 + 50x + 2 crosses the x-axis, is _____.


Question 29:

Let a curve y = f(x), x ∈ (0, ∞) pass through the points  \(p ( 1\frac{3 }{2} )\) and  Q \( ( a,\frac{1 }{2} )\). If the tangent at any point R(b, f(b)) to the given curve cuts the y-axis at the point S (0, c) such that bc = 3, then (PQ)2 is equal to ______.


Question 30:

Let \(f(x) = \frac{x}{(1 + x^n)^{1/n}},\ x \in \mathbb{R} - \{-1\},\ n \in \mathbb{N},\ n > 2\).
If \(f^n(x) = (f \circ f \circ f \circ \ldots\) upto \(n\) times\()(x)\), then \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^1 x^{n-2}\left(f^n(x)\right)dx\) is equal to ___________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0 m/s along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of 2.0 m/s\(^2\). The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 m/s is

  • (1) 25 S
  • (2) 20 S
  • (3) 30 S
  • (4) 15 S

Question 32:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R  
Assertion A: The phase difference of two light waves change if they travel through different media having same thickness, but different indices of refraction.  
Reason R: The wavelengths of waves are different in different media.  
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below 

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 33:

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200K is v0. Then, r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be

  • (1) \(\frac{v_o}{4}\)
  • (2) \(2v_0\)
  • (3) \(v_0\)
  • (4) \(4v_0\)

Question 34:

The energy associated with electric field is E and with magnetic field is B for an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by( \(∈_0\)-permittivity of free space \(μ_0\)-permeability of free space) 

  • (1) \(U_E=\frac{E^2}{2∈_0},U_B=\frac{μ_0B^2}{2}\)
  • (2) \(U_E=\frac{∈E^2}{2},U_B=\frac{μ_0B^2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(U_E=\frac{E^2}{2∈_0},U_B=\frac{B^2}{2μ_0}\)
  • (4) \(U_E=\frac{∈_0E^2}{2},U_B=\frac{B^2}{2μ_0}\)

Question 35:

A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical bench. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens are placed at 80 cm mark and lm mark, respectively. The image of the object pin on the other side of lens coincides with image pin that is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation of focal length is

  • (1) 0.51
  • (2) 0.85
  • (3) 1.02
  • (4) 1.70

Question 36:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R  
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal's principle is observed. 
Reason R: A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (4) A is correct but R is not correct

Question 37:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.  
Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude if the junction is forward biased.  
Reason R: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward biased.  
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 38:

A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 µF is connected to an alternating source of emf given by E = 36 sin(120πt) V. The maximum value of current in the circuit is approximately equal to

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2A}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{2A}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}A\)
  • (4) 2A

Question 39:

Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The potentials at the points a, b and c are 30V, 12V and 2V respectively. the currents through the 20 resistors will be.
electric circuit.  jee main 2023

  • (1) 0.2 A
  • (2) 0.6 A
  • (3) 0.4 A
  • (4) 1.0 A

Question 40:

As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed π m/s. Considering its motion from A to B, the magnitude of the average velocity is

  • (1) π m/s
  • (2) \(\sqrt3\,m/s\)
  • (3) \(1.5\sqrt3\,m/s\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt3\,m/s\)

Question 41:

The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is

  • (1) 1.24
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 1.5
  • (4) 2

Question 42:

The temperature of the body drops from 60°C to 40°C in 7 min. The surrounding temperature is 10°C. The temperature of the body drops from 40°C to T°C in 7 min. Find the value of T

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 30

Question 43:

A dipole comprises of two charged particles of identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. The mass ‘m’ of the positive charged particle is half of the mass of the negative charged particle. The two charges are separated by a distance ‘l’. If the dipole is placed in a uniform electric field ‘\(\overrightarrow{E}\); such a way that dipole axis makes a very small angle with the electric field, ‘\(\overrightarrow{E}\)'. The angular frequency of the oscillations of the dipole when released is given by.

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{4qE}{3ml}}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{8qE}{3ml}}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{4qE}{ml}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{8qE}{ml}}\)

Question 44:

The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature is:

  • (1) 4 : 1
  • (2) 1 : 2
  • (3) 1 : 1
  • (4) 1 : 4

Question 45:

A student is provided with a variable voltage source V, a test resistor Rr = 10Ω, two identical galvanometers G1 and G2 and two additional resistors, R1 = 10MΩ and R2 = 0.001Ω. For conducting an experiment to verify ohms law, the most suitable circuit is

  • (1) voltage source V, a test resistor
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 46:

The potential energy of an electron is defined as U = \(\frac 12\) mw2x2 and follows Bohr’s law. Radius of orbit as function of n depends on? (w is same constant)

  • (1) n2
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{n}\)
  • (4) \(n^\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 47:

A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-goround that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 s. The radius of the merry-go-round is 2 m. The centrifugal force on the child will be

  • (1) 40 N
  • (2) 50 N
  • (3) 80 N
  • (4) 100 N

Question 48:

The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 100 N. The gravitational force on it when taken at a height, from the surface of earth, equal to one-fourth the radius of the earth is:

  • (1) 25 N
  • (2) 64 N
  • (3) 100 N
  • (4) 50 N

Question 49:

Choose the incorrect statement from the given statements.

  • (1) Planets revolve around the Sun with constant linear speed.
  • (2) Energy of the planet in elliptical orbit is constant.
  • (3) Satellites in circular motion have constant energy.
  • (4) Body falling towards the Earth results in negligible displacement of the Earth.

Question 50:

For an amplitude modulated wave the minimum amplitude is 3V, while the modulation index is 60%. The maximum amplitude of the modulated wave is

  • (1) 5 V
  • (2) 10 V
  • (3) 12 V
  • (4) 15 V

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an electron. So the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is\(\frac{ 9}{x} x 10^{-10}\)m. The value of the x is _____.
(1eV = 1.6 x 10-19J, \(\frac{1}{4π∈_0}\) = 9 x 109 NM2 / C2 and electronic charge = 1.6 x 10-19JC)


Question 52:

Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and 1000 cm, and number of turns 10 and 200 respectively are placed coaxially with centers coinciding. The mutual inductance of this arrangement will be _____× 10-8 H.
(Take, π2 = 10)


Question 53:

As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm2 are joined in such a way that a ≠ b. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is x ∈0 F. The value of x is_____.


Question 54:

A body is dropped on ground from a height ‘h1’ and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height ‘h2’ If the ratio of velocities of the body just before and after hitting ground is \(4\). then percentage loss in kinetic energy of the body is\(\frac{x}{4}\). The value of x is_____.


Question 55:

As shown in the figure, the voltmeter reads 2V across 5Ω resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter is_____Ω.


Question 56:

A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves into a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude \(\dfrac{\pi}{2} \times 10^{-3} \text{T}\). The angle between the direction of magnetic field and velocity of proton is 60°. The pitch of the helical path taken by the proton is \_\_\_\ cm.

  • (1) 65 cm
  • (2) 40 cm
  • (3) 50 cm
  • (4) 80 cm

Question 57:

A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 10cm. The maximum tension in the string is found to be \(\frac{x}{40}\) N. The value of x is___.


Question 58:

A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm. The tensile stress developed in the wire under equilibrium state is 7× 105 Nm-2 . The value of mass m is ___ kg. (Take, g = 9.8 ms-2 and π =\(\frac{ 22}{7}\))


Question 59:

A solid sphere and a ring have equal masses and equal radius of gyration. If the sphere is rotating about its diameter and ring about an axis passing through and perpendicular to its plane, then the ratio of radius is \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{2} }\) then find the value of x.


Question 60:

A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 Å and 5500 Å is used to obtain interference pattern in Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the distance between the plane of slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central fringe, where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide, is n × 10-5 m. The value of n is_____.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb2+ ions

  • (1) lead sulphate
  • (2) lead nitrate
  • (3) lead chromate
  • (4) lead iodide

Question 62:

Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is

  • (1) K
  • (2) Hg
  • (3) N
  • (4) I

Question 63:

Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown
Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown
below Choose the correct option:

  • (1)
    Number of intermediatesNumber of Activated complexesRate determining step
    23II
  • (2)
    Number of intermediatesNumber of Activated complexesRate determining step
    23III
  • (3)
    Number of intermediatesNumber of Activated complexesRate determining step
    32II
  • (4)
    Number of intermediatesNumber of Activated complexesRate determining step
    23I

Question 64:

Find out the major product from the following reaction.
major product from the following reaction jee main 2023

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

Radius of the first orbit in H-atom is \(a_0\). Then, de Broglie wavelength of electron in the third orbit is.

  • (1) 3\(\pi\)a0
  • (2) 6\(\pi\)a0
  • (3) 9\(\pi\)a0
  • (4) 12\(\pi\)a0

Question 66:

Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?

  • (1) Li
  • (2) Ga
  • (3) Cs
  • (4) Br

Question 67:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as "Assertion A" and the other is labelled as "Reason R".
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO), and Fe(CO)s, the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of π-donor character in addition to the o-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 68:

Group-13 elements react with O2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M2O3 (M = element). Which among the following is the most basic oxide?

  • (1) Al2O3
  • (2) Tl2O3
  • (3) Ga2O3
  • (4) B2O3

Question 69:

During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction

  • (1) aqueous neutral
  • (2) aqueous acidic
  • (3) both aqueous acidic and neutral
  • (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline

Question 70:

In the following reaction 'B' is
In the following reaction 'B' is jee main 2023

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

IUPAC name of the compound \(K_{3}[Co(C_{2}O_{4})_{3}]\) is

  • (1) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate (III)
  • (2) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate (III)
  • (3) Potassium cobalt tris oxalate (II)
  • (4) Potassium oxalato cobaltate (III)

Question 72:

The strongest acid from the following is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3) <
  • (4)

Question 73: Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option:
 Amino Acid Letter Code
(A).Alanine(P).N
(B).Asparagine(Q).A
(C).Aspartic acid(R).R
(D).Arginine(S).D
  • (1) 1-Q; 2-S; 3-P; 4-R
  • (2) 1-Q; 2-S; 3-R; 4-P
  • (3) 1-S; 2-P; 3-R; 4-Q
  • (4) 1-S; 2-P; 3-P; 4-R

Question 74:

From the figure of column chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements

A. Compound 'c' is more polar than 'a' and 'b' 
B. Compound 'a' is least polar
C. Compound 'b' comes out of the column before 'c' and after 'a' 
D. Compound 'a' spends more time in the column 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) B, C and D only
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) A, B and D only

Question 75:

The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)2 is ____ . (Assume complete neutralization)

  • (1) 2.5 mL
  • (2) 5.0 mL
  • (3) 7.5 mL
  • (4) 10.0 mL

Question 76:

The product , which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is ____ .

  • (1) \(cl_2\)
  • (2) H2
  • (3) HCl
  • (4) NaOH

Question 77:

Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is:

  • (1) Be+2
  • (2) Mg+2
  • (3) Ca+2 
  • (4) Ba+2

Question 78:

In which form does \(BeCl_{2}\) exist in the solid state, vapor state and high temperature?
(1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric
(2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
(3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric
(4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric


Question 79:

The group of chemicals used as pesticide is

  • (1) Dieldrin, Sodium arsinite, Tetrachloroethene
  • (2) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN
  • (3) DDT, Aldrin
  • (4) Aldrin, Sodium chlorate, Sodium arsinite

Question 80:

Given below are two statements :
Statement-I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesis. It helps in relieving pain without producing sleep. 
Statement-II: Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium poppy. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is __
\(XeF_4, SF_4, SiF_4, BF^-_4 BrF^-_4,[Cu(NH_3)_4]^{2+}, [FeCl_4]^{2-}, [PtCl_4]^{2-}\)


Question 82:

The standard reduction potential at 298 K for the following half cells are given below  
NO − 3 3 − + 4H+ + 3e- → NO(g) +2H2O E0 = 0.97V 
\(V^{2+} (aq) + 2e^-→V\)           E0 = -1.19V 
\(Fe^{3+}(aq) + 3e^- → Fe\)        E0 = -0.04V 
\(Ag^+ (aq) + e^- → Ag(s)\)      E0 = 0.80V 
\(Au^{3+}(aq)+3e^-→Au(s)\) E0 = 1.40V 
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by  \(N0^-_3\) Oin aqueous solution is______.


Question 83:

Consider the following date
Heat of combustion of H2(g)           = -241.8 kJ mol-1 
Heat of combustion of C(s)              = -393.5 kJ mol-1 
Heat of combustion of C2H5OH(1)  = -1234.7 kJ mol-1
The heat of formation of C2H5OH(1) is (-) ____ kJ mol-1 (Nearest integer)


Question 84:

Number of isomeric aromatic amines with synthesized by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis molecular formula C8H11N, which can be is ______. jee main 2023


Question 85:

The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl3 + Cl2 ⇌ PCI5, at 298 K is given below. 
[PCl3]eq = 0.2 mol L-
[Cl2]eq = 0.1 mol L-1,
[PCl5]eq = 0.40 mol L-1 
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 is ___ × 10-2 mol L-1
Given: Kc for the reaction at 298 K is 20


Question 86:

In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to ___ neighbouring molecules


Question 87:

Among the following, the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is ____ .
(a) 1-Phenylbutan-2-one 
(b) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol 
(c) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol 
(d) 1-Phenylethanol 
(e) 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-one 
(f) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol


Question 88:

Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of solutions is/are...... 
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea 
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl 
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na2SO4 
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al2(SO4)3


Question 89:

The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have 'liquid' as the dispersion medium, is____.
Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather.


Question 90:

Number of crystal systems from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is......
Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic.

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 6 April 2023 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key: Coaching Institute PDF

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis April 6 Shift 2

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on April 6 Shift 2 is available now. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on April 6 Shift 2 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

JEE Main aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the question papers from the January Session. The table below shows JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for Session 1 to practice.

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper