JEE Main 2022 July 29 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on July 29, 2022, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2022 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2022 July 29 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2022 July 29 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let R be a relation from the set \(\{1, 2, 3, ….., 60\}\) to itself such that \(R = \{(a, b) : b = pq,\) where \(p, q≥ 3\) are prime numbers\(\}\). Then, the number of elements in R is :

  • (1) 600
  • (2) 660
  • (3) 540
  • (4) 720

Question 2:

If \(z = 2 + 3i\), then \(z^5 + (\overline{z})^5\) is equal to:

  • (1) 244
  • (2) 224
  • (3) 245
  • (4) 265

Question 3:

Let A and B be two \(3 × 3\) non-zero real matrices such that AB is a zero matrix. Then

  • (1) the system of linear equations AX = 0 has a unique solution
  • (2) the system of linear equations AX = 0 has infinitely many solutions
  • (3) B is an invertible matrix
  • (4) adj(A) is an invertible matrix

Question 4:

If \(\frac{1}{(20-a)(40-a)} + \frac{1}{(40-a)(60-a)} + \ldots + \frac{1}{(180-a)(200-a)} = \frac{1}{256}\), then the maximum value of a is :

  • (1) 198
  • (2) 202
  • (3) 212
  • (4) 218

Question 5:

If \(\lim_{{x \to 0}} \frac{\alpha e^x + \beta e^{-x} + \gamma \sin x}{x \sin^2 x} = \frac{2}{3}\), where \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma \in \mathbb{R}\) then which of the following is NOT correct?

  • (1) \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 = 6\)
  • (2) \(\alpha \beta + \beta \gamma + \gamma \alpha + 1 = 0\)
  • (3) \(\alpha \beta^2 + \beta \gamma^2 + \gamma \alpha^2 + 3 = 0\)
  • (4) \(\alpha^2 - \beta^2 + \gamma^2 = 4\)

Question 6:

The integral \(\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{3 + 2\sin x + \cos x} \, dx\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}(2)\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1}(2) - \frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}(2) - \frac{\pi}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 7:

Let the solution curve \(y = y(x)\) of the differential equation \((1 + e^{2x})\left(\frac{dy}{dx} + y\right) = 1\) pass through the point \((0, \frac{\pi}{2})\). Then, \(\lim_{{x \to \infty}} e^x y(x)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3\pi}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3\pi}{2}\)

Question 8:

Let a line L pass through the point intersection of the lines \(bx + 10y – 8 = 0\) and \(2x - 3y = 0, \quad b \in \mathbb{R} - \left\{\frac{4}{3}\right\}\). If the line L also passes through the point \((1, 1)\) and touches the circle \(17(x^2 + y^2) = 16\), then the eccentricity of the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{5} + \frac{y^2}{5} = 1\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{5}\)

Question 9:

Let the circumcentre of a triangle with vertices A(a, 3), B(b, 5) and C(a, b), ab > 0 be P(1, 1). If the line AP intersects the line BC at the point Q(k1, k2), then k1 + k2 is equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
  • (4) 4

Question 10:

Let \(\hat a\) and \(\hat b\) be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). If θ is the angle between the vectors (\(\hat a\)+\(\hat b\)) and (\(\hat a\)+2\(\hat b\)+2(\(\hat a\)×\(\hat b\))), then the value of 164 cos2θ is equal to :

  • (1) 90+27\(\sqrt2\)
  • (2) 45+18\(\sqrt2\)
  • (3) 90+3\(\sqrt2\)
  • (4) 54+90\(\sqrt2\)

Question 11:

If \(f(\alpha)\) =\(\int_{1}^{\alpha}\frac{log_{10}t}{1+t}dt\) , \(\alpha>0\), then f(e3) + f(e–3) is equal to :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{log_e{10}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{2}\)\(log_e10\)

Question 12:

The area of the region 
\(\begin{array}{l} \left\{\left(x,y\right);\left|x-1\right|\leq y \leq \sqrt{5-x^2} \right\}\end{array}\)
is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{2}sin^{−1}⁡(\frac{3}{5})−\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5π}{4}−\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3π}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5π}{4}−\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 13:

Let the focal chord of the parabola P :y2 = 4x along the line L : y = mx + c, m> 0 meet the parabola at the points M and N. Let the line L be a tangent to the hyperbola H :x2 – y2 = 4. If O is the vertex of P and F is the focus of H on the positive x-axis, then the area of the quadrilateral OMFN is

  • (1) \(2\sqrt6\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{14}\)
  • (3) \(4\sqrt6\)
  • (4)
    \(4\sqrt{14}\)

Question 14:

The number of points, where the function \(f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\), \[ f(x) = |x - 1|\cos|x - 2|\sin|x - 1| + (x - 3)|x^2 - 5x + 4|, \] is NOT differentiable, is 

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 15:

Let S = {1, 2, 3, …, 2022}. Then the probability that a randomly chosen number n from the set S such that HCF (n, 2022) = 1, is

  • (1) \(\frac{128}{1011}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{166}{1011}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{127}{337}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{112}{337}\)

Question 16:

Let 
\(\begin{array}{l} f\left(x\right)=3^{\left(x^2-2\right)^3+4},x\in \mathbb{R}.\end{array}\)
Then which of the following statements are true? 
P : x = 0 is a point of local minima of f
Q : x = √2 is a point of inflection of f 
R : f ′ is increasing for x > √2

  • (1) Only P and Q
  • (2) Only P and R
  • (3) Only Q and R
  • (4) All P, Q and R

Question 17:

If the foot of the perpendicular from the point \(A(–1, 4, 3)\) on the plane \(P : 2x + my + nz = 4\), is \(\left(-2, \frac{7}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)\), then the distance of the point A from the plane P, measured parallel to a line with direction ratios \(3, –1, –4\), is equal to

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(\sqrt{26}\)
  • (3) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{14}\)

Question 18:

Let \(\vec{a} = 3\hat{i} + \hat{j}\) and \(\vec{b} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}\).
Let \(\vec{c}\) be a vector satisfying \(\vec{a} \times (\vec{b} \times \vec{c}) = \vec{b} + \lambda \vec{c}\)
If \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) are non-parallel, then the value of \(λ\) is

  • (1) -5
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 1
  • (4) -1

Question 19:

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point A due north of it is α and from a point B at a distance of 9 units due west of A is \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{\sqrt{13}}\right)\)
If the distance of the point B from the tower is 15 units, then cot α is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{3}\)

Question 20:

The statement (p∧q) ⇒ (p∧r) is equivalent to :

  • (1) q⇒ (p∧r)
  • (2) p⇒ (p∧r)
  • (3) (p∧r) ⇒ (p∧q)
  • (4) (p∧q) ⇒ r

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let the mean and the variance of 20 observations \(x_1, x_2,…., x_{20}\) be 15 and 9, respectively. For a ∈ R, if the mean of \((x_1 + α)^2, (x_2 + α)^2,….,(x_{20} + α)^2\) is 178, then the square of the maximum value of \(α\) is equal to ___________.


Question 22:

Let a1, a2, a3,…. be an A.P. If
\(\begin{array}{l} \displaystyle\sum\limits_{r=1}^\infty\frac{a_r}{2^r}=4,\end{array}\)
then 4a2 is equal to ________.


Question 23:

Let the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the binomial expansion of (\(\frac{\sqrt{24}+1}{\sqrt{34}}\))n, in the increasing powers of 134 be 64:1.If the sixth term from the beginning is \(\frac{\alpha}{\sqrt{34}}\), then α is equal to ___________.


Question 24:

The number of matrices of order 3 × 3, whose entries are either 0 or 1 and the sum of all the entries is a prime number, is _________.


Question 25:

Let p and p + 2 be prime numbers and let
 \(Δ=\begin{vmatrix} p! & (p+1)! & (p+2)! \\ (p+1)! & (p+2)! & (p+3)! \\ (p+2)! & (p+3)! & (p+4)! \\ \end{vmatrix}\)
Then the sum of the maximum values of α and β, such that pα and (p + 2)β divide Δ, is _______.


Question 26:

Let S = {4, 6, 9} and T = {9, 10, 11, …,1000}. If A = {a1 + a2 + … +ak :k∈N, a1, a2, a3, …, ak∈S}, then the sum of all the elements in the set T – A is equal to ____________.


Question 27:

Let the mirror image of a circle c1 :x2 + y2 – 2x – 6y + α = 0 in line y = x + 1 be c2 : 5x2 + 5y2 + 10gx + 10fy + 38 = 0. If r is the radius of circle c2, then α + 6r2 is equal to _________.


Question 28:

Let \(S = \{θ ∈ (0, 2π) : 7 cos^2θ – 3 sin^2θ – 2 cos^22θ = 2\}\). 
Then, the sum of roots of all the equations \(x^2 – 2 (tan^2θ + cot^2θ) x + 6 sin^2θ = 0, θ ∈ S\), is _______.


Question 29:

Let a line with direction ratios a, – 4a, –7 be perpendicular to the lines with direction ratios 3, – 1, 2b and b, a, – 2. If the point of intersection of the line
\(\begin{array}{l} \frac{x+1}{a^2+b^2}=\frac{y-2}{a^2-b^2}=\frac{z}{1} \end{array}\)
and the plane x – y + z = 0 is (\(α, β, γ\)), then \(α + β + γ\) is equal to ______.


Question 30:

If 
\(\frac{1}{2\times 3 \times 4}  + \frac{1}{3\times 4 \times 5 } + \frac{1}{4 \times 5 \times 6 }+ \dots + \frac{1}{100 \times 101 \times 102} = \frac{k}{101}\) 
then 34 k is equal to ____________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Time period of oscillation of a liquid drop depends on surf ace tension (S), if density of the liquid is ρ and radius of the drop is r, then \(T=K\sqrt {\frac {ρr^3}{S^{\frac 32}}}\) is dimensionally correct, where K is dimensionless.
Reason (R) : Using dimensional analysis we get R.H.S. having different dimension than that of time period.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 32:

A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height h. Find the ratio of the times in which it is at height \(\frac h3\) while going up and coming down respectively.

  • (1) \(\frac {\sqrt 2-1}{\sqrt 2+1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {\sqrt 3-\sqrt 2}{\sqrt 3+\sqrt 2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt 3-1}{\sqrt3+1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac 13\)

Question 33:

If \(t = \sqrt{x} + 4\), then \(\left.\frac{dx}{dt}\right|_{t=4}\) is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 16

Question 34:

A smooth circular groove has a smooth vertical wall as shown in figure. A block of mass m moves against the wall with a speed v. Which of the following curve represents the correct relation between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)?

  • (1) Graph between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)
  • (2) Graph between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)
  • (3) Graph between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)
  • (4) Graph between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)

Question 35:

A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of this hall at the highest point of its flight will become

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) \(\frac E2\)
  • (3) \(\frac E4\)
  • (4) \(E\)

Question 36:

Two bodies of mass \(1\) kg and \(3\) kg have position vectors \(\hat i+2\hat j+\hat k\) and \(−3\hat i−2 \hat j+\hat k\), respectively. The magnitude of position vector of centre of mass of this system will be similar to the magnitude of vector.

  • (1) \(\hat i+2\hat j+\hat k\)
  • (2) \(−3\hat i−2 \hat j+\hat k\)
  • (3) \(−2\hat j+2\hat k\)
  • (4) \(−2\hat i−\hat j+2\hat k\)

Question 37:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other· is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Clothes containing oil or grease stains cannot be cleaned by water wash.
Reason (R) : Because the angle of contact between the oil/grease and water is obtuse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 38:

If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire will :

  • (1) Remain same
  • (2) Become 8 times its initial value
  • (3) Become \(\frac 14^{th}\) of its initial value
  • (4) Become 4 times its initial value

Question 39:

The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a vehicle, which moves without friction down an inclined plane of inclination α, is given by:

  • (1) \(2\pi\sqrt {\frac {L}{(g\ cos⁡\ α)}}\)
  • (2) \(2\pi\sqrt {\frac {L}{(g\ sin\ ⁡α)}}\)
  • (3) \(2\pi\sqrt {\frac Lg}\)
  • (4) \(2π\sqrt {\frac {L}{(g\  tan\ ⁡α)}}\)

Question 40:

A spherically symmetric charge distribution is considered with charge density varying as
\(ρ(r) =   \begin{cases}     ρ_0(\frac 34−\frac rR)      &; \text{for} \ r≤R\\     Zero  &; \text{for}\ r>R    \end{cases}\)
Where, r(r<R) is the distance from the centre O (as shown in figure) The electric field at point P will be :

  • (1) \(\frac {ρ_0r}{4ε_0}(\frac 34−\frac rR)\)
  • (2) \(\frac {ρ_0r}{3ε_0}(\frac 34−\frac rR)\)
  • (3) \(\frac {ρ_0r}{4ε_0}(1−\frac rR)\)
  • (4) \(\frac {ρ_0r}{5ε_0}(1−\frac rR)\)

Question 41:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Electric potential is constant within and at the surface of each conductor.
Statement II : Electric field just outside a charged conductor is perpendicular to the surface of the conductor at every point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
  • (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 42:

Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If σ1 and σ2 are the conductivities of these wires, respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sigma_1 \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2\sigma_1 \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}{2\sigma_1 \sigma_2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sigma_1 + \sigma_2}{\sigma_1 \sigma_2}\)

Question 43:

An alternating emf \(E = 440 \sin(100\pi t)\) is applied to a circuit containing an inductance of \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\pi}\) H. If an a.c. ammeter is connected in the circuit, its reading will be:

  • (1) 4.4 A
  • (2) 1.55 A
  • (3) 2.2 A
  • (4) 3.11 A

Question 44:

A coil of inductance 1 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a battery of 6 V. Determine approximately :
(a) The time elapsed before the current acquires half of its steady – state value.
(b) The energy stored in the magnetic field associated with the coil at an instant 15 ms after the circuit is switched on.
(Given \(ln2=0.693\), e–3/2 = 0.25)

  • (1) t = 10 ms; U = 2 mJ
  • (2) t = 10 ms; U = 1 mJ
  • (3) t = 7 ms; U = 1 mJ
  • (4) t = 7 ms; U = 2 mJ

Question 45:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-IList-II
(a) UV rays(i) Diagnostic tool in medicine
(b) X-rays(ii) Water purification
(c) Microwave(iii) Communication, Radar
(d) Infrared wave(iv) Improving visibility in foggy days

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Question 46:

The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light incident on the metal has wavelength λ. To double the kinetic energy, the incident light must have wavelength :

  • (1) \(\frac{hc}{E\lambda - hc}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{hc\lambda}{E\lambda + hc}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{h\lambda}{E\lambda + hc}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{hc\lambda}{E\lambda - hc}\)

Question 47:

Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom from its (i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and (ii) the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.

  • (1) 3 : 4
  • (2) 4 : 3
  • (3) 1 : 4
  • (4) 4 : 1

Question 48:

A travelling microscope has 20 divisions per cm on the main scale while its vernier scale has total 50 divisions and 25 vernier scale divisions are equal to 24 main scale divisions, what is the least count of the travelling microscope?

  • (1) 0.001 cm
  • (2) 0.002 mm
  • (3) 0.002 cm
  • (4) 0.005 cm

Question 49:

In an experiment to find out the diameter of the wire using a screw gauge, the following observations were noted:
(A) Screw moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one complete rotation
(B) Total divisions on circular scale = 50
(C) Main scale reading is 2.5 mm
(D) 45th division of circular scale is in the pitch line
(E) Instrument has 0.03 mm negative error
Then the diameter of wire is :

  • (1) 2.92 mm
  • (2) 2.54 mm
  • (3) 2.98 mm
  • (4) 3.45 mm

Question 50:

Find the modulation index of an AM wave having 8 V variation where maximum amplitude of the AM wave is 9 V.

  • (1) 0.8
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 0.2
  • (4) 0.1

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

An object is projected in the air with initial velocity u at an angle θ. The projectile motion is such that the horizontal range R, is maximum. Another object is projected in the air with a horizontal range half of the range of first object. The initial velocity remains same in both the case. The value of the angle of projection, at which the second object is projected, will be ______ degree.


Question 52:

If the acceleration due to gravity experienced by a point mass at a height h above the surface of earth is same as that of the acceleration due to gravity at a depth \(\alpha h \ (h \ll Re)\) from the earth surface. The value of α will be ________.
(Use Re=6400 km)


Question 53:

The pressure P1 and density d1 of diatomic gas \(\gamma = \frac{7}{5}\) changes suddenly to \(P_2 > P_1\) and d2 respectively during an adiabatic process. The temperature of the gas increases and becomes _____ times of its initial temperature.
(Given \(\frac{d_2}{d_1} = 32\))


Question 54:

One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. The molecular specific heat of mixture at constant volume is \(\frac{\alpha^2}{4}\) RJ/mol k; then the value of α will be _______.
(Assume that the given diatomic gas has no vibrational mode).


Question 55:

The current \(I\) flowing through the given circuit will be ________A.
current flowing through the circuit


Question 56:

A closely wounded circular coil of radius 5 cm produces a magnetic field of 37.68×10–4 T at its center. The current through the coil is _______ A.
[Given, number of turns in the coil is 100 and \(\pi = 3.14\)]


Question 57:

Two light beams of intensities 4I and 9I interfere on a screen. The phase difference between these beams on the screen at point A is zero and at point B is π. The difference of resultant intensities, at the point A and B, will be_______I.


Question 58:

A wire of length 314 cm carrying current of 14 A is bent to form a circle. The magnetic moment of the coil is _______ A–m2. [Given \(\pi = 3.14\)]


Question 59:

The X–Y plane be taken as the boundary between two transparent media M1 and M2.M1 in Z 0 has a refractive index of \(\sqrt2\) and M2 with \(Z<0\) has a refractive index of \(\sqrt3\). A ray of light travelling in M1 along the direction given by the vector \(\mathbf{\overrightarrow{P}} = 4\sqrt{3}\mathbf{\hat{i}} - 3\sqrt{3}\mathbf{\hat{j}} - 5\hat{k}\), is incident on the plane of separation. The value of difference between the angle of incident in M1 and the angle of refraction in M2 will be ______ degree.


Question 60:

If the potential barrier across a p–n junction is 0.6 V. Then the electric field intensity, in the depletion region having the width of 6×10–6 m, will be ______× 105 N/C.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?

  • (1) BCl3 and SF6
  • (2) NO and H2SO4
  • (3) SF6 and H2SO4
  • (4) BCl3 and NO

Question 62:

\(N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g)\)
Consider the above reaction, the limiting reagent of the reaction and number of moles of NH3 formed, respectively are :

  • (1) H2, 1.42 moles
  • (2) H2, 0.71 moles
  • (3) N2, 1.42 moles
  • (4) N2, 0.71 moles

Question 63:

The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si, respectively, are : 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1. The first ionization enthalpy (kJ mol–1) of Al is:

  • (1) 487
  • (2) 768
  • (3) 577
  • (4) 856

Question 64:

The reaction of zinc with excess of aqueous alkali, evolves hydrogen gas and gives:

  • (1) Zn(OH)2
  • (2) ZnO
  • (3) [Zn(OH)4]2–
  • (4) [ZnO2]2–

Question 65:

Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl2, O3, CIF3 and SF6, respectively, are:

  • (1) 0, 1, 2 and 2
  • (2) 2, 1, 2 and 0
  • (3) 1, 2, 2 and 0
  • (4) 2, 1, 0 and 2

Question 66:

In following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is :

  • (1) Sc3+, Zn2+
  • (2) Ti4+, Cu2+
  • (3) V2+, Ti3+
  • (4) Zn2+, Mn2+

Question 67:

In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 being a powerful oxidant can oxidize, thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction overall change in oxidation state of manganese will be

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 3

Question 68:

Which among the following is the strongest Bronsted base?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69:

Which among the following pairs of the structures will give different products onozonolysis? (Consider the double bonds in the structures are rigid and not delocalized)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 70:
Fig.

Considering the above reactions, the compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’ respectively are :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:
Fig,

Consider the above reaction sequence, the product ‘C’ is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

Consider the above reaction, the compound ‘A’ is :

Fig.
  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 73:



Which among the following represents reagent ‘A’?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

Consider the following reaction sequence:

The product ‘B’ is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 75:

A compound ‘X’ is acidic and it is soluble in NaOH solution, but insoluble in NaHCO3 solution. Compound ‘X’ also gives violet colour with neutral FeCl3 solution. The compound ‘X’ is :
 

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 76:

100 mL of 5% (w/v) solution of NaCl in water was prepared in 250 mL beaker. Albumin from the egg was poured into NaCl solution and stirred well. This resulted in a/an :

  • (1) Lyophilic sol
  • (2) Lyophobic sol
  • (3) Emulsion
  • (4) Precipitate

Question 77:

In metallurgy the term “gangue” is used for :

  • (1) Contamination of undesired earthy materials.
  • (2) Contamination of metals, other than desired metal.
  • (3) Minerals which are naturally occurring in pure form
  • (4) Magnetic impurities in an ore.

Question 78:

Lithium nitrate and sodium nitrate, when heated separately, respectively, give :

  • (1) LiNO2 and NaNO2
  • (2) Li2O and Na2O
  • (3) Li2O and NaNO2
  • (4) LiNO2 and Na2O

Question 79:

Which among the following pairs has only herbicides?

  • (1) Aldrin and Dieldrin
  • (2) Sodium chlorate and Aldrin
  • (3) Sodiumarsinate and Dieldrin
  • (4) Sodium chlorate and sodiumarsinite

Question 80:

Which of the following compounds is an example of hypnotic drug?

  • (1) Seldane
  • (2) Amytal
  • (3) Aspartame
  • (4) Prontosil

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

Resistance of a conductivity cell (cell constant 129 m–1) filled with 74.5 ppm solution of KCI is 100 Ω (labelled as solution 1). When the same cell is filled with KCl solution of 149 ppm, the resistance is 50 Ω (labelled as solution 2). The ratio of molar conductivity of solution 1 and solution 2 is \(\frac{\Lambda_1}{\Lambda_2} = x \times 10^{-3}\). The value of x is _________. (Nearest integer)
(Given : molar mass of KCl is 74.5 g mol–1).


Question 82:

The minimum uncertainty in the speed of an electron in an one dimensional region of length 2a0 (Where a0 = Bohr radius 52.9 pm) is _____ km s–1.
(Given : Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10–34Js)


Question 83:

When 600 mL of 0.2 M HNO3 is mixed with 400 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution in a flask, the rise in temperature of the flask is ________ × 10–2 °C.
(Enthalpy of neutralisation = 57 kJ mol–1 and Specific heat of water = 4.2 JK–1 g–1)
(Neglect heat capacity of flask)


Question 84:

If O2 gas is bubbled through water at 303 K, the number of millimoles of O2 gas that dissolve in 1 litre of water is_______. (Nearest integer)
(Given : Henry’s Law constant for O2 at 303 K is 46.82 k bar and partial pressure of O2 = 0.920 bar)
(Assume solubility of O2 in water is too small, nearly negligible)


Question 85:

If the solubility product of PbS is 8 × 10–28, then the solubility of PbS in pure water at 298 K is x × 10–16 mol L–1. The value of x is ________. (Nearest integer)
[given : \(\sqrt2=1.41\)]


Question 86:

The reaction between X and Y is first order with respect to X and zero order with respect to Y.
reaction between X and Y is first order with respect to X and zero order with respect to Y.
Examine the data of table and calculate ratio of numerical values of M and L. (Nearest integer)


Question 87:

In a linear tetrapeptide (constituted with different amino acids) – (number of peptide bonds) is _____.


Question 88:

In bromination of Propyne, with Bromine 1,1,2,2-tetrabromopropane is obtained in 27% yield. The amount of 1,1,2,2-tetrabromopropane obtained from 1 g of Bromine in this reaction is _______ × 10–1 g. (Nearest integer)
(Molar Mass : Bromine = 80 g/mol)


Question 89:

[Fe(CN)6]3– should be an inner orbital complex. Ignoring the pairing energy, the value of crystal field stabilization energy for this complex is (–) _____ Δ0. (Nearest integer)


Question 90:

Ionic radii of cation A+ and anion B– are 102 and 181 pm, respectively. These ions are allowed to crystallize into an ionic solid. This crystal has cubic close packing for B–. A+ is present in all octahedral voids. The edge length of the unit cell of the crystal AB is _____pm. (Nearest integer)

JEE Main 2022 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions

JEE Main 2022 July 29 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

The question paper was reported as moderate in terms of overall difficulty. Students found Mathematics tough. Physics and Chemistry were on a similar difficulty level, moderate, with Chemistry on an easier side.

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