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JEE Main 2023 10 April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution and Answer Key PDF

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Mathematics
Section-A

Question 1:

If the coefficients of \( x \) and \( x^2 \) in \( (1 + x)^p(1 - x)^q \) are 4 and -5 respectively, then \( 2p + 3q \) is equal to:

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 63
  • (3) 66
  • (4) 69
Correct Answer: (2) 63
View Solution

Step 1: Expand \( (1 + x)^p(1 - x)^q \)
The expansion of \( (1 + x)^p \) and \( (1 - x)^q \) is given by: \[ (1 + x)^p = 1 + px + \frac{p(p-1)}{2!}x^2 + \dots \] \[ (1 - x)^q = 1 - qx + \frac{q(q-1)}{2!}x^2 - \dots \]

Step 2: Multiply the expansions
Now, multiply the two expansions: \[ (1 + x)^p(1 - x)^q = \left( 1 + px + \frac{p(p-1)}{2!}x^2 + \dots \right) \times \left( 1 - qx + \frac{q(q-1)}{2!}x^2 - \dots \right) \]

To get the coefficient of \( x \), we need to add the product of terms that result in \( x \): \[ Coefficient of x = p - q \]

Similarly, for \( x^2 \): \[ Coefficient of x^2 = \frac{p(p-1)}{2!} + \frac{q(q-1)}{2!} \]

Step 3: Using given values
We are given that the coefficients of \( x \) and \( x^2 \) are 4 and -5, respectively: \[ p - q = 4 \quad (1) \] \[ \frac{p(p-1)}{2!} + \frac{q(q-1)}{2!} = -5 \quad (2) \]

Step 4: Solving the system of equations
From equation (1): \[ p = q + 4 \]

Substitute \( p = q + 4 \) into equation (2): \[ \frac{(q + 4)(q + 3)}{2} + \frac{q(q - 1)}{2} = -5 \]
Solving this yields \( p = 15 \) and \( q = 11 \).

Step 5: Calculate \( 2p + 3q \)
Now, we calculate: \[ 2p + 3q = 2(15) + 3(11) = 30 + 33 = 63 \]

Thus, \( 2p + 3q = 63 \). Quick Tip: When dealing with coefficients of terms in binomial expansions, use the binomial expansion formulas for both expressions, multiply them, and equate the coefficients for the desired powers of \( x \).


Question 2:

Let \( A = \{2, 3, 4\} \) and \( B = \{8, 9, 12\} \). Then the number of elements in the relation \( R = \{((a_1, b_1), (a_2, b_2)) \in (A \times B, A \times B) : a_1 divides b_2 and a_2 divides b_1 \} \) is:

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 36
Correct Answer: (4) 36
View Solution

Question 3:

Let time image of the point \( P(1, 2, 6) \) in the plane passing through the points A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1), and C(0, 5, 1) be \( Q(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \). Then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 70 \)
  • (2) \( 76 \)
  • (3) \( 62 \)
  • (4) \( 65 \)
Correct Answer: (4) 65
View Solution

Question 4:

The statement \( \sim [p \vee (\sim (p \land q))] \) is equivalent to:

  • (1) \( \sim (p \land q) \land q \)
  • (2) \( \sim (p \vee q) \)
  • (3) \( \sim (p \land q) \)
  • (4) \( (p \land q) \land (\sim p) \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( (p \land q) \land (\sim p) \)
View Solution

Question 5:

Let \( S = \left\{ x \in \left( -\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) : 9^{1 - \tan^2 x} + 9^{\tan^2 x} = 10 \right\} \) \[ b = \sum_{x \in S} \tan^2 \left( \frac{x}{3} \right), then \left( \beta - 14 \right)^2 is equal to: \]

  • (1) \( 16 \)
  • (2) \( 32 \)
  • (3) \( 8 \)
  • (4) \( 64 \)
Correct Answer: (2) 32
View Solution

Question 6:

If the points P and Q are respectively the circumcenter and the orthocenter of a \( \triangle ABC \), the \( \overrightarrow{PA} + \overrightarrow{PB} + \overrightarrow{PC} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 2 \overrightarrow{PQ} \)
  • (2) \( \overrightarrow{PQ} \)
  • (3) \( 2 \overrightarrow{PQ} \)
  • (4) \( \overrightarrow{PQ} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \overrightarrow{PQ} \)
View Solution

Question 7:

Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the curve \( x^2 + y^2 = 16 \). If the centre of the locus of the point P, which divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3:2 is the point C (\( \alpha, \beta \)), then the length of the line segment AC is:

  • (1) \( \frac{6 \sqrt{5}}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2 \sqrt{5}}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3 \sqrt{5}}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4 \sqrt{5}}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{3 \sqrt{5}}{5} \)
View Solution

Question 8:

Let \( m \) be the mean and \( \sigma \) be the standard deviation of the distribution:



where \( \sum f_i = 62 \). If \( [x] \) denotes the greatest integer \( \leq x \), then \( [\mu^2 + \sigma^2] \) is equal to:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (1) 8
View Solution

Question 9:

If \( S_n = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + \dots \) to \( n \) terms, then \( \frac{1}{60} (S_{29} - S_9) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 220 \)
  • (2) \( 227 \)
  • (3) \( 226 \)
  • (4) \( 223 \)
Correct Answer: (4) 223
View Solution

The given sequence is 4, 11, 21, 34, 50, ...

The differences are 7, 10, 13, 16, ...

The second differences are 3, 3, 3, ...

Since the second differences are constant, the sequence is quadratic.

Let \(T_n = an^2 + bn + c\).

\(T_1 = a + b + c = 4\)

\(T_2 = 4a + 2b + c = 11\)

\(T_3 = 9a + 3b + c = 21\)

Solving these equations, we get \(a = \frac{3}{2}\), \(b = \frac{5}{2}\), \(c = 0\).

Thus, \(T_n = \frac{3n^2 + 5n}{2}\).

\(S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n T_k = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^n (3k^2 + 5k)\)

\(S_n = \frac{1}{2}\left(3\sum_{k=1}^n k^2 + 5\sum_{k=1}^n k\right)\)

\(S_n = \frac{1}{2}\left(3\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} + 5\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right)\)

\(S_n = \frac{n(n+1)(n+3)}{2}\)

\(S_{29} = \frac{29(30)(32)}{2} = 13920\)

\(S_9 = \frac{9(10)(12)}{2} = 540\)

\(S_{29} - S_9 = 13920 - 540 = 13380\)

\(\frac{1}{60}(S_{29} - S_9) = \frac{13380}{60} = 223\)

Answer: 223. Quick Tip: For sums involving polynomial terms, break them down into separate sums (e.g., sum of squares and sum of integers) and apply known formulas. Simplify carefully and compute each term step-by-step.


Question 10:

Eight persons are to be transported from city A to city B in three cars of different makes. If each car can accommodate at most three persons, then the number of ways in which they can be transported is:

  • (1) 1120
  • (2) 560
  • (3) 3360
  • (4) 1680
Correct Answer: (4) 1680
View Solution

Question 11:

  • (1) \( 2^{16} \)
  • (2) \( 2^8 \)
  • (3) \( 2^{12} \)
  • (4) \( 2^{20} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 2^{16} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

Let the number \( (22)^{2022} + (2022)^{22} \) leave the remainder \( \alpha \) when divided by 3 and \( \beta \) when divided by 7. Then \( (\alpha^2 + \beta^2) \) is equal to:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4) 5
View Solution

Question 13:

Let \( g(x) = f(x) + f(1-x) \) and \( f^{(n)}(x) > 0 \), \( x \in (0, 1) \). If \( g \) is decreasing in the interval \( (0, \alpha) \) and increasing in the interval \( (\alpha, 1) \), then \( \tan^{-1}(2 \alpha) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{\alpha + 1}{\alpha} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{5\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \pi \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \pi \)
View Solution

Question 14:

For \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma, \delta \in \mathbb{N} \), if
\[ \int \left( \frac{x}{e} \right)^{2x} + \left( \frac{e}{x} \right)^{2x} \log x \, dx = \frac{1}{\alpha} \left( \frac{x}{e} \right)^{\beta x} - \frac{1}{\gamma} \left( \frac{e}{x} \right)^{\delta x} + C \]

where \( e = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} \) and \( C \) is the constant of integration, then \( \alpha + 2\beta + 3\gamma - 4\delta \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( -4 \)
  • (3) \( 8 \)
  • (4) \( 1 \)
Correct Answer: (1) 4
View Solution

Question 15:

Let \( f \) be a continuous function satisfying \[ \int_0^{t^2} \left( f(x) + x^2 \right) \, dx = \frac{4}{3} t^3, \, \forall t > 0. \]
Then \( f \left( \frac{\pi^2}{4} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( -\pi^2 \left( 1 + \frac{\pi^2}{16} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \pi \left( 1 - \frac{\pi^3}{16} \right) \)
  • (3) \( -\pi \left( 1 + \frac{\pi^3}{16} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \pi^2 \left( 1 - \frac{\pi^3}{16} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \pi \left( 1 - \frac{\pi^3}{16} \right) \)
View Solution

Question 16:

Let a die be rolled \( n \) times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If the probability of getting even numbers twice is \( \frac{k}{2^{15}} \), then \( k \) is equal to:

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 90
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (1) 60
View Solution

Question 17:

Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse \( 15x^2 + 19y^2 = 285 \). Then the common tangents are inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the angle:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 18:

Let \( \vec{a} = 2\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} - \hat{k}, \, \vec{b} = 3\hat{i} + 5\hat{k}, \, \vec{c} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \). Let \( \vec{d} \) be a vector which is perpendicular to both \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \), and \( \vec{c} \cdot \vec{d} = 12 \). The value of \( \left( \hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k} \right) \cdot \left( \vec{c} \times \vec{d} \right) \) is:

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 44
Correct Answer: (4) 44
View Solution

Question 19:

Let \( S = \left\{ z = x + iy : \frac{2z - 3i}{4z + 2i} is a real number \right\} \)
\text{Then which of the following is NOT correct?

  • (1) \( y \in \left( -\infty, -\frac{1}{2} \right) \cup \left( -\frac{1}{2}, \infty \right) \)
  • (2) \( (x, y) = (0, -\frac{1}{2}) \)
  • (3) \( x = 0 \)
  • (4) \( y + x^2 + y^2 \neq -\frac{1}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 20:

Let the line \[ \frac{x}{1} = \frac{6 - y}{2} = \frac{z + 8}{5} \]
intersect the lines \[ \frac{x - 5}{4} = \frac{y - 7}{3} = \frac{z + 2}{1} \quad and \quad \frac{x + 3}{6} = \frac{3 - y}{3} = \frac{z - 6}{1} \]
at the points A and B respectively. Then the distance of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the plane \( 2x - 2y + z = 14 \) is:

  • (1) \( 3 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{10}{3} \)
  • (3) \( 4 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{11}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Section-B

Question 21:

The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to ______.

Correct Answer: 26664
View Solution

Question 22:

In the figure, \( \theta_1 + \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{2} \) and \( \sqrt{3} \, BE = 4 \, AB \). If the area of \( \triangle CAB \) is \( 2\sqrt{3} - 3 \) square units, when \( \frac{\theta_2}{\theta_1} \) is the largest, then the perimeter (in units) of \( \triangle CED \) is equal to:


Correct Answer: (6)
View Solution

Question 23:

Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points (1, 1) and \( \left( \frac{1}{10}, 100 \right) \), intersect positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B respectively. If \( PA : PB = 1 : k \) and \( y = y(x) \) is the solution of the differential equation \( e^{\frac{dy}{dx}} = kx + \frac{k}{2} \), \( y(0) = k \), then \( 4y(1) - 5 \log 3 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (5)
View Solution

Question 24:

Suppose \( a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4 \) be in an arithmetico-geometric progression. If the common ratio of the corresponding geometric progression in 2 and the sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetico-geometric progression is \( \frac{49}{2} \), then \( a_4 \) is equal to ______.

Correct Answer: (1) 16
View Solution

Question 1:

If the area of the region \( \{(x, y) : |x^2 - 2| \leq x \} \) is \( A \), then \( 6A + 16\sqrt{2} \) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: (2) 27
View Solution

Question 26:

Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A(4, 3, 1) on the plane \( P : x - y + 2z + 3 = 0 \) be N. If B(5, \( \alpha \), \( \beta \)) is a point on plane P such that the area of triangle ABN is \( 3\sqrt{2} \), then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \alpha \beta \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (7)
View Solution

Question 27:

Let \( S \) be the set of values of \( \lambda \), for which the system of equations \[ 6\lambda x - 3y + 3z = 4\lambda^2, \quad 2x + 6\lambda y + 4z = 1, \quad 3x + 2y + 3\lambda z = \lambda \]
has no solution. Then \( 12 \sum_{\lambda \in S} |\lambda| \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (24)
View Solution

Question 28:

If the domain of the function \( f(x) = \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \right) \) \text{ is \( [\alpha, \beta] \cup (\gamma, \delta) \), \text{ then \( |3\alpha + 10(\beta + \gamma) + 21\delta| \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: -24
View Solution

The function is given as:
\[ f(x) = \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \right) \]

For the domain of \( f(x) \), we need to find when:
\[ \left| \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \right| \geq 1 \]

This leads to two conditions:


1. \( \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \geq 1 \)

2. \( \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \leq -1 \)


Let's solve each inequality:

For the first inequality:
\[ \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \geq 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2x \geq 5x + 3 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -3x \geq 3 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x \leq -1 \]

For the second inequality:

\[ \frac{2x}{5x + 3} \leq -1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2x \leq -5x - 3 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 7x \leq -3 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x \leq -\frac{3}{7} \]

Thus, the domain of the function is:
\[ [-1, -\frac{3}{5}] \cup (-\frac{3}{5}, -\frac{3}{7}] \]

Let:
\[ \alpha = -1, \quad \beta = -\frac{3}{5}, \quad \gamma = -\frac{3}{5}, \quad \delta = -\frac{3}{7} \]

Now, calculate \( 3\alpha + 10(\beta + \gamma) + 21\delta \):
\[ 3\alpha + 10(\beta + \gamma) + 21\delta = 3(-1) + 10\left( -\frac{3}{5} + -\frac{3}{5} \right) + 21\left( -\frac{3}{7} \right) \] \[ = -3 + 10\left( -\frac{6}{5} \right) + 21\left( -\frac{3}{7} \right) \] \[ = -3 + \left( -\frac{60}{5} \right) + \left( -\frac{63}{7} \right) \] \[ = -3 - 12 - 9 = -24 \]

Thus, \( |3\alpha + 10(\beta + \gamma) + 21\delta| = 24 \). Quick Tip: For solving domain-related problems with inverse trigonometric functions, break the inequality into separate cases and solve for the values of \( x \) that satisfy each condition. Always ensure to check the absolute value condition.


Question 29:

Let the quadratic curve passing through the point \( (-1, 0) \) and touching the line \( y = x \) at \( (1, 1) \) be \( y = f(x) \). Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the point \( (\alpha, \alpha + 1) \) in the first quadrant is:

Correct Answer: (11)
View Solution

Question 30:

Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD be \( 2x - 3y = -23 \) and \( 5x + 4y = 23 \). \text{If the equation of its one diagonal AC is \( 3x + 7y = 23 \) \text{ and the distance of A from the other diagonal is \( d \),  then  50d2 is equal to: 

  • (1) 529
  • (2) 625
  • (3) 490
  • (4) 512
Correct Answer: (1) 529
View Solution

Physics
Section-A

Question 31:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rotation of the earth shows effect on the value of acceleration due to gravity (g)

Statement II: The effect of rotation of the earth on the value of 'g' at the equator is minimum and that at the pole is maximum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
  • (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
View Solution

Question 32:

The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment where phase difference between two waves of same amplitude are \( \frac{\pi}{3} \) and \( \frac{\pi}{2} \), respectively, are:

  • (1) \( 3:2 \)
  • (2) \( 3:1 \)
  • (3) \( 2:3 \)
  • (4) \( 1:3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 3:2 \)
View Solution

Question 33:

The time period of a satellite, revolving above Earth's surface at a height equal to \( R \) will be (Given \( g = \pi^2 \, m/s^2, R = radius of earth \)):

  • (1) \( \sqrt{32R} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{4R} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2R} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{8R} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{32R} \)
View Solution

Question 34:

In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electrons of the conductor:

  • (1) Move with the uniform velocity throughout from lower potential to higher potential
  • (2) Move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
  • (3) Move in the straight line paths in the same direction
  • (4) Drift from higher potential to lower potential
Correct Answer: (2) Move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
View Solution

Question 35:

A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz. The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is:

  • (1) 6 kHz
  • (2) 3 kHz
  • (3) 6 MHz
  • (4) 3 MHz
Correct Answer: (1) 6 kHz
View Solution

Question 36:

In an experiment with vernier calipers of least count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together the zero of the vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincides with the main scale division. While measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero of the vernier scale lies in between 3 cm and 3.3 cm marks, and 4th division of vernier scale coincides with the main scale division. The diameter of the bob is measured as:

  • (1) 3.25 cm
  • (2) 3.22 cm
  • (3) 3.18 cm
  • (4) 3.26 cm
Correct Answer: (3) 3.18 cm
View Solution

Question 37:

Two projectiles are projected at \( 30^\circ \) and \( 60^\circ \) with the horizontal the same speed. The ratio of the maximum height attained by the two projectiles respectively is:

  • (1) \( 2 : \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( 1 : \sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{3} : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 1 : 3 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 1 : 3 \)
View Solution

Question 38:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other one is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.

Reason R: Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is correct but R is not correct
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 39:

The distance between two plates of a capacitor is \( d \) and its capacitance is \( C_1 \), when air is the medium between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness \( \frac{2d}{3} \) and of the same area as the plate is introduced between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor becomes \( C_2 \). The ratio \( \frac{C_2}{C_1} \) is:

  • (1) \( 4 : 1 \)
  • (2) \( 3 : 1 \)
  • (3) \( 2 : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 1 : 1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 3 : 1 \)
View Solution

Question 40:

The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is \( 6.0 \times 10^{-7} \, T \). The maximum value of electric field in the electromagnetic wave is:

  • (1) \( 2 \times 10^{15} \, Vm^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 2 \times 10^{14} \, Vm^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 6.0 \times 10^{-7} \, Vm^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 180 \, Vm^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 180 \, \text{Vm}^{-1} \)
View Solution

Question 41:

If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 \(\Omega\) in the below circuit,

  • (1) \( \frac{I_1}{I_2} = 2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{I_2}{I_3} = 1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{I_3}{I_4} = 1 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{I_1}{I_2} = 1 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{I_1}{I_2} = 2 \)
View Solution

Question 42:

A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature \( T \). Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system will be:

  • (1) \( 4RT \)
  • (2) \( 11RT \)
  • (3) \( 8RT \)
  • (4) \( 16RT \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 11RT \)
View Solution

Question 43:

For a periodic motion represented by the equation \( y = \sin \omega t + \cos \omega t \), the amplitude of the motion is:

  • (1) 0.5
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 44:

A person travels \( x \) distance with velocity \( v_1 \) and then \( x \) distance with velocity \( v_2 \) in the same direction. The average velocity of the person is \( v \), then the relation between \( v \), \( v_1 \), and \( v_2 \) will be:

  • (1) \( v = v_1 + v_2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{v_2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{v} = \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{v_2} \)
  • (4) \( v = \frac{v_1 + v_2}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{2}{v} = \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{v_2} \)
View Solution

Question 45:

The half-life of a radioactive substance is \( T \). The time taken for disintegrating \( \frac{7}{8} \) part of its original mass will be:

  • (1) \( T \)
  • (2) \( 2T \)
  • (3) \( 3T \)
  • (4) \( 8T \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 3T \)
View Solution

Question 46:

A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the following statements is NOT true.

  • (1) There is no change in the internal energy
  • (2) The temperature of the gas increases
  • (3) The change in the internal energy is equal to the work done on the gas
  • (4) There is no heat supplied to the system
Correct Answer: (1) There is no change in the internal energy
View Solution

Question 47:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: For diamagnetic substance, \( -1 \leq X < 0 \), where \( X \) is the magnetic susceptibility.

Statement II: Diamagnetic substances when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move from stronger to weaker part of the field.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 48:

Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio 1:4, while its area of cross sections are in the ratio 1:3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in the ratio of:
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]

  • (1) 12 : 1
  • (2) 1 : 36
  • (3) 1 : 12
  • (4) 36 : 1
Correct Answer: (1) 12 : 1
View Solution

Question 49:

The variation of stopping potential (\( V_0 \)) as a function of the frequency (\( v \)) of the incident light for a metal is shown in the figure. The work function of the surface is:


  • (1) 2.07 eV
  • (2) 18.6 eV
  • (3) 2.98 eV
  • (4) 1.36 eV
Correct Answer: (1) 2.07 eV
View Solution

Section-B

Question 50:

A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time, the magnet will:

  • (1) Oscillate inside the tube
  • (2) Move down with an acceleration greater than \( g \)
  • (3) Move down with almost constant speed
  • (4) Move down with an acceleration equal to \( g \)
Correct Answer: (3) Move down with almost constant speed
View Solution

Question 51:

If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series, then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be __________ Å.

Correct Answer: 3668
View Solution

Question 52:

A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimeter and carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5 A and angular frequency \( 700 \, rad/s^{-1} \). The central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is \( x \times 10^{-4} \) V. The value of \( x \) is:

Correct Answer: 2.07
View Solution

Question 53:

A rectangular parallelepiped is measured as 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is \( 3 \times 10^{-7} \, \Omega \)-cm, then the resistance between its two opposite rectangular faces will be: _____ \( \times 10^{-7} \, \Omega \).

Correct Answer: \( 3 \times 10^{-5} \, \Omega \)
View Solution

Question 54:

A force of \( -P \hat{k} \) acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point \( (2, -3) \) is \( P (a \hat{i} + b \hat{j}) \). The ratio of \( \frac{a}{b} \) is \( \frac{x}{2} \). The value of \( x \) is:

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 55:

A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the figure. The magnetic field produced by the current at the centre \( O \) of the arc is _______ \( \times 10^{-4} \, T \).


Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 56:

Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section 2.0 cm\(^2\). The area of cross section at the outlet is 10 mm\(^2\). If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4 cm/s\(^-1\), the speed of the outgoing fluid is ______ cm/s\(^-1\).



Correct Answer: 80
View Solution

Question 57:

A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s. The maximum force exerted by the spring on the block is _______ N.

Correct Answer: (1) 20 N
View Solution

Question 58:

An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density \( 2 \times 10^{-8} \, C/m^{-1} \) in a circular path under the influence of an attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure. The velocity of the electron with which it is revolving is _______ \( \times 10^6 \, m/s^{-1} \). Given mass of the electron \( = 9 \times 10^{-31} \, kg \)


Correct Answer: (8)
View Solution

Question 59:

A point object, 'O' is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex lenses \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) with focal lengths of 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The distance between the two lenses is 10 cm, and the object is placed 6 cm away from lens \( L_1 \) as shown in the figure. The distance between the object and the image formed by the system of two lenses is ________ cm.


  • (1) 8 cm
  • (2) 18 cm
  • (3) 12 cm
  • (4) 34 cm
Correct Answer: (4) 34 cm
View Solution

Question 60:

If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg - Passengers + 800 kg - elevator), which is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 m s\(^{-1}\) and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then the maximum power used by the motor is ____ kW (g = 10 m/s\(^2\)).

Correct Answer: (1) 48
View Solution

Chemistry
Section-A

Question 61:

The correct relationships between unit cell edge length 'a' and radius of sphere 'r' for face-centred and body-centred cubic structures respectively are:

  • (1) \( 2\sqrt{2}r = a \) and \( \sqrt{3}r = 4a \)
  • (2) \( r = 2\sqrt{2}a \) and \( 4r = \sqrt{3}a \)
  • (3) \( r = 2\sqrt{2}a \) and \( 3r = 4a \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2}r = a \) and \( 4r = \sqrt{3}a \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 2\sqrt{2}r = a \) and \( 4r = \sqrt{3}a \)
View Solution



 


Question 62:

The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat is:

  • (1) an addition reaction
  • (2) an oxidation reaction
  • (3) alkaline hydrolysis reaction
  • (4) reduction reaction
Correct Answer: (3) alkaline hydrolysis reaction
View Solution

Question 63:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
View Solution

Question 64:

The correct order of metallic character is:

  • (1) K \(>\) Be \(>\) Ca
  • (2) Be \(>\) Ca \(>\) K
  • (3) K \(>\) Ca \(>\) Be
  • (4) Ca \(>\) K \(>\) Be
Correct Answer: (3) K \(>\) Ca \(>\) Be
View Solution

Question 65:

The correct order for acidity of the following hydroxyl compounds is:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) E \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) A \(>\) B
  • (2) D \(>\) E \(>\) C \(>\) A \(>\) B
  • (3) E \(>\) D \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) A
  • (4) C \(>\) E \(>\) D \(>\) B \(>\) A
Correct Answer: (1) E \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) A \(>\) B
View Solution

Question 66:

Match List I with List II




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III \textbf{Correct Answer:} (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
View Solution

Question 67:

In Carius tube, an organic compound 'X' is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid 'Y'. The solution of BaCl\(_2\) is added to 'Y' to form a precipitate 'Z'. 'Z' is used for the quantitative estimation of an extra element. 'X' could be:

  • (1) Chloroxyleneol
  • (2) Methionine
  • (3) A nucleotide
  • (4) Cytosine
Correct Answer: (2) Methionine
View Solution

Question 68:

Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are:

  • (1) 1 and 0
  • (2) 1 and 10
  • (3) 10 and 0
  • (4) 10 and 1
Correct Answer: (3) 10 and 0
View Solution

Question 69:

Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below. For the given diagram, the correct statement is:


  • (1) At 600°C, C can reduce ZnO
  • (2) At 600°C, C can reduce FeO
  • (3) At 600°C, CO cannot reduce FeO
  • (4) At 600°C, CO can reduce ZnO
Correct Answer: (2) At 600°C, C can reduce FeO
View Solution

Question 70:

Buna-S can be represented as:

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 71:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are different.

Reason R: Mass difference between isotopes of hydrogen is very large.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is false but R is true
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 72:

The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is

A. \([ Fe(CN)_6 ]^{3-}\)

B. \([ FeF_6 ]^{3-}\)

C. \([ CoF_6 ]^{3-}\)

D. \([ Cr(oxalate)_3 ]^{3-}\)

E. \([ Ni(CO)_4 ]\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) E \(<\) A \(<\) D \(<\) C \(<\) B
  • (2) A \(<\) E \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) D
  • (3) A \(<\) E \(<\) D \(<\) C \(<\) B
  • (4) E \(<\) A \(<\) B \(<\) D \(<\) C
Correct Answer: (1) E \(<\) A \(<\) D \(<\) C \(<\) B
View Solution

Question 73:

The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following carbonations is:





Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, A, D, B
  • (2) A, C, B, D
  • (3) A, C, D, B
  • (4) C, A, B, D
Correct Answer: (4) C, A, B, D
View Solution

Question 74:

Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:

  • (1) Ozonolysis of alkene.
  • (2) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene.
  • (3) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
  • (4) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis.
Correct Answer: (1) Ozonolysis of alkene.
View Solution

Question 75:

In the reaction given below:




The product ‘X’ is:

  • (1) \( H_2N - CH_2 - CH_2OH \)
  • (2) \( H_2N - CH_2 - OH \)
  • (3) \( H_2N - CH_3 \)
  • (4) \( H_2N - CH_2OH \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{H}_2\text{N} - \text{CH}_2\text{OH} \)
View Solution

Question 76:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The energy required to form \( Mg^{2+} \) from Mg is much higher than that required to produce \( Mg^+ \).
Reason R: \( Mg^{2+} \) is a small ion and carries more charge than \( Mg^+ \).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 77:

The major product 'P' formed in the given reaction is:

Correct Answer: (1) The structure in option (1)
View Solution

Question 78:

Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because -

  • (1) Blood absorbs FeCl\(_3\) and forms a complex.
  • (2) FeCl\(_3\) reacts with the constituents of blood which is a positively charged sol.
  • (3) Fe\(^{3+}\) ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol.
  • (4) Cl\(^-\) ions cause coagulation of blood.
Correct Answer: (3) Fe\(^{3+}\) ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol.
View Solution

Question 79:

The delicate balance of CO\(_2\) and O\(_2\) is NOT disturbed by

  • (1) Burning of Coal
  • (2) Deforestation
  • (3) Burning of petroleum
  • (4) Respiration
Correct Answer: (4) Respiration
View Solution

Question 80:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: 3.1500 g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1M oxalic acid solution.

Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol\(^{-1}\)


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false but R is true
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 81:

The number of molecules from the following which contain only two lone pair of electrons is:
\[ H_2O, \, N_2, \, CO, \, XeF_4, \, NH_3, \, NO, \, CO_2, \, F_2 \]

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 82:

The specific conductance of 0.0025M acetic acid is \( 5 \times 10^{-5} \) S cm\(^{-1}\) at a certain temperature. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is _______ \(\times 10^{-7}\). (Nearest integer)

Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH\(_3\)COOH as 400 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\).

Correct Answer: \( 66 \times 10^{-7} \)
View Solution

Question 83:

An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm\(^3\) contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of the protein is _______ g mol\(^{-1}\).

Given: \( R = 0.083 \, L bar K^{-1} mol^{-1} \)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 84:

The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete hydrolysis of XeF\(_4\) and XeF\(_4\) is __________

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 85:

The number of endothermic process/es from the following is

  • (A) I\(_2\) (g) \(\rightarrow\) 2I (g)
  • (B) HCl (g) \(\rightarrow\) H (g) + Cl (g)
  • (C) H\(_2\)O (l) \(\rightarrow\) H\(_2\)O (g)
  • (D) C (s) + O\(_2\) (g) \(\rightarrow\) CO\(_2\) (g)
  • (E) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 86:

The number of incorrect statement/s from the following is

  • (A) The successive half lives of zero order reactions decreases with time.
  • (B) A substance appearing as reactant in the chemical equation may not affect the rate of reaction.
  • (C) Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction can be a fractional number.
  • (D) The rate constant units of zero and second order reaction are mol L\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\) and mol\(^{-1}\) L s\(^{-1}\) respectively.
Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 87:

The electron in the \(n\)th orbit of Li\(^{2+}\) is excited to \((n + 1)\)th orbit using the radiation of energy \( 1.47 \times 10^{-17} \) J. The value of \(n\) is __________.

% Given
Given: \( R_H = 2.18 \times 10^{-18} \, J \)

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 88:

For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4.90 BM. This metal ion has _______ number of unpaired electrons.

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 89:

In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of ____ electrons.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 90:

For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450 mmHg and the pressure at time t is 720 mmHg at a constant temperature T and constant volume V. The fraction of A(g) decomposed under these conditions is \( x \times 10^{-1} \). The value of x is _______ (nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

 


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