JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2 Question Paper is here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM. Candidates can download the official JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for 11 April Shift 2 using the link below.

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JEE Main 2023 11 April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF

JEE Main 2023 11th April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution

JEE Main 2023 11th April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

The angle of elevation of the top \(P\) of a tower from the feet of one person standing due South of the tower is \(45^\circ\) and from the feet of another person standing due West of the tower is \(30^\circ\). If the height of the tower is 5 meters, then the distance (in meters) between the two persons is equal to:

  • (1) \(10\)
  • (2) \(5\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{2}\sqrt{5}\)
  • (4) \(5\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(10\)
View Solution

Question 2:

Let \(a\), \(b\), \(c\), and \(d\) be positive real numbers such that \(a + b + c + d = 11\). If the maximum value of \(a^5 b^3 c^2 d\) is \(3750\beta\), then the value of \(\beta\) is:

  • (1) \(55\)
  • (2) \(108\)
  • (3) \(90\)
  • (4) \(110\)
Correct Answer: (3) 90
View Solution

Question 3:

If \(f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) is a continuous function satisfying
\[ \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(\sin 2x) \sin x \, dx + \alpha \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} f(\cos 2x) \cos x \, dx = 0, \]
then the value of \(\alpha\) is:

  • (1) \(-\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(-\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(-\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Question 4:

Let \(f\) and \(g\) be two functions defined by:
\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} x + 1, & x < 0
|x - 1|, & x \geq 0 \end{cases}, \quad g(x) = \begin{cases} x + 1, & x < 0
1, & x \geq 0 \end{cases}. \]
Then \((g \circ f)(x)\) is:

  • (1) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at \(x = 1\)
  • (2) continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point
  • (3) differentiable everywhere
  • (4) not continuous at \(x = -1\)
Correct Answer: (2) continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point
View Solution

Question 5:

If the radius of the largest circle with centre \((2, 0)\) inscribed in the ellipse \(x^2 + 4y^2 = 36\) is \(r\), then \(12r^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(69\)
  • (2) \(72\)
  • (3) \(115\)
  • (4) \(92\)
Correct Answer: (4) 92
View Solution

Question 6:

Let the mean of 6 observations \(1, 2, 4, 5, x,\) and \(y\) and their variance be 10. Then their mean deviation about the mean is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 7:

Let \( A = \{1, 3, 4, 6, 9\} \) and \( B = \{2, 4, 5, 8, 10\} \). Let \( R \) be a relation defined on \( A \times B \) such that \( R = \{((a_1, b_1), (a_2, b_2)): a_1 \leq b_2 and b_1 \leq a_2\} \). Then the number of elements in the set \( R \) is:

  • (1) \(52\)
  • (2) \(160\)
  • (3) \(26\)
  • (4) \(180\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(160\)
View Solution

Question 8:

 Let \( P \) be the plane passing through the points \( (5, 3, 0) \), \( (13, 3, -2) \), and \( (1, 6, 2) \). For \( \alpha \in \mathbb{N} \), if the distances of the points \( A(3, 4, \alpha) \) and \( B(2, \alpha, a) \) from the plane \( P \) are \( 2 \) and \( 3 \) respectively, then the positive value of \( a \) is:

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(3\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(4\)
View Solution

Question 9:

If the letters of the word MATHS are permuted and all possible words so formed are arranged as in a dictionary with serial number, then the serial number of the word THAMS is:

  • (1) \(102\)
  • (2) \(103\)
  • (3) \(101\)
  • (4) \(104\)
Correct Answer: (2) 103
View Solution

Question 10:

If four distinct points with position vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, and \; \vec{d}\) are coplanar, then \([\vec{a}\vec{b}\vec{c}]\) is equal to:

  • (1) \([\vec{d}\vec{c}\vec{a}] + [\vec{b}\vec{d}\vec{a}] + [\vec{c}\vec{d}\vec{b}]\)
  • (2) \([\vec{d}\vec{b}\vec{a}] + [\vec{a}\vec{c}\vec{d}] + [\vec{d}\vec{b}\vec{c}]\)
  • (3) \([\vec{a}\vec{d}\vec{b}] + [\vec{d}\vec{c}\vec{a}] + [\vec{d}\vec{b}\vec{c}]\)
  • (4) \([\vec{b}\vec{c}\vec{d}] + [\vec{d}\vec{a}\vec{c}] + [\vec{d}\vec{b}\vec{a}]\)
Correct Answer: (1) \([\vec{d}\vec{c}\vec{a}] + [\vec{b}\vec{d}\vec{a}] + [\vec{c}\vec{d}\vec{b}]\)
View Solution

Question 11:

The sum of the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the binomial expansion of \((1 + x)^{n+2}\), which are in the ratio \(1 : 3 : 5\), is equal to:

  • (1) \(63\)
  • (2) \(92\)
  • (3) \(25\)
  • (4) \(41\)
Correct Answer: (1) 63
View Solution

Question 12:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{5}{x(x^5 + 1)}y = \frac{(x^5 + 1)^2}{x^7}, \, x > 0.\) If \(y(1) = 2\), then \(y(2)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{693}{128}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{637}{128}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{697}{128}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{679}{128}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{693}{128}\)
View Solution

Question 13:

The converse of \(((\sim p) \land q) \Rightarrow r\) is:

  • (1) \((p \lor (\sim q)) \Rightarrow (\sim r)\)
  • (2) \(((\sim p) \lor q) \Rightarrow r\)
  • (3) \((\sim r) \Rightarrow ((\sim p) \land q)\)
  • (4) \((\sim r) \Rightarrow (p \land q)\)
Correct Answer: (1) \((p \lor (\sim q)) \Rightarrow (\sim r)\)
View Solution

Question 14:

If the 1011th term from the end in the binomial expansion of \(\left(\frac{4x}{5} - \frac{5}{2x}\right)^{2022}\) is 1024 times the 1011th term from the beginning, the \(|x|\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(8\)
  • (2) \(12\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{16}\)
  • (4) \(15\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{5}{16}\)
View Solution

Question 15:

If the system of linear equations:
\[ 7x + 11y + \alpha z = 13, \quad 5x + 4y + 7z = \beta, \quad 175x + 194y + 57z = 361, \]
has infinitely many solutions, then \(\alpha + \beta + 2\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(3\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(5\)
  • (4) \(4\)
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution

Question 16:

Let the line passing through the point \(P(2, -1, 2)\) and \(Q(5, 3, 4)\) meet the plane \(x - y + z = 4\) at the point \(T\). Then the distance of the point \(R\) from the plane \(x + 2y + 3z + 2 = 0\), measured parallel to the line \(\frac{x - 7}{2} = \frac{y + 3}{2} = \frac{z - 2}{1}\), is equal to:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \(\sqrt{61}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{31}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{189}\)
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution

Question 17:

Let the function \(f : [0, 2] \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined as:
\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} e^{\min\{x^2, x - \lfloor x \rfloor\}}, & x \in [0, 1),
e^{x - \log_e x}, & x \in [1, 2), \end{cases} \]
where \(\lfloor t \rfloor\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(t\).

Then the value of the integral \(\int_0^2 x f(x) \, dx\) is:

  • (1) \((e - 1) \left(e^2 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (2) \(1 + \frac{3e}{2}\)
  • (3) \(2e - \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(2e - 1\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(2e - \frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 18:

For \(a \in \mathbb{C}\), let:
\[ A = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} : Re(a + \overline{z}) > Im(\overline{a} + z) \}, \textbf{and} \quad B = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} : Re(a + \overline{z}) < Im(\overline{a} + z) \}. \]
Among the two statements:

(S1): If \(Re(a), Im(a) > 0\), then the set \(A\) contains all the real numbers.

(S2): If \(Re(a), Im(a) < 0\), then the set \(B\) contains all the real numbers.

  • (1) Only (S1) is true
  • (2) Both are false
  • (3) Only (S2) is true
  • (4) Both are true
Correct Answer: (2) Both are false
View Solution

Question 19:

If:
\[ \begin{vmatrix} x + 1 & x & x
x & x + \lambda & x
x & x & x + \lambda^2 \end{vmatrix} = \frac{9}{8}(103x + 81), \]
then \(\lambda, \frac{\lambda}{3}\) are the roots of the equation:

  • (1) \(4x^2 - 24x - 27 = 0\)
  • (2) \(4x^2 + 24x + 27 = 0\)
  • (3) \(4x^2 - 24x + 27 = 0\)
  • (4) \(4x^2 + 24x - 27 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(4x^2 - 24x + 27 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 20:

The domain of the function \(f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\lfloor x \rfloor^2 - 3\lfloor x \rfloor - 10}}\), where \(\lfloor x \rfloor\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\), is:

  • (1) \((-\infty, -3] \cup [6, \infty)\)
  • (2) \((-\infty, -2) \cup (5, \infty)\)
  • (3) \((-\infty, -3] \cup (5, \infty)\)
  • (4) \((-\infty, -2) \cup [6, \infty)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \((-\infty, -2) \cup [6, \infty)\)
View Solution

Question 21:

If \(A\) is the area in the first quadrant enclosed by the curve \(C : 2x^2 - y + 1 = 0\), the tangent to \(C\) at the point \((1, 3)\), and the line \(x + y = 1\), then the value of \(60A\) is _____:

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 22:

Let \(A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\}\) and \(B = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6\}\). Then the number of functions \(f : A \to B\) satisfying \(f(1) + f(2) = f(4) - 1\) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: 360
View Solution

Question 23:

Let the tangent to the parabola \(y^2 = 12x\) at the point \((3, \alpha)\) be perpendicular to the line \(2x + 2y = 3\). Then the square of the distance of the point \((6, -4)\) from the normal to the hyperbola \(\alpha^2 x^2 - 9y^2 = 9\alpha^2\) at its point \((\alpha - 1, \alpha + 2)\) is equal to _____.

Correct Answer: 116
View Solution

Question 24:

For \(k \in \mathbb{N}\), if the sum of the series \(1 + \frac{4}{k} + \frac{8}{k^2} + \frac{13}{k^3} + \frac{19}{k^4} + \ldots\) is 10, then the value of \(k\) is _____.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 25:

Let the line \(\ell : x = \frac{1 - y}{-2} = \frac{z - 3}{\lambda}, \, \lambda \in \mathbb{R}\) meet the plane \(P : x + 2y + 3z = 4\) at the point \((\alpha, \beta, \gamma)\). If the angle between the line \(\ell\) and the plane \(P\) is \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{14}}\right)\), then \(\alpha + 2\beta + 6\gamma\) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: 11
View Solution

Question 26:

The number of points where the curve \(f(x) = e^{8x} - e^{6x} - 3e^{4x} - e^{2x} + 1, x \in \mathbb{R}\) cuts the \(x\)-axis, is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 27:

If the line \(l_1 : 3y - 2x = 3\) is the angular bisector of the line \(l_2 : x - y + 1 = 0\) and \(l_3 : \alpha x + \beta y + 17 = 0\), then \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 - \alpha - \beta\) is equal to _____.

Correct Answer: 348
View Solution

Question 28:

Let the probability of getting a head for a biased coin be \(\frac{1}{4}\). It is tossed repeatedly until a head appears. Let \(N\) be the number of tosses required. If the probability that the equation \(64x^2 + 5Nx + 1 = 0\) has no real root is \(\frac{p}{q}\), where \(p\) and \(q\) are co-prime, then \(q - p\) is equal to ____.

Correct Answer: 27
View Solution

Question 29:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k}\). If \(\vec{c}\) is a vector such that \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c} = 11\), \(\vec{b} \cdot (\vec{a} \times \vec{c}) = 27\) and \(\vec{b} \cdot \vec{c} = -\sqrt{3}|\vec{b}|\), then \(|\vec{a} \times \vec{c}|^2\) is equal to ____:

Correct Answer: 285
View Solution

Question 30:

Let \(S = \left\{z \in \mathbb{C} - \{i, 2i\}: \frac{z^2 + 8iz - 15}{z^2 - 3iz - 2} \in \mathbb{R} \right\}\). If \(\alpha - \frac{13}{11}i \in S\), \(\alpha \in \mathbb{R} - \{0\}\), then \(242\alpha^2\) is equal to ________.

Correct Answer: 1680
View Solution

Question 31:

Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops collapse, the new velocity is :-

  • (1) \(10 cm/s\)
  • (2) \(40 cm/s\)
  • (3) \(16 cm/s\)
  • (4) \(5 cm/s\)
Correct Answer: (2): 40 cm/s
View Solution

Question 32:

Provided that below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A bar magnet dropped through a metallic cylindrical pipe takes more time to come down compared to a non-magnetic bar with same geometry and mass.
Reason R: For the magnetic bar, Eddy currents are produced in the metallic pipe which oppose the motion of the magnetic bar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

(1) A is true but R is false

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is false but R is true

(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: (4): Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
View Solution

Question 33:

A space ship of mass \(2 \times 10^4\) kg is launched into a circular orbit close to the earth surface. The additional velocity to be imparted to the space ship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational pull will be (if \(g = 10\) m/s\(^2\) and radius of earth = 6400 km):

  • (1) \(7.9(\sqrt{2}-1)\) km/s
  • (2) \(7.4(\sqrt{2}-1)\) km/s
  • (3) \(11.2(\sqrt{2}-1)\) km/s
  • (4) \(8(\sqrt{2}-1)\) km/s
Correct Answer: (4): \(8(\sqrt{2}-1)\) km/s
View Solution

Question 34:

A projectile is projected at \(30^\circ\) from horizontal with initial velocity \(40 ms^{-1}\). The velocity of the projectile at \(t=2\) s from the start will be :

(Provided that \(g = 10 m/s^2\))

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) \(20\sqrt{3} ms^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(40\sqrt{3} ms^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(20 ms^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (2): \(20\sqrt{3} \text{ ms}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Initial velocity components.

The initial velocity of the projectile is \(u = 40 \, ms^{-1}\), and the angle of projection is \(30^\circ\).

1. Horizontal velocity component (\(U_x\)): \[ U_x = u \cos 30^\circ = 40 \cdot \cos 30^\circ = 40 \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = 20\sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1}. \]

2. Vertical velocity component (\(U_y\)): \[ U_y = u \sin 30^\circ = 40 \cdot \sin 30^\circ = 40 \cdot \frac{1}{2} = 20 \, ms^{-1}. \]



Step 2: Velocity after \(t = 2 \, s\).

1. Horizontal velocity (\(V_x\)) remains constant because there is no horizontal acceleration: \[ V_x = U_x = 20\sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1}. \]

2. Vertical velocity (\(V_y\)) is affected by gravity (\(g = 10 \, ms^{-2}\)): \[ V_y = U_y - gt = 20 - 10 \cdot 2 = 20 - 20 = 0 \, ms^{-1}. \]



Step 3: Resultant velocity (\(V\)).

The resultant velocity is the vector sum of \(V_x\) and \(V_y\): \[ V = \sqrt{V_x^2 + V_y^2}. \]
Substitute the values: \[ V = \sqrt{(20\sqrt{3})^2 + (0)^2} = \sqrt{400 \cdot 3} = \sqrt{1200} = 20\sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1}. \]



Conclusive Answer: The velocity of the projectile after \(t = 2 \, s\) is \(20\sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1}\). Quick Tip: In projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity remains constant, while the vertical component changes due to gravity.


Question 35:

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular space and time, \(\vec{E} = 6.6 \hat{j}\) v/m. What is \(\vec{B}\) at this point?

  • (1) \(-2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k}\) T
  • (2) \(-2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{i}\) T
  • (3) \(2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k}\) T
  • (4) \(2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{i}\) T
Correct Answer: (3): \(2.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k}\) T
View Solution

Question 36:

A car P travelling at \(20 ms^{-1}\) sounds its horn at a frequency of 400 Hz. Another car Q is travelling behind the first car in the same direction with a velocity \(40 ms^{-1}\). The frequency heard by the passenger of the car Q is approximately [Take, velocity of sound \(= 360 ms^{-1}\)]

  • (1) \(471 Hz\)
  • (2) \(514 Hz\)
  • (3) \(421 Hz\)
  • (4) \(485 Hz\)
Correct Answer: (3): 421 Hz
View Solution

Question 37:

A body of mass 500 g moves along x-axis such that its velocity varies with displacement x according to the calculation \(v = 10\sqrt{x}\) m/s the force acting on the body is :-

  • (1) \(25 N\)
  • (2) \(5 N\)
  • (3) \(166 N\)
  • (4) \(125 N\)
Correct Answer: (1): 25 N
View Solution

Question 38:

The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and electron having same Kinetic energy:

(\( Assume m_p = m_e \times 1840 \))

  • (1) \(1:62\)
  • (2) \(1:30\)
  • (3) \(1:43\)
  • (4) \(2:43\)
Correct Answer: (3): 1:43
View Solution

Question 39:

If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are considered as fundamental physical quantity, then dimensional formula of density will be :-

  • (1) \(FV^{-2}T^{2}\)
  • (2) \(FV^{4}T^{-6}\)
  • (3) \(FV^{-4}T^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(F^{2}V^{-2}T^{6}\)
Correct Answer: (3): \(FV^{-4}T^{-2}\)
View Solution

Question 40:

An electron is allowed to move with constant velocity along the axis of current carrying straight solenoid.
A. The electron will experience magnetic force along the axis of the solenoid.
B. The electron will not experience magnetic force.
C. The electron will continue to move along the axis of the solenoid.
D. The electron will be accelerated along the axis of the solenoid.
E. The electron will follow parabolic path inside the solenoid.
Choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) B, C and D only
  • (3) B and E only
  • (4) B and C only
Correct Answer: (4): B and C only
View Solution

Question 41:

The Thermodynamic process, in which internal energy of the system remains constant is

  • (1) Isobaric
  • (2) Isochoric
  • (3) Adiabatic
  • (4) Isothermal
Correct Answer: (4): Isothermal
View Solution

Question 42:

In satellite communication, the uplink frequency band used is:

  • (1) \(76 - 88\) MHz
  • (2) \(420 - 890\) MHz
  • (3) \(3.7 - 4.2\) GHz
  • (4) \(5.925 - 6.425\) GHz
Correct Answer: (4): 5.925 -- 6.425 GHz
View Solution

Question 43:

The logic operations performed by the Provided that digital circuit is equivalent to:

  • (1) \(OR\)
  • (2) \(NAND\)
  • (3) \(NOR\)
  • (4) \(AND\)
Correct Answer: (4): AND
View Solution

Question 44:

The current flowing through \(R_2\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\) A
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\) A
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\) A
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\) A
Correct Answer: (1): \(\frac{1}{3}\) A
View Solution

Question 45:

When vector \(\vec{A} = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}\) is subtracted from vector \(\vec{B}\), it gives a vector equal to \(2\hat{j}\). Then the magnitude of vector \(\hat{B}\) will be:

  • (1) \(3\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{33}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{6}\)
Correct Answer: (3): \(\sqrt{33}\)
View Solution

Question 46:

If V is the gravitational potential due to sphere of uniform density on it's surface, then it's value at the center of sphere will be:-

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}V\)
  • (2) \(V\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3V}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{V}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (3): \(\frac{3V}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 47:

The root mean square speed of molecules of nitrogen gas at \(27^\circ\)C is approximately : (Provided that mass of a nitrogen molecule \(= 4.6 \times 10^{-26}\) kg and take Boltzmann constant \(k_B = 1.4 \times 10^{-23} JK^{-1}\))

  • (1) \(1260\) m/s
  • (2) \(91\) m/s
  • (3) \(523\) m/s
  • (4) \(27.4\) m/s
Correct Answer: (3): 523 m/s
View Solution

Question 48:

The energy of He\(^{+}\) ion in its first excited state is, (The ground state energy for the Hydrogen atom is \(-13.6\) eV):

  • (1) \(-13.6\) eV
  • (2) \(-54.4\) eV
  • (3) \(-27.2\) eV
  • (4) \(-3.4\) eV
Correct Answer: (1): \(-13.6\) eV
View Solution

Question 49:

When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with \(30^\circ\) angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of the ray after reflection is:

  • (1) \(140^\circ\)
  • (2) \(130^\circ\)
  • (3) \(120^\circ\)
  • (4) \(110^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (3): \(120^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 50:

A capacitor of capacitance C is charge to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface enclosing the positive plate of the capacitor is :

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) \(\frac{CV}{\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2CV}{\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{CV}{2\varepsilon_0}\)
Correct Answer: (2): \(\frac{CV}{\varepsilon_0}\)
View Solution

Question 51:

A coil has an inductance of 2H and resistance of \(4 \Omega\). A 10 V is applied across the coil. The energy stored in the magnetic field after the current has built up to its equilibrium value will be ____ \(\times 10^{-2}\) J.

Correct Answer: 625
View Solution

Question 52:

A metallic cube of side 15 cm moving along y-axis at a uniform velocity of 2 ms\(^{-1}\). In a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.5T directed along z-axis. In equilibrium the potential difference between the faces of higher and lower potential developed because of the motion through the field will be _____ mV.
 

Correct Answer: 150
View Solution

Question 53:

In the Provided that circuit, \(C_1 = 2\) \(\mu\)F, \(C_2 = 0.2\) \(\mu\)F, \(C_3 = 2\) \(\mu\)F, \(C_4 = 4\) \(\mu\)F, \(C_5 = 2\) \(\mu\)F, \(C_6 = 2\) \(\mu\)F. The charge stored on capacitor \(C_4\) is ____ \(\mu\)C.
 

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 54:

A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, in such a way that ratio of their nuclear sizes is \(1 : 2^{1/3}\). Their respective speed have a ratio of n : 1. The value of n is ____.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 55:

The surface tension of soap solution is \(3.5 \times 10^{-2}\) Nm\(^{-1}\). The amount of work done required to increase the radius of soap bubble from 10 cm to 20 cm is ____ \(\times 10^{-4}\) J. \quad (take \(\pi = 22/7\))

Correct Answer: 264
View Solution

Question 56:

A circular plate is rotating horizontal plane, about an axis passing through its center perpendicular to the plate, with an angular velocity \(\omega\). A person sits at the center having two dumbbells in his hands. When he stretches out his hands, the moment of inertia of the system becomes triple. If E be the initial Kinetic energy of the system, then final Kinetic energy will be \(\frac{E}{x}\). The value of x is _____.

Correct Answer: 3
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Question 57:

A block of mass 5 kg starting from rest pulled up on a smooth incline plane making an angle of \(30^\circ\) with horizontal with an affective acceleration of 1 ms\(^{-2}\). The power delivered by the pulling force at \(t = 10\) s from the starts is _____ W. \quad [use \(g = 10\) ms\(^{-2}\)] (Evaluate the nearest integer value)

Correct Answer: 300
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Question 58:

As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed at a height of 50 cm from the bottom of tank containing water \(\left(\mu = \frac{4}{3}\right)\). The height of water in the tank is 8 cm. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the water tank. The distance of image of the bulb formed by mirror from the bottom of the tank is _____ cm.

Correct Answer: 98
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Question 59:

Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in series across a \(10 \ \Omega\) resistance. An ideal voltmeter connected across \(10 \ \Omega\) resistance reads 1.5 V. The internal resistance of each cell is ____ \(\Omega\).

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution

Question 60:

A wire of density \(8 \times 10^3\) kg/m\(^3\) is stretched between two clamps 0.5 m apart. The extension developed in the wire is \(3.2 \times 10^{-4}\) m. If \(Y = 8 \times 10^{10}\) N/m\(^2\), the fundamental frequency of vibration in the wire will be _____ Hz.

Correct Answer: 80
View Solution

Question 61:

The magnetic moment is measured in Bohr Magneton (BM). Spin only magnetic moment of Fe in \([Fe(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\) and \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\) complexes respectively is:

  • (1) \(3.87\) B.M. and \(1.732\) B.M.
  • (2) \(6.92\) B.M. in both
  • (3) \(5.92\) B.M. and \(1.732\) B.M.
  • (4) \(4.89\) B.M. and \(6.92\) B.M.
Correct Answer: (3): 5.92 B.M. and 1.732 B.M.
View Solution

Question 62:

Which one of the following pairs is an example of polar molecular solids?

  • (1) \(SO_2(s), CO_2(s)\)
  • (2) \(SO_2(s), NH_3(s)\)
  • (3) \(MgO(s), SO_2(s)\)
  • (4) \(HCl(s), AlN(s)\)
Correct Answer: (2): \(SO_2(s), NH_3(s)\)
View Solution

Question 63:

Match List I with List II

 List I & & List II

 Complex & & Colour

A. & Mg(NH\(_4\))PO\(_4\) & I. & Brown

B. & K\(_3\)[Co(NO\(_2\))\(_6\)] & II. & White

C. & MnO(OH)\(_2\) & III. & Yellow

D. & Fe\(_4\)[Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(_3\) & IV. & blue

Choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) A -- II, B -- III, C -- IV, D -- I
  • (2) A -- II, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- III
  • (3) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- II, D -- I
  • (4) A -- II, B -- III, C -- I, D -- IV
Correct Answer: (4): A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
View Solution

Question 64:

A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of "X" to 1 mole of water. Mass percent of "X" in the solution is ____.

  • (1) \(5%\)
  • (2) \(20%\)
  • (3) \(2%\)
  • (4) \(10%\)
Correct Answer: (4): 10%
View Solution

Question 65:

If Ni\(^{2+}\) is replaced by Pt\(^{2+}\) in the complex \([NiCl_2Br_2]^{2-}\), which of the following properties are expected to get changed?

A. Geometry

B. Geometrical isomerism

C. Optical isomerism

D. Magnetic properties

  • (1) A, B and C
  • (2) A and D
  • (3) B and C
  • (4) A, B and D
Correct Answer: (4): A, B, and D
View Solution

Question 66:

Provided that below are two statements :

Statement I: In the metallurgy process, sulphide ore is converted to oxide before reduction.

Statement II: Oxide ores in general are easier to reduce.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Correct Answer: (1): Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 67:

Product [X] formed in the above reaction is:

  • (1) \(CH_3-CH_2-CH(D)-CH_3\)
  • (2) \(CH_3-CH_2-CH=CH_2\)
  • (3) \(CH_3-CH=CH-CH_3\)
  • (4) \(CH_3-CH_2-C(OH)(H)-CH_3\)
Correct Answer: (1): \(CH_3-CH_2-CH(D)-CH_3\)
View Solution

Question 68:

Provided that below are two statements :
Statement I : Ethene at 333 to 343 K and 6-7 atm pressure in the presence of AlEt\(_3\) and TiCl\(_4\) undergoes addition polymerization to give LDP.
Statement II : Caprolactam at 533-543 K in H\(_2\)O through step growth polymerizes to give Nylon 6.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (3): Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution

Question 69:

For a chemical reaction A + B \(\rightarrow\) Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.

Rate & [A] & [B]

molL\(^{-1}\)S\(^{-1}\) & molL\(^{-1}\) & molL\(^{-1}\)

0.10 & 20 & 0.5

0.40 & x & 0.5

0.80 & 40 & Y

What is the value of x and y?

  • (1) 80 and 2
  • (2) 40 and 4
  • (3) 80 and 4
  • (4) 160 and 4
Correct Answer: (1): 80 and 2
View Solution

Question 70:

Which of the following compounds is an example of Freon?

  • (1) \(C_2F_4\)
  • (2) \(C_2HF_3\)
  • (3) \(C_2Cl_2F_2\)
  • (4) \(C_2H_2F_2\)
Correct Answer: (3): \(C_2Cl_2F_2\)
View Solution

Question 71:

Compound `B' is _____.

  • (1) 
  • (2) 
  • (3) 
  • (4) 
Correct Answer: (1) 
View Solution

Question 72:

Provided that below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A:
\chemfig{C(=[2]O)-C(-[6]Cl) can be subjected to Wolff-Kishner reduction to give \chemfig{CH_2-C(-[6]Cl)(-H)(-H)

Reason R: Wolff-Kishner reduction is used to convert \chemfig{C(=[2]O) into \chemfig{CH_2

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: (4): A is false but R is true
View Solution

Question 73:

Provided that below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : \([CoCl(NH_3)_5]^{2+}\) absorbs at lower wavelength of light wrt- \([CoCl(NH_3)_5(H_2O)]^{3+}\)

Reason R : It is because the wavelength of the light absorbed depends on the oxidation state of the metal ion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: (4): A is false but R is true
View Solution

Question 74:

Compound from the following that will not produce precipitate on reaction with AgNO\(_3\) is:

  • (1) 
  • (2) 
  • (3) 
  • (4) 
Correct Answer: (2) 
View Solution

Question 75:

Provided that below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : A solution of the product obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a mole of chlorine in presence of red phosphorous generates chiral carbon atom.

Reason R : A molecule with 2 chiral carbons is always optically active.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options Provided that below:

  • (1) A is false but R is true
  • (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (3): A is true but R is false
View Solution

Question 76:

Alkali metal from the following with least melting point is:

  • (1) K
  • (2) Cs
  • (3) Rb
  • (4) Na
Correct Answer: (2): Cs
View Solution

Question 77:

Which hydride among the following is less stable?

  • (1) HF
  • (2) NH\(_3\)
  • (3) BeH\(_2\)
  • (4) LiH
Correct Answer: (3): BeH\(_2\)
View Solution

Question 78:

The major product formed in the following reaction is _____.

  • (1) C only
  • (2) A only
  • (3) B only
  • (4) D only
Correct Answer: (3): B only
View Solution

Question 79:

One mole of P\(_4\) reacts with 8 moles SOCl\(_2\) to give 4 moles of A, x mole of SO\(_2\) and 2 moles of B. A, B and x respectively are _____.

  • (1) POCl\(_3\), S\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) and 4
  • (2) POCl\(_3\), S\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) and 2
  • (3) PCl\(_3\), S\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) and 4
  • (4) PCl\(_3\), S\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) and 2
Correct Answer: (1): POCl\(_3\), S\(_2\)Cl\(_2\), and 4
View Solution

Question 80:

What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mmHg?
(Assume dilute solution is being formed)

Provided that : Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mmHg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180g mol\(^{-1}\)

  • (1) 2.59 g
  • (2) 3.59 g
  • (3) 3.69 g
  • (4) 4.69 g
Correct Answer: (3): 3.69 g
View Solution

Question 81:

The total number of intensive properties from the following is _____.

Mole, Volume, Molar heat capacity, Molarity, E° cell, Gibbs free energy change, Molar mass, Mole

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 82:

The volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by treating 2.4 g of magnesium with excess of hydrochloric acid is _____ \(\times 10^{-2}\) L.

Provided that: Molar volume of gas is 22.4 L at STP. Molar mass of magnesium is 24 g mol\(^{-1}\)

Correct Answer: 224
View Solution

Question 83:

The number of correct statements about modern adsorption theory of heterogeneous catalysis from the following is ____.
A. The catalyst is diffused over the surface of reactants.

B. Reactants are adsorbed on the surface of the catalyst.

C. Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst's surface through formation of an intermediate.

D. It is a combination of intermediate compound formation theory and the old adsorption theory.

E. It explains the action of the catalyst as well as those of catalytic promoters and poisons.

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 84:

The number of correct statements from the following is _____.
A. For 1 s orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus

B. For 2 s orbital, the probability density first increases to maximum and then decreases sharply to zero.

C. Boundary surface diagrams of the orbitals encloses a region of 100% probability of finding the electron.

D. p and d-orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes respectively

E. probability density of p-orbital is zero at the nucleus

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 85:

The number of correct statements from the following is _____.

A. \(E_{cell}\) is an intensive parameter

B. A negative E° means that the redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than the H\(^+\)/H\(_2\) couple.

C. The amount of electricity required for oxidation or reduction depends on the stoichiometry of the electrode reaction.

D. The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by a current is proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 86:

Mg(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)·XH\(_2\)O and Ba(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)·YH\(_2\)O, represent formula of the crystalline forms of nitrate salts. Sum of X and Y is _____.

Correct Answer: 6
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Question 87:

The number of possible isomeric products formed when 3-chloro-1-butene reacts with HCl through carbocation formation is _____.

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 88:

4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine is heated in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3 moles of HI were found. The equilibrium constant for \(H_2(g)+I_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2HI(g)\) is _____.

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 89:

Number of compounds from the following which will not produce orange red precipitate with Benedict solution is ______.

Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose, 2-deoxyribose, amylose, lactose

Correct Answer: 2
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Question 90:

The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom from the following species is _____.

ClO\(_3^-\), XeF\(_4\), SF\(_4\), and I\(_3^-\)

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution


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