JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 6, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 6 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \(A = \{x \in \mathbb{R}: |x+3| + |x+4| \le 3\}\),} \[ B = \left\{ x \in \mathbb{R} : 3 \cdot \sum_{r=1}^{\infty} \frac{3^{x-3}}{10^r} < 3^{-3x} \right\}, \] where \([x]\) denotes the greatest integer function. Then,

  • (1)   \(A \subset B, A \ne B\)
  • (2) \(A \cap B = \phi\)
  • (3) \(A = B\)
  • (4) \(B \subset C, A \ne B\)

Question 2:

If the system of equations  
x + y + az = b  
2x + 5y + 2z = 6  
x + 2y + 3z = 3  
Has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal to

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 23
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 28

Question 3:

The straight lines l1 and l2 pass through the origin and trisect the line segment of the line L: 9x + 5y = 45 between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of the lines l1 and l2, then the point of intersection of the line y = (m1 + m2)x with L lies on

  • (1) y-2x=5
  • (2) 6x-y=15
  • (3) y-x=5
  • (4) 6x+y=10

Question 4:

One vertex of a rectangular parallelepiped is at the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and z axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest distance between the diagonal OP and an edge parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is :

  • (1) \(\frac{16}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{\sqrt{34}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{12}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{5}\)

Question 5:

Mean of first 15 numbers is 12 and variance is 14. Mean of next 15 numbers is 14 and variance is a. If variance of all 30 numbers is 13, then a is equal to

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 3

Question 6:

Let \(A=\) [\(a_{ij}\)]\(_{2\times2}\) be a matrix and \(A^2 = I\) where \(a_{ij} \neq0\). If a sum of diagonal elements and b=det(A), then \(3a^2+4b^2\) is

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8

Question 7:

If 5f(x) + 4f (\(\frac{1}{x}\)) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)+ 3, then \(18\int_{1}^{2}\) f(x)dx is:

  • (1)

    10 \(l\)n 3 - 6

  • (2)

    5 \(l\)n2 - 6

  • (3)

    10 \(l\)n 2 - 6

  • (4)

    5 \(l\)n 2 - 3


Question 8:

Let \(I(x) = \int \frac{x^2\left(x\sec^2 x + \tan x\right)}{(x\tan x + 1)^2}\,dx\). If \(I(0) = 0\), then \(I\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\log_e \frac{(\pi+4)^2}{32} - \frac{\pi^2}{4(\pi+4)}\)
  • (2) \(\log_e \frac{(\pi+4)^2}{16} - \frac{\pi^2}{4(\pi+4)}\)
  • (3) \(\log_e \frac{(\pi+4)^2}{16} + \frac{\pi^2}{4(\pi+4)}\)
  • (4) \(\log_e \frac{(\pi+4)^2}{32} + \frac{\pi^2}{4(\pi+4)}\)

Question 9:

Let \(\vec{a}\) = 2\(\widehat{i}\)+3\(\widehat{j}\)+4\(\widehat{k}\), \(\vec{b}\) = \(\widehat{i}\)-2\(\widehat{j}\)-2\(\widehat{k}\), \(\vec{c}\) = -\(\widehat{i}\)+4\(\widehat{j}\)+3\(\widehat{k}\) and \(\vec{d}\) is a vector perpendicular to \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\),  \(\vec{a}\).\(\vec{d}\) = 18, then find |\(\vec{a}\)x\(\vec{d}\)|2

  • (1) 720
  • (2) 700
  • (3) 360
  • (4) 300

Question 10:

If \(a_1,a_2,.......a_n\) are in arithmetic progression with common difference \(d>n\), then find limit \(\lim_{n \to \infty}\sqrt{\frac{d}{n}}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{a_1}+\sqrt{a_2}})+\frac{1}{\sqrt{a_2}+\sqrt{a_3}}+.......+\frac{1}{\sqrt{a_n}+\sqrt{a_{n-1}}})\) is____.


Question 11:

The sum of roots of |x2 - 8x + 15| - 2x + 7 = 0 is:

  • (1) \(11+\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(11-\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(9+\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(9-\sqrt{3}\)

Question 12:

In the expansion of \((2^\frac{1}{4}+3^{-\frac{1}{4}})^n\), the ratio of \(5^{th}\) term from start and \(5^{th}\) term form end is \(\sqrt 6 : 1\) , then find \(3^{rd}\) term

  • (1) 30\(\sqrt 3\)
  • (2) 60\(\sqrt 3\)
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 50\(\sqrt 3\)

Question 13:

if \(2x^y+3y^x=20\) then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at (2,2) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-(\frac{3+log_e4}{ 2+loge_8})\)
  • (2) \(-(\frac{3+log_e16}{ 4+loge_8})\)
  • (3) \(-(\frac{3+log_e8}{ 2+loge_4 })\)
  • (4) \(-(\frac{2+log_e8}{ 3+loge_4})\)

Question 14:

The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 5 + 11 + 19 + 29 + 41 + ... is


Question 15:

A pair of dice is rolled 5 times. let getting a total of 5 in a single throw is considered as success. If probability of getting atleast four success is \(\frac{x}{3}\) then x is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{41}{9^{5}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{41}{9^{4}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{123}{9^{5}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{123}{9^{4}}\)

Question 16:

If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3, 4x– 3y +5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line  \(\frac{x+1}{−2} =\frac{ y+3}{4}= \frac{z−2}{5}\) is ax by+cz+6=0. then a + b + c is equal to 

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 15

Question 17:

\(5\^{i}+5\hat{j}+2λ\hat{k},\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k},-2\hat{i}+λ\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\) and \(-\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+6\hat{k}.\) Let the set S = {λ∈ \(\mathbb{R}\) : The points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then \(\displaystyle\sum_{λ∈S}^{}(λ+2)^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 41
  • (4) \(\frac{37}{2}\)

Question 18:

From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30 m, the angles of depression of the top P and bottom Q of a vertical tower PQ are 15\(^\circ\) and 60\(^\circ\) respectively. B and Q are on the same horizontal level. If C is a point on AB such that CB = 15 m, then the area (in m\(^2\)) of the quadrilateral BCPQ is equal to : 

  • (1) \(300(\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5})\)
  • (2) \(300(\sqrt{3} + 1)\)
  • (3) \(300(\sqrt{3} - 1)\)
  • (4) \(600(\sqrt{3} - 1)\)

Question 19:

Statement (P \(\Rightarrow\) Q) \(\land\) (R \(\Rightarrow\) Q) is logically equivalent to :

  • (1) (P \(\lor\) R) \(\Rightarrow\) Q}
  • (2) (P \(\Rightarrow\) R) \(\lor\) (Q \(\Rightarrow\) R)}
  • (3) (P \(\Rightarrow\) R) \(\land\) (Q \(\Rightarrow\) R)
  • (4) (P \(\land\) R) \(\Rightarrow\) Q

Question 20:

If 2nC3 : nC3 = 10, then \(\frac{n^{2}+3n}{n^{2}-3n+4}\) is equal to


Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential equation (x cos x)dy +(xy sin x + y cos x – l)dx = 0, 0 < x < \(\frac{π}{2}\). If\(\frac{π}{3}y(\frac{π}{3})=\sqrt3\), then \(| \frac{π}{6 }y“( \frac{π}{6})+2 y'( \frac{π}{6})| \) is equal to______.


Question 22:

If the area of the region \( S={(x,y) : 2y-y^2 ≤ x^2 ≤ 2y, x ≥ y}\) is equal to \(\frac{ n+2}{n+1}−\frac{π}{n−1}\), then the natural number n is equal to _____.


Question 23:

Let the point (p, p+1) lie inside the region \(E = \{(x,y):3-x≤y≤\sqrt{9-x^2}, 0 ≤ x ≤ 3\} \)If the set of all values of p is the interval (a,b). then b2 + b - a2 is equal to_____


Question 24:

Let a∈ Z and [t] be the greatest integer t. Then the number of points, where the function f(x)=[a+13 sin x], x ∈ (0, π) is not differentiable, is ____


Question 25:

Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4,.....10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. The number of elements in the relation R = {(a, b) ∈ A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b) ∈ B} is______.


Question 26:

A circle passing through the point P\(( \alpha , \beta )\) in the first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at the points A and B. The point P is above the line AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the foot of perpendicular from P on AB. If PQ is equal to 11 units, then value of \(( \alpha \beta )\)  is ___


Question 27:

The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges to 3 children such that each child gets at least one orange is______ 


Question 28:

Let the tangent to the curve x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0 at the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the line passing through P and parallel to the line x – 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on the line 2x – 3y = 8. then (AB)2 is equal to___


Question 29:

The coefficient of \(x^{18}\) in the expansion of \(\left(x^4 - \frac{1}{x^3}\right)^{15}\) is ________


Question 30:

Let the image of the point \(P(1, 2, 3)\) in the plane \(2x - y + z = 9\) be \(Q\). If the coordinates of the point \(R\) are \((6, 10, 7)\), then the square of the area of the triangle \(PQR\) is ___________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle \(90\degree\) , the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is \(π : x\sqrt2\). The value of x will be -

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 5

Question 32:

The induced emf can be produced in a coil by
A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field 
B. moving the coil with non uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field 
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic field 
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform magnetic field 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) A and C only

Question 33:

Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attachedName the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

  • (1) NOR
  • (2) OR
  • (3) NAND
  • (4) AND

Question 34:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Range is maximum at θ = 45º.
Reason (R): Range is maximum when sin (2θ) = 1.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true & reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion.
  • (2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R is not correct explanation of assertion.
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true and reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false and reason (R) is false.

Question 35:

A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increase is

  • (1) 500 W
  • (2) 600 W
  • (3) 800 W
  • (4) 1200 W

Question 36:

A small ball of mass M and density \(\rho\) is dropped in a viscous liquid of density \(\rho_0\). After some time, the ball falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball ?

  • (1) \(F=Mg(1+\frac{\rho_0}{\rho})\)
  • (2) \(F=Mg(1+\frac{\rho}{\rho_0})\)
  • (3) \(F=Mg(1-\frac{\rho_0}{\rho})\)
  • (4) \(F=Mg(1±\rho\rho_0)\)

Question 37:

A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The other end of spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth horizontal surface with constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is-

  • (1) 0.75N
  • (2) 1.5N
  • (3) 0.25N
  • (4) 0.50N

Question 38:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion (A): Earth has atmosphere and moon doesn’t Reason (R): escape speed on moon is less than that Earth. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) and (R) both are false

Question 39:

The kinetic energy of an electron, α-particle and a proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron (λe) α-particle (λα) and the proton (λp) are as follows :

  • (1) λα > λp > λe
  • (2) λα = λp > λe
  • (3) λα = λp < λe
  • (4) λα < λp < λe

Question 40:

A monochromatic light wave with wavelength \(λ_1\) and frequency \(v_1\) in air enters another medium. If the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45° and 30° respectively, then the wavelength \(λ_2\) and frequency \(v_2\) of the refracted wave are : 

  • (1) \(λ_2 = 1/√2 λ_1, v_2 = v_1\)
  • (2) \(λ_2 = λ_1 , v_2 = 1/√2 v_1\)
  • (3) \(λ_2 = λ_1, v_2 = √2v_1\)
  • (4) \(λ_2 = √2λ_1 , v_2 = v_1\)

Question 41:

A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The magnetic field is

  • (1) zero in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
  • (2) inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform throughout in the region r > a
  • (3) directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
  • (4) uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region r > a

Question 42:

A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to that of the earth. An object weighing W on earth will weigh on that planet:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) (2)\(^{\frac{1}{3}}\)
  • (3) (2)\(^{-\frac{1}{3}}\)
  • (4) 2

Question 43:

A mass \(m\) is attached to two springs as shown in the figure. The spring constants of the two springs are \(K_1\) and \(K_2\). For the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass \(m\) is:
A mass m is attached to two strings as shown in figure.

  • (1) \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{K_1-K_2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{K_1-K_2}{m}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{K_1+K_2}{m}}\)
  • (4) \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{K_1+K_2}}\)

Question 44:

Two resistances are given as \(R_1=(10 ±0.5) Ω\) and \(R_2= (15±0.5) Ω\). The percentage error in the measurement of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is -

  • (1) 2.33
  • (2) 4.33
  • (3) 5.33
  • (4) 6.33

Question 45:

For the plane electromagnetic wave given by \(E = E_o sin (ωt-kx)\) and \(B = B_o sin ( ωt-kx)\), the ratio of average electric energy density to average magnetic energy density is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1/2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4

Question 46:

The resistivity (\(\rho\)) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve represents the correct behavior

  • (1)
    The resistivity ( � ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature.
  • (2)
    The resistivity ( � ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature.
  • (3)
    The resistivity ( � ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature.
  • (4)
    The resistivity ( � ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature.

Question 47:
The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to emission of shortest wavelength is
energy level
  • (1) A
  • (2) D
  • (3) C
  • (4) B

Question 48:

The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in the number respectively is :

  • (1) 0.25
  • (2) 0.75
  • (3) 1.25
  • (4) 0.50

Question 49:

For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V) radially away from the entre (O) of shell can be graphically represented as – For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell

  • (1)
    For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell,
  • (2)
    For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell,
  • (3)
    For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell,
  • (4)
    For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell,

Question 50:

By what percentage will the transmission range of a TV tower be affected when the height of the tower is increased by 21% ?

  • (1) 12%
  • (2) 15%
  • (3) 14%
  • (4) 10%

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is __________ × 10^-12 m.
Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 Å


Question 52:

Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The separation between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its middle point is __________ \(× 10^{-3} \)kg-\(m^2\)


Question 53:

A steel rod bas a radius of 20 mm and a length of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its length. Young's modulus of steel is 2.0 × \(10^{11}\) N/m\(^2\). The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is _______ × \(10^{-5}\)


Question 54:

Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and carrying current \(\sqrt2 \)A are placed in perpendicular planes as shown in figure. The net magnetic field at the centre of the circular wires is _________ × 10^{-8} T.
 

Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm


Question 55:

A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within water when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30o with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled to a height of 1.5 m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimeters is (n-w = 4/3) ____________


Question 56:

A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in SI units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is \((10/x)^{-n}\)J. The value of n will be ____________


Question 57:

The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The percentage change in resistance of the metallic wire is ______


Question 58:

A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 4. The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d. Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for \(x =\) \(\frac{1}{3}d\) and \(x=\frac{2}{3}d\), respectively. If C1 = 2μF, the value of C2 is _______ μF.


Question 59:

An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies electrical energy to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in the houses served by the transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the secondary circuit will be ________ mΩ.


Question 60:

A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a change of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car’s horn upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of horn is ____ Hz.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 
Assertion: Magnetic moment of [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is 5.92 BM and that of [Fe(CN)6]3– is 1.73 BM 
Reason: Oxidation state of Fe in both the complexes is +3. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (3) Reason is correct but Assertion is not correct
  • (4) Reason is incorrect but Reason is correct

Question 62:

The standard electrode potential of M+/M in aqueous solution does not depend on

  • (1) Sublimation of a solid metal
  • (2) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom
  • (3) Ionisation of a solid metal atom
  • (4) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion

Question 63:

CH3CH2-Br \(\overrightarrow{Acetone}^{NaI}\) CH3-CH2-I+NaBr
Which of the following statement is correct ? 

  • (1) Acetic acid solvent can take in above reaction. 
  • (2) NaI is soluble in acetone but NaBr is precipitate in acetone
  • (3) NaI is precipitated in acetone but NaBr is soluble in acetone 
  • (4) When acetone is taken in solvent transition state is highly polar

Question 64:

the major product A and B from the the following reaction are

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

2[Au(CN)2]– + Zn \(\to\) [Zn(CN)4]2– + 2Au\(\downarrow\) is which of these 
(A) Redox reaction 
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Decomposition reaction 

  • (1) A & B
  • (2) B only
  • (3) A & D
  • (4) B & D

Question 66:

Predict expression from α in terms of \(K_{eq}\) and concentration C : 

\(A_2 B_3(aq) \leftrightharpoons 2{A_3} (aq)+3B_{{2-}}(aq)\)

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{{K_{eq}}}{{108C^4}}\right)^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
  • (2) \((\frac{K_{eq}}{5C^4})^\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (3) \((\frac{4K_{eq}}{5C^4})^\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (4) \((\frac{9K_{eq}}{108C^4})^\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 67: Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
PN2O5 (i)N–N bond
QN2O(ii)N–O–N bond
RN2O4 (iii)N=N / N≡N bond
SNO2(iv)N=O bond

Question 68:

The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between

  • (1) Ne and F
  • (2) Ne and Cl
  • (3) Ar and Cl
  • (4) Ar and F

Question 69:

The major product formed in the following reaction is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 70: Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option:
Column I (Chemical reactions)Column II (Enzymes used)
(i)Glucose → CO2 + EthanolaPepsin
(ii)Sucrose→Glucose + Fructose bDiastase
(iii)Starch →Maltose cZymase
(iv)Protein→Amino acids dInvertase
  • (1)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)d, iii\(\to\)b, iv\(\to\)a

  • (2)

    i\(\to\)d, ii\(\to\)c, iii\(\to\)b, iv\(\to\)a

  • (3)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)d, iii\(\to\)a, iv\(\to\)b

  • (4)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)b, iii\(\to\)d, iv\(\to\)a


Question 71:

Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3
Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent to give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

Which one among the following metals is the weakest reducing agent?

  • (1) \(Rb\)
  • (2) \(Na\)
  • (3) \(Li\)
  • (4) \(K\)

Question 73:
Match List I with List II

List I 

Element detected

 

 List II 

Reagent used/ Product formed

ANitrogenINa2[Fe(CN)5 NO]
BSulphur IIAgNO3
CPhosphorousIIIFe4[Fe(CN)6]3
DHalogenIV(NH4)2 MoO4 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
 

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 74:

Polymer which is named as orlon is:

  • (1) Polyamide
  • (2) Polyacrylonitrile
  • (3) Polycarbonate
  • (4) Polyethene

Question 75: Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column IColumn II
(i)Vitamin AaBeri-beri
(ii)Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)bCheilosis
(iii)RiboflavincXerophthalmia
(iv)ThiaminedScurvy
  • (1)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)d, iii\(\to\)a, iv\(\to\)b

  • (2)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)d, iii\(\to\)b, iv\(\to\)a

  • (3)

    i\(\to\)d, ii\(\to\)c, iii\(\to\)b, iv\(\to\)a

  • (4)

    i\(\to\)c, ii\(\to\)b, iii\(\to\)d, iv\(\to\)a


Question 76:

Which compound is added to cement to increase its setting time?

  • (1) Gypsum
  • (2) Lime stone
  • (3) Clay
  • (4) Calcium carbonate

Question 77:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Radius of H+ is 1.5 × 10–3 pm
Reason (R) : H+ cannot exist independently
In the light of the above statements, write the detailed answer:


Question 78: Match List I with List II
LIST I
Name of reaction
LIST II
Reagent used
A.Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reactionI.\(\mathrm{NaOH + I_2}\)
B.Iodoform reactionII.(i) \(\mathrm{CrO_2Cl_2, CS_2}\) (ii) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\)
C.Etard reactionIII.(i) \(\mathrm{Br_2}\) / red phosphorus (ii) \(\mathrm{H_2O}\)
D.Gatterman-Koch reactionIV.CO, HCl, anhyd. \(\mathrm{AlCl_3}\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 79:

A binary compound has Y-atoms forming FCC unit cell and another type of X-atoms occupying \(\frac{1}{3}\)rd of tetrahedral voids. Find out the molecular formula of the compound

 


Question 80:

Photochemical smog found mainly in 

  • (1) Industrial area
  • (2) Marshy place
  • (3) Hilly area of Himachal
  • (4) Cold humid climate 

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

How many bromo products are formed when ethane is reacted with excess of Br2 on heating?


Question 82:

The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy \(4.50 \times 10^{-29}\) J is ___________ \(\times 10^{-5}\) m. (Nearest integer)
Given : mass of electron is \(9 \times 10^{-31}\) kg, \(h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34}\) J s


Question 83:

The number of species from the following which have square pyramidal structure is___
\(PF_5, BrF^− _4 4 − , IF_5\) ; \(BrF_5, XeOF_4, ICl ^−_ 4\)


Question 84:

Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s from the following which are true with respect to points (a), (b) and (c) is…

A. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)  
B. Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and nonspontaneous at point (c)  
C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and nonspontaneous at (c)  
D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)


Question 85:

Determine the amount of urea (NH2CONH2) to be added in 1000 g of water to decrease its vapour presssure by 25%. 
Given: Molar mass of N. C. O and H are 14. 12. 16 and 1 2 mol-1 respectively.


Question 86:

The value of \(log_{10}K\) for a reaction A ⇋ B is

(Given,

 \(\Delta H^{\circ}_{298K}\) = –54.67 kJ \(mol^{-1}\)

 \(\Delta H^{\circ}_{298K}\) = 10 kJ \(mol^{-1}\)

 and R = 8.314 J \(K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)

 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705) 


Question 87:

Number of ambidentate ligands in given complex [M(en)(SCN)4] : 


Question 88:

How many moles of \(Ba_3(PO_4)_2\) will be formed by the reaction of \(5\) moles of \(BaCl_2\) and \(3\) moles of \(Na_3(PO_4)\).


Question 89:

Oxidation number of Mo in Ammonophosphomolybdate


Question 90:

For the adsorption of hydrogen on platinum, the activation energy is 30 kJ mol-1 and for the adsorption of hydrogen on nickel, the activation energy is 41.4 kJ mol-1 . The logarithm of the ratio of the rates of chemisorption on equal areas of the metals at 300 K is ……… (Nearest integer) Given: ln 10 = 2. 3  R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

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