JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 8, 2023, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2023 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2023 April 8 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Consider the word INDEPENDENCE. The number of words such that all the vowels are together is?

  • (1) 16800
  • (2) 15800
  • (3) 17900
  • (4) 14800

Question 2:

Let \(f(x)=\frac{sinx+cosx-\sqrt2}{sinx-cosx},x∈[0.\pi]-\left[\frac{\pi}{4}\right]. Then f\left(\frac{7\pi}{12}\right)f^n\left(\frac{7\pi}{12}\right)\)is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{-1}{3\sqrt3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3\sqrt3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{9}\)

Question 3:

Let A =\(\left[\begin{matrix} 2 & 1 & 0 \\   1 & 2 & -1 \\   0 & -1 & 2  \end{matrix} \right]\). If |adj(adj(adj 2A)) | = (16)n, then n is equal to

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 9

Question 4:

\(\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0}\left(\left(\frac{1-cos^2(3x)}{cos^3(4x)}\right)\left(\frac{sin^3(4x)}{(log_e(2x+1))^5}\right)\right)\)is equal to

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 24

Question 5:

A bolt manufacturing factory has three products A, B and C. 50% and 30% of the products are A and B type respectively and remaining are C type. Then probability that the product A is defective is 4%, that of B is 3% and that of C is 2%. A product is picked randomly picked and found to be defective, then the probability that it is type C.

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{33}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{33}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{33}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{33}\)

Question 6:

7 boys and 5 girls are to be seated around a circular table such that no two girls sit together is?

  • (1) \(126(5!)^{2}\)
  • (2) \(720(5!)\)
  • (3) \(720(6!)\)
  • (4) 720

Question 7:

The shortest distance between the lines
\(\frac{x-4}{4}=\frac{y+2}{5}=\frac{z+3}{3}\)
and
\(\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-3}{4}=\frac{z-4}{2}\)
is :

  • (1) \(3\sqrt{6}\)
  • (2) \(6\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(6\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(2\sqrt{6}\)

Question 8:

Let R be the focus of the parabola y2 = 20x and the line y=mx+c intersect the parabola at two points Pand Q. Let the point G(10,10) be the centroid of the triangle PQR. If c-m=6, then (PQ)2 is

  • (1) 296
  • (2) 325
  • (3) 317
  • (4) 346

Question 9:

The area of the region {(x,y): x2 ≤ y ≤8-x2, y≤7} is

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 24

Question 10:

Let C(α, β) be the circumcenter of the triangle formed by the lines
4x+3y=69,
4y-3x=17, and
x+7y=61.
Then (α-β)2+α+β is equal to

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 18

Question 11:

Let \(I(x)=\int\frac{x+1}{x(1+xe^x)^2} dx\), x>0. If \(\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow\infin}I(x)=0\), then I(1) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{e+2}{e+1}-log_e(e+1)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{e+2}{e+1}+log_e(e+1)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{e+1}{e+2}-log_e(e+1)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{e+1}{e+2}+log_e(e+1)\)

Question 12:

Let α, β, γ be the three roots of the equation x3+bx+c=0. If βγ =1=-α, then b3+2c3-3α3-6β3-8γ3 is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{169}{8}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{155}{8}\)
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 28

Question 13:

Let the number of elements in sets \(A\) and \(B\) be five and two respectively. Then the number of subsets of \(A \times B\) each having at least 3 and at most 6 elements is:

  • (1) 752
  • (2) 772
  • (3) 792
  • (4) 782

Question 14:

Let SK = \(\frac{1+2+...+ K}{K}\) and \(\displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^{n}S_j^2=\frac{n}{A}(Bn^2+Cn+D)\), where A,B,C,D∈N and A has least value. Then

  • (1) A+B+C+D is divisible by 5
  • (2) A+B is divisible by D
  • (3) A+B=5(D-C)
  • (4) A+C+D is not divisible by B

Question 15:

Let P = \(\left[\begin{matrix}   \frac{\sqrt3}{2} & \frac{1}{2} \\   -\frac{1}{2} & \frac{\sqrt3}{2}  \end{matrix}\right]\) A = \(\left[\begin{matrix}   1 & 1 \\   0 & 1  \end{matrix}\right]\) and Q = PAPT. If PTQ2007P = \(\left[\begin{matrix}   a & b \\   c & d  \end{matrix}\right]\), then 2a+b-3c-4d equal to

  • (1) 2004
  • (2) 2005
  • (3) 2006
  • (4) 2007

Question 16:

If for z=α+iβ, |z+2|=z+4(1+i), then α +β and αβ are the roots of the equation

  • (1) x2+3x-4=0
  • (2) x2+7x+12=0
  • (3) x2+2x-3=0
  • (4) x2+x-12=0

Question 17:

If the points with position vectors \(a\hat{i} +10\hat{j} +13\hat{k}, 6\hat{i} +11\hat{k} +11\hat{k},\frac{9}{2}\hat{i}+B\hat{j}−8\hat{k}\) are collinear, then (19α-6β)2 is equal to

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 49

Question 18:

If the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of (1+x)n are in the ratio 1:5:20, then the coefficient of the fourth term of the expansion is?

  • (1) 3654
  • (2) 3658
  • (3) 3600
  • (4) 1000

Question 19:

If the equation of the plane containing the line x+2y+3z-4=0=2x+y-z+5 and perpendicular to the plane \(\vec{r}=(\vec{i}-\vec{j})+\lambda(\vec{i}+\vec{j}+\vec{k})+\mu(\vec{i}-2\vec{j}+3\vec{k})\) is ax+by+cz=4, then (a-b+c) is equal to

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 24

Question 20:

Negation of (p⇒q)⇒(q⇒p) is

  • (1) p∨(∼q)
  • (2) (∼p)∨q
  • (3) q∧(∼p)
  • (4) (∼q)∧p

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤t. Then \(\frac{2}{π} \int\limits_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{5\pi}{6}} (8 [cosec x]-5[cot x]) dx\)is equal to ______.


Question 22:

Let A={0, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 } and R be the relation defined on A such that R = {(x, y)∈A×A:x-y is odd positive integer or x-y=2}. The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R, so that it is a symmetric relation, is equal to _______.


Question 23:

If the solution curve of the differential equation \( (y - 2 \log x) dx + (x \log x^2) dy = 0 \) passes through the points \( \left( e^{4/3}, \alpha \right) \) and \( \left( e^4, \alpha \right) \), then \( \alpha \) is equal to: 
 


Question 24:

Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers \(x, y, 10, 12, 6, 12, 4, 8\) be \(9\) and \(9.25\) respectively. If \(x > y\), then \(3x - 2y\) is equal to:

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 13

Question 25:

Let \(\vec{a} = 6\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = a\hat{i} + 11\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}\), and \(\vec{c}\) be vectors such that \(\vec{a} \times \vec{c} = \vec{a} \times \vec{b}\). If \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c} = -12\) and \(\vec{c} \cdot (\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}) = 5\), then \(\vec{c} \cdot (\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k})\) is equal to:


Question 26:

If aa is the greatest term in the sequence \(a_n=\frac{n^3}{n^4+147},n=1,2,3,...,\) then a is equal to______________.


Question 27:

Let \([t]\) denote the greatest integer \(\le t\). If the constant term in the expansion of
\(\left(3x^{2}-\frac{1}{2x^{5}}\right)^{7}\)
is \(\alpha\), then \([\alpha]\) is equal to ____________.


Question 28:

Consider a circle \(C_1 : x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 2y = \alpha - 5\). Let its mirror image in the line \(y = 2x + 1\) be another circle \(C_2 : 5x^2 + 5y^2 - 10x - 10y + 36 = 0\). Let \(r\) be the radius of \(C_2\). Then \(\alpha + r\) is equal to:


Question 29:

The largest natural number \(n\) such that \(3^n\) divides \(66!\) is:


Question 30:

Let \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2\) be the values of \(\lambda\) for which the points \((1, \lambda, \frac{1}{2})\) and \((-2, 0, 1)\) are at equal distance from the plane \(2x + 3y - 6z + 7 = 0\). If \(\lambda_1 > \lambda_2\), then the distance of the point \((1 - \lambda_2, \lambda_2, \lambda_1)\) from the line \(\frac{x-5}{1} = \frac{y-1}{2} = \frac{z+7}{2}\) is:


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

An air bubble having volume 1 cm3 at depth 40 m inside water comes to the surface. What will be the volume of the bubble at the surface?

  • (1) 5 cm3
  • (2) 2 cm3
  • (3) 4 cm3
  • (4) 3 cm3

Question 32:

In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to:

  • (1) make chromatic aberration zero
  • (2) remove spherical aberration
  • (3) reduce the problem of mechanical support
  • (4) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube

Question 33:

Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic material. The function of this metallic material is

  • (1) to oscillate the coil in magnetic field for longer period of time
  • (2) to produce large deflecting torque on the coil
  • (3) to make the magnetic field radial
  • (4) to bring the coil to rest quickly

Question 34:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth, then its potential energy will be \(\frac{E}{2}\)
Statement II: The kinetic energy of a satellite revolving in an orbit is equal to the half the magnitude of total energy E.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 35:

Dimension of \(\frac{1}{μ_0∈_0}\) should be equal to 

  • (1) \(\frac{L}{T}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{T}{L}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{L^2}{T^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{T^2}{L^2}\)

Question 36:

Graphical variation of electric field due to a uniformly charged insulating solid sphere of radius R, with distance r from the centre O is represented by
uniformly charged insulating solid sphere

  • (1) uniformly charged insulating solid sphere
  • (2) uniformly charged insulating solid sphere
  • (3) uniformly charged insulating solid sphere
  • (4) uniformly charged insulating solid sphere

Question 37:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase.
Statement II: If positive work is done by a system in a thermodynamic process, its volume must increase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 38:

A charge particle moving in magnetic field \(B\), has the components of velocity along \(B\) as well as perpendicular to \(B\). The path of the charge particle will be

  • (1) helical path with the axis along magnetic field \(B\)
  • (2) straight along the direction of magnetic field \(B\)
  • (3) circular path
  • (4) helical path with the axis perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field \(B\)

Question 39:

Two forces of magnitude A and \(\frac{A}{2}\) act perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of the resultant force is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{A}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{5A}}{{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3A}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5A}{2}\)

Question 40:

At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass 500 g is \((2t\hat{i}+3t^2\hat{j}) ms^{-1}\). If the force acting on the particle at t=1s is \((\hat{i} + x\hat{j})N\). Then the value of x will be:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2

Question 41:

If mass, radius of cross-section and height of a cylinder are (0.4+0.01) g, (6+0.03) m and height (8+0.04) m. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of density of cylinder is?

  • (1) 1%
  • (2) 4%
  • (3) 8%
  • (4) 7%

Question 42:

Two projectiles u1 and u2, with speed of 40 m/s and 60 m/s respectively are thrown at a certain angle, u1 with 30o and u2 with 60o, what is the ratio of range?


Question 43:

For a nucleus AAX having mass number A and atomic number Z
A. The surface energy per nucleon \((b_s)=−a_1A^{\frac{2}{3}} \)
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy \(b_c=−a_2\frac{Z(Z−1)}{A^{\frac{4}{3}}} \)
C. The volume energy bv=a3A
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to surface area.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed that each nucleon interacts with 12 nucleons. ( a1,a2 and a3 are constants)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C, D only
  • (2) B, C only
  • (3) C, D only
  • (4) B, C, E only

Question 44:

An aluminium rod with Young's modulus Y=7.0×1010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain of 0.04%. The energy per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit is:

  • (1) 2800
  • (2) 5600
  • (3) 8400
  • (4) 11200

Question 45:

For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y is:

For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform

  • (1)
    For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform
  • (2)
    For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform
  • (3)
    For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform
  • (4)
    For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform

Question 46:

The weight of a body on the earth is \(400\ \mathrm{N}\). Then weight of the body when taken to a depth half of the radius of the earth will be:

  • (1) \(300\ \mathrm{N}\)
  • (2) \(200\ \mathrm{N}\)
  • (3) \(100\ \mathrm{N}\)
  • (4) Zero

Question 47:

Proton \((\mathrm{P})\) and electron \((\mathrm{e})\) will have same de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their momentum is (assume, \(m_p=1849\,m_e\)):

  • (1) 1 : 1
  • (2) 1 : 43
  • (3) 1 : 1849
  • (4) 43 : 1

Question 48:

In this figure the resistance of the coil of galvanometer G is 2Ω. The emf of the cell is 4 V. The ratio of potential difference across C1 and C2 is
coil of galvanometer G is 2Ω

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 49:

A train is moving with a speed of \(10 m/s\) towards a platform and blows a horn with frequency \(400 Hz\). Find the frequency heard by a passenger standing on the platform. Take speed of sound = \(310 m/s\).

  • (1) 405 Hz
  • (2) 425 Hz
  • (3) 380 Hz
  • (4) 413 Hz

Question 50:

The height of the antenna is 98 m. The radius of Earth is 6400 km. The area up to which it will transmit signal is:

  • (1) 3642 km2
  • (2) 3942 km2
  • (3) 11200 km2
  • (4) 22400 km2

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The magnetic intensity at the centre of a long current carrying solenoid is found to be 1.6 x 103 Am-1. If the number of turns is 8 per cm, then the current flowing through the solenoid is_____A.


Question 52:

An organ pipe 40cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360ms-1 . The frequency of the second harmonic is ____Hz.


Question 53:

A current of 2 A flows through a wire of crosssectional area 25.0 mm2 . The number of free electrons in a cubic meter are 2.0 x 1028 . The drift velocity of the electrons is _____ x 10-6 ms-1 (Given, charge on electron = 1.6 x 10-19C)


Question 54:

A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into fragment each with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon as 8.1 MeV, the total gain in binding energy is ____MeV.


Question 55:

The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the kinetic energy of the body is ______%


Question 56:

An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6.0 x 10-6 Cm placed in a uniform electric field of 1.5 x 103 NC-1 in such a way that dipole moment is along electric field. The work done in rotating dipole by 180º in this field will be _____mJ.


Question 57:

Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm. A point object O is placed at a distance of 2 cm from mirror A. The distance of the second nearest image behind mirror A from the mirror A is ___cm
Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm


Question 58:

An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750kg / m3 at the rate of 0.35 cm/s. The co-efficient of viscosity of the solution (neglect density of air) is ____Pas (given, g = 10ms-2)


Question 59:

An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH inductor and a 1.2 uF capacitor. If the maximum charge to the capacitor is 2.7μC. The maximum current in the circuit will be _____mA.


Question 60:

The moment of inertia of semicircular ring about an axis, passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of ring, is \(\frac{1}{x} \)MR2 , where R is the radius and M is the mass of semicircular ring. The value of x will be___


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.  
Assertion A: Butan -1- ol has higher boiling point than ethoxyethane.  
Reason R: Extensive hydrogen bonding leads to stronger association of molecules.  
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (4) A is false but R is true

Question 62:

Which of the following complex is octahedral, diamagnetic and the most stable?

  • (1) K3[CO(CN)6]
  • (2) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
  • (3) The correct option is(A): Na3[COCl6]
  • (4) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2

Question 63:

Select the correct order of electronegativity of the elements: B, C, At, S

  • (1) B > C > S > At
  • (2) S > C > B > At
  • (3) C > B > S > At
  • (4) S > C > At > B

Question 64:

The correct order of spin only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is

  • (1) [Fe(CN)6]3-< [CoF6]3- < [MnBr4]2- < [Mn(CN)6]3-
  • (2) [Fe(CN)6]3-< [Mn(CN)6]3- < CoF6]3- < [MnBr4]2-
  • (3) [COF6]3- < [MnBr4]2- < [Fe(CN)6]3- < [Mn(CN)6]3-
  • (4) [MnBr4]2- < [CoF6]3- < [Fe(CN)6]3- < [Mn(CN)6]3-

Question 65:

\(2 I O^ − _3 + x I ^− + 12 H ^+ ⟶ 6 I_ 2 + 6 H _2 O\) What is the value of x?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12

Question 66: Match List-I with List-II :

is reached with regents is List-I to from products in List-II.
List-I (Reagent) List-II (Products)
AI
BHBF4 \(\triangle\)II
CCu, HCIIII
DCuCN/ KCNIV
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 67:

Consider the reaction \(Cu^{2+} + X^- → Cu_2X_2 + X_2\).
X2 will be predominantly?

  • (1) Cl2
  • (2) Br2
  • (3) I2
  • (4) All halogens are possible.

Question 68:

In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is same as in (Given at no. of Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr : 24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26)

  • (1) Mn (VII)
  • (2) Fe (III)
  • (3) V (IV)
  • (4) Ti (III)

Question 69:

The major product formed in the following reaction is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 70:

The reaction \(\frac{ 1}{2}\)H2(g) + AgCl(s) → H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) + Ag(s) occurs in which of the given galvanic cell.

  • (1) Ag | AgCl(s) | KCl(sonn) || AgNO3 | Ag
  • (2) Pt | H2(g) | HCl(soln) || AgNO3 (soln) | Ag
  • (3) Pt | H2(g) | HCl(soln) || AgCl(s) | Ag
  • (4) Pt | H2(g) | KCl(soln) || AgCl(s) | Ag

Question 71:

Sulphur (S)-containing amino acids from the following are:
(a) Isoleucine
(b) Cysteine
(c) Lysine
(d) Methionine
(e) Glutamic acid


Question 72:

The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst forms

  • (1) Methanoic acid
  • (2) Methanol
  • (3) Methanal
  • (4) Ethanol

Question 73:

Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B, C & D)
 halogen which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction

  • (1) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(a)
  • (2) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
  • (3) A-Br(b) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
  • (4) A-Br(b) ; B-I(b) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(b)

Question 74:
Match List-I with List-II :

List I

(Reagents Used)

 

List II

(Compound with Functional group detected)

AAlkaline solution of copper sulphate and sodium citrateI
BNeutral FeCl3 solutionII
CAlkaline chloroform solutionIII
DPotassium iodide and sodium hypochloriteIV

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 75:
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Species) List-II (Maximum allowed concentration in ppm in drinking water)
AF-I< 50 ppm
B\(SO^{2-}_4\)II< 5 ppm
C\(NO^-_3\)III< 2 ppm
DZnIV< 500 ppm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 76:
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
ASaccharinIHigh potency sweetener
BAspartameIIFirst artificial sweetening agent
CAlitameIIIStable at cooking temperature
DSucraloseIVUnstable at cooking temperature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 77:

Read the following two statements
Statement I: Ionic radius of Li+ is greater than Mg++
Statement II: Lithium and magnesium can't form superoxide

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Question 78:

What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?

  • (1) To give a hard mass
  • (2) To facilitate the hydration of cement
  • (3) To slow down the process of setting
  • (4) To speed up the process of setting

Question 79:

Which of the following represent the Freundlich adsorption isotherms?




Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  • (1) A, B only
  • (2) B, C, D only
  • (3) A, B, D only
  • (4) A, C, D only

Question 80:

Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?

  • (1) Cu
  • (2) Au
  • (3) Sn
  • (4) Pb

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81: How many statements are correct:
  1. If there is no relation between rate constant and temperature, then activation energy is negative.
  2. If the activation energy is zero, rate constant is temperature independent.
  3. If rate constant increases with increase of temperature, activation energy is positive.
  4. If rate constant decreases with increase in temperature, activation energy is negative.
  • (1) 1 and 2
  • (2) 2 and 3
  • (3) 2, 3, and 4
  • (4) 4

Question 82: How many factors will contribute to a major role in covalent character of a compound.
  1. Polarising power of cation
  2. Polarisability of the anion
  3. Distortion caused by cation
  4. Polarisability of cation
  • (1) 1 and 2
  • (2) 2 and 3
  • (3) 1, 2, and 3
  • (4) 4

Question 83:

0.5 gm of an organic compound with 60%. Carbon produce ______ gm of \(CO_{2}\) upon complete combustion


Question 84:

The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indictor is shown below. The Kphenolphthalein = 4 × 10-10 . 
Given: log2 = 0.3
The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein
The number of following statements which is/are correct about phenolphthalein is______
A. It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
B. It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
C. It is a weak organic base
D. It is colourless in acidic medium.


Question 85:

When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100s in a constant volume container with adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 5°C. The heat capacity of the given gas is_____J K-1 (Nearest integer).


Question 86:

Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O3 per mole of (X) and gives one mole each of ethanal and propanone is _______ g mol-1  
(Molar mass of C : 12 g mol-1 , H : 1 g mol-1)


Question 87:

The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve for a solution solvent system is shown below.
The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve
The boiling point of the solvent is _____°C.


Question 88:

The number of following statement/s which is/are\(\text{\underline{ incorrect}}\) is______  
(A) Line emission spectra are used to study the electronic structure  
(B) The emission spectra of atoms in the gas phase show a continuous spread of wavelength from red to violet  
(C) An absorption spectrum is like the photographic negative of an emission spectrum  
(D) The element helium was discovered in the sun by spectroscopic method.


Question 89:

XeF\(_4\) reacts with SbF\(_5\) to form:
\[ [\text{XeF}_m]^{n+}[\text{SbF}_y]^{z-} \] What is \(m+n+y+z\)?


Question 90:


Three bulbs are filled with CH4, CO2 and Ne as shown in the picture. The bulbs are connected through pipes of zero volume. When the stopcocks are opened and the temperature is kept constant throughout, the pressure of the system is found to be_______atm. (Nearest integer)

JEE Main 2023 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2023 8 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
Aakash BYJUs Check Here
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Vedantu Check Here
Narayana College Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis April 8 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for the exam on April 8 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam on April 8 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

Also Check:

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

JEE Main aspirants can practice and check their exam prep level by attempting the question papers from the January Session. The table below shows JEE Main 2023 Question Paper PDF for Session 1 to practice.

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper