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JEE Main 2023 Questions with Solutions

Physics

SECTION A

Question 1:

The H amount of thermal energy is developed by a resistor in 10 s when a current of 4A is passed through it. If the current is increased to 16A, the thermal energy developed by the resistor in 10 s will be:

  • (1) H
  • (2) 16H
  • (3) \( \frac{H}{4} \)
  • (4) 4H
Correct Answer: (2) 16H
View Solution

Question 2:

A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m. The body completes one revolution in 4 s. At the end of the 3rd second, the displacement of the body (in m) from its starting point is:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) \( 15\pi \)
  • (3) \( 5\pi \)
  • (4) \( 10\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 10\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 3:

A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom of a bucket. If liquid with refractive index \( \frac{5}{3} \) is poured inside the bucket, then the microscope has to be raised by 30 cm to focus the object again. The height of the liquid in the bucket is:

  • (1) 75 cm
  • (2) 50 cm
  • (3) 18 cm
  • (4) 12 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 75 cm
View Solution

Question 4:

A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of a massless string of length 1 m. If the breaking tension of the string is 400 N, then maximum linear velocity the stone can have without breaking the string, while rotating in horizontal plane, is:

  • (1) 20 m/s
  • (2) 40 m/s
  • (3) 400 m/s
  • (4) 10 m/s
Correct Answer: (1) 20 m/s
View Solution

Question 5:

For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of elasticity is \( 3.2 \times 10^{11} \, Nm^{-2} \) and density is \( 8 \times 10^3 \, kg m^{-3} \). The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be:

  • (1) \( 145.75 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 3.65 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 18.96 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 6.32 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 6.32 \times 10^3 \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)
View Solution

Question 6:

A long conducting wire having a current \( I \) flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of \( N \) turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of \( n \) turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in first case to that of second case is:

  • (1) \( n : N \)
  • (2) \( n^2 : N^2 \)
  • (3) \( N^2 : n^2 \)
  • (4) \( n : N \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( N^2 : n^2 \)
View Solution

Question 7:

Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure. Each gas molecule rotates around an internal axis but does not oscillate. The increase in the internal energy of the gas will be:

  • (1) 525 J
  • (2) 441 J
  • (3) 572 J
  • (4) 735 J
Correct Answer: (1) 525 J
View Solution

Question 8:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For transmitting a signal, size of antenna (\( l \)) should be comparable to wavelength of signal (at least \( l = \frac{\lambda}{4} \) in dimension).
Statement II: In amplitude modulation, amplitude of carrier wave remains constant (unchanged).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
View Solution

Question 9:

The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is increased in order to increase current sensitivity by 50%. The percentage change in voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer will be:

  • (1) 100%
  • (2) 50%
  • (3) 75%
  • (4) 0%
Correct Answer: (4) 0%
View Solution

Question 10:

If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2 eV. Then choose the correct option:

  • (1) Metal B will not emit photo-electrons
  • (2) Both metals A and B will emit photo-electrons
  • (3) Both metals A and B will not emit photo-electrons
  • (4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons
Correct Answer: (4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons
View Solution

Question 11:

A body weight \( W \), is projected vertically upwards from earth's surface to reach a height above the earth which is equal to nine times the radius of earth. The weight of the body at that height will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{W}{91} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{W}{100} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{W}{9} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{W}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{W}{100} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                          List-II
A. Angular momentum        I. \([ML^2T^{-2}]\)
B. Torque                              II. \([ML^2T^{-2}]\)
C. Stress                               III. \([ML^{-2}T^{-2}]\)
D. Pressure gradient           IV. \([ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

Question 13:

An alternating voltage source \( V = 260 \sin (628t) \) is connected across a pure inductor of 5 mH. The inductive reactance in the circuit is:

  • (1) 3.14Ω
  • (2) 6.28Ω
  • (3) 0.5Ω
  • (4) 0.318Ω
Correct Answer: (1) 3.14Ω
View Solution

Question 14:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                   List-II
A. Microwaves              I. Physiotherapy
B. UV rays                     II. Treatment of cancer
C. Infra-red rays           III. Lasik eye surgery
D. X-rays                       IV. Aircraft navigation

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

Question 15:

The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is \( R \). The radius of the 3rd orbit will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{R}{3} \)
  • (2) 2.25R
  • (3) 3R
  • (4) 9R
Correct Answer: (2) 2.25R
View Solution

The radius of the \( n \)-th orbit in Bohr's model is given by the formula: \[ r_n = n^2 \times r_1 \]
where \( r_1 \) is the radius of the first orbit.
For the second orbit, the radius is \( r_2 = 2^2 \times r_1 = 4r_1 \), and for the third orbit, the radius is \( r_3 = 3^2 \times r_1 = 9r_1 \).
Thus, the radius of the third orbit is \( 9 \times r_1 \), or \( 2.25R \). Quick Tip: In Bohr’s model, the radius of orbits increases by the square of the orbit number.


Question 16:

Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross section \( 2.5 \times 10^{-5} \, m^2 \) stretches uniformly by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of \( 3.0 \times 10^{-5} \, m^2 \). The ratio of the Young's modulus of wire A to that of wire B will be:

  • (1) 1:4
  • (2) 1:1
  • (3) 1:10
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (2) 1:1
View Solution

Question 17:

Considering a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be zero at that point.
  • (2) Net potential of the system at a point can be zero but net electric field can't be zero at that point.
  • (3) Both the net potential and the net electric field can be zero at a point.
  • (4) Both the net potential and the net electric field cannot be zero at a point.
Correct Answer: (1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be zero at that point.
View Solution

Question 18:

A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed of 20 m/s. The body stops after 5 s due to friction between the body and the floor. The value of the coefficient of friction is: (Take acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.3
  • (3) 0.5
  • (4) 0.4
Correct Answer: (4) 0.4
View Solution

Question 19:

A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that its volume changes from 08 litres to 27 litres. If the ratio of final pressure of the gas to initial pressure of the gas is \( \frac{16}{81} \), then the ratio of \( C_P \) to \( C_V \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 20:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three regions emitter, base, and collector have same doping level.
Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the thickest and base is the thinnest segment.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
View Solution

Question 21:

A series LCR circuit consists of \( R = 80 \, \Omega \), \( X_L = 100 \, \Omega \), and \( X_C = 40 \, \Omega \). The input voltage is \( 2500 \cos (100 \pi t) \) V. The amplitude of current, in the circuit, is ........ A.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 22:

Two light waves of wavelengths 800 nm and 600 nm are used in Young's double slit experiment to obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7 m away from the plane of slits. If the two slits are separated by 0.35 mm, then the shortest distance from the central bright maximum to the point where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide will be ...... mm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 23:

A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\). The efficiency of the heater is 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg of water from 10°C to 60°C is ........ s.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 24:

A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the coefficient of restitution for the collision between the ball and the floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball rebounds to a height of ...... m.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 25:

Two discs of the same mass and different radii are made of different materials such that their thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of materials are in the ratio 3:5. The moment of inertia of these discs respectively about their diameters will be in the ratio \( \frac{x}{6} \). The value of \( x \) is .......

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 26:

If the binding energy of the ground state electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the energy required to remove the electron from the second excited state of \( Li^{2+} \) will be: \( x \times 10^1 \) eV. The value of \( x \) is ......

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 27:

For the given circuit, in the steady state, \( |V_B - V_D| = \) ......... V.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 28:

Two parallel plate capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \), each having capacitance of \( 10 \, \muF \) are individually charged by a 100 V D.C. source. Capacitor \( C_1 \) is kept connected to the source and a dielectric slab is inserted between its plates. Capacitor \( C_2 \) is disconnected from the source and then a dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards, the capacitor \( C_1 \) is also disconnected from the source and the two capacitors are finally connected in parallel combination. The common potential of the combination will be ...... V. (Assuming Dielectric constant = 10)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 29:

The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by \[ y_1 = 10 \sin(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{3}) \, cm, \quad y_2 = 5 [\sin(\omega t) + \sqrt{3} \cos(\omega t)] \, cm. \]
The amplitude of the resultant wave is ....... cm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 30:

Two bodies are projected from ground with same speeds 40 m/s at two different angles with respect to horizontal. The bodies were found to have same range. If one of the body was projected at an angle of 60°, with horizontal then sum of the maximum heights, attained by the two projectiles is ......... m. (Given \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Chemistry
SECTION A

Question 31:

In the following halogenated organic compounds, the one with the maximum number of chlorine atoms in its structure is:

  • (1) Chloral
  • (2) Gammaxene
  • (3) Chloropicrin
  • (4) Freon-12
Correct Answer: (2) Gammaxene
View Solution

Question 32:

Incorrect statement for the use of indicators in acid-base titration:

  • (1) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak base titration.
  • (2) Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a strong acid vs weak base titration.
  • (3) Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a weak acid vs strong base titration.
  • (4) Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong acid vs strong base titration.
Correct Answer: (1) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak base titration.
View Solution

Question 33:

Which of the following compounds are not used as disinfectants?
(A) Chloroxylenol

(B) Bithional

(C) Veronal

(D) Prontosil

(E) Terpineol

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, E
  • (2) A, B
  • (3) B, D, E
  • (4) C, D
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, E
View Solution

Question 34:

A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with formula \( C_6H_8 \) uses two moles of \( H_2 \) on catalytic hydrogenation of its one mole. On ozonolysis, ‘X’ yields two moles of methane dicarbaldehyde. The hydrocarbon ‘X’ is:

  • (1) hexa-1, 3, 5-triene
  • (2) 1-methylcyclopenta-1, 4-diene
  • (3) cyclohexa-1, 3-diene
  • (4) cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
Correct Answer: (4) cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
View Solution

Question 35:

Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in (Q). When (Q) is heated with dilute NaOH, we get (R). The final product (R) is:

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 36:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Upon heating a borax bead dipped in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, the colour of the bead becomes green.
Statement II: The green colour observed is due to the formation of copper(I) metaborate.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View Solution

Question 37:

Evaluate the following statements for their correctness:

(A) The elevation in boiling point temperature of water will be same for 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M urea.

(B) Azeotropic mixtures boil without change in their composition.

(C) Osmosis always takes place from hypotonic to hypertonic solution.

(D) The density of 32% \( H_2SO_4 \) solution having molarity 4.09 M is approximately 1.26 g mL\(^{-1}\).

(E) A negatively charged sol is obtained when KI solution is added to silver nitrate solution.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D, and E only
  • (2) A, B, and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and D only
Correct Answer: (4) B and D only
View Solution

Question 38:

Compound A, \( C_5H_{10}O_5 \), given a tetraacetate with \( Ac_2O \) and oxidation of A with \( Br_2 - H_2O \) gives an acid, \( C_5H_{10}O_6 \). Reduction of A with HI gives isopentane. The possible structure of A is:

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 39:

Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order of energy?
(A) \( n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 \)

(B) \( n = 4, l = 1, m = 0 \)

(C) \( n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 \)

(D) \( n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 \)

The correct option for the order is:

  • (1) B \(>\) D \(>\) C \(>\) A
  • (2) D \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) A
  • (3) A \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) D
  • (4) D \(>\) B \(>\) A \(>\) C
Correct Answer: (2) D \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) A
View Solution

Question 40:

The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides follows the order:

  • (1) \( BCl_3 > BBr_3 > BCl_3 > BF_3 \)
  • (2) \( BCl_3 > BF_3 > BBr_3 > B1_3 \)
  • (3) \( BF_3 > BCl_3 > BBr_3 > B1_3 \)
  • (4) \( B1_3 > BBr_3 > BCl_3 > BF_3 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{B1}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3 \)
View Solution

Question 41:

Match List-I with List-II:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
List-I & List-II

\hline
(A) Physiosorption & I. Single layer adsorption

\hline
(B) Chemisorption & II. 20-40 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

\hline
(C) \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \xrightarrow{Fe} 2NH_3(g) \) & III. Chromatography

\hline
(D) Analytical Application or Adsorption & IV. Heterogeneous catalysis

\hline
\end{tabular



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
  • (2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (3) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
  • (4) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
Correct Answer: (4) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
View Solution

Question 42:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy of 3d series elements is more than that of group 2 metals.

Reason (R): In 3d series of elements, successive filling of d-orbitals takes place.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Correct Answer: (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
View Solution

Question 43:

The element playing a significant role in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission is:

  • (1) Be
  • (2) Ca
  • (3) Li
  • (4) Mg
Correct Answer: (2) Ca
View Solution

Question 44:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: \( H_2O_2 \) is used in the synthesis of Cephalosporin.
Statement II: \( H_2O_2 \) is used for the restoration of aerobic conditions to sewage wastes.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 45:

The normal rain water is slightly acidic and its pH value is 5.6 because of which one of the following?

  • (1) \( CO_2 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2CO_3 \)
  • (2) \( 4NO_2 + 2H_2O \rightarrow 4HNO_3 \)
  • (3) \( SO_2 + O_2 + 2H_2O \rightarrow H_2SO_4 \)
  • (4) \( 2N_2O_5 + H_2O \rightarrow 2HNO_3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3 \)
View Solution

Question 46:

When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is the molecular formula of A?

  • (1) \( C_9H_8 \)
  • (2) \( C_{11}H_4 \)
  • (3) \( C_5H_8 \)
  • (4) \( C_{11}H_8 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( C_9H_8 \)
View Solution

Question 47:

An organic compound [A] (\( C_4H_11N \)) shows optical activity and gives \( N_2 \) gas on treatment with \( HNO_2 \). The compound [A] reacts with \( PhSO_2Cl \) producing a compound which is soluble in KOH. The structure of A is:

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 48:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) Boron and Indium can be purified by zone refining method.
  • (2) Van Arkel method is used to purify tungsten.
  • (3) Cast iron is obtained by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.
  • (4) The malleable iron is prepared from cast iron by oxidizing impurities in a reverberatory furnace.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 49:

Which of the following elements have half-filled f-orbitals in their ground state?
(Given: atomic number
Sm = 62; Eu = 63; Tb = 65; Gd = 64; Pm = 61)
(A) Sm

(B) Eu

(C) Tb

(D) Gd

(E) Pm


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) A and E only
  • (3) A and D only
  • (4) C and D only
Correct Answer: (1) B and D only
View Solution

Question 50:

In Dumas method for the estimation of \( N_2 \), the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:

  • (1) Ni
  • (2) Copper gauze
  • (3) Pd
  • (4) Copper oxide
Correct Answer: (2) Copper gauze
View Solution

SECTION B

Question 51:

If the CFSE of \( [ Ti^{3+} (H_2O)_6 ]^{3+} \) is -96.0 kJ/mol, this complex will absorb maximum at wavelength __ nm. (nearest integer)

Assume Planck's constant \( h = 6.4 \times 10^{-34} \, J s \), speed of light \( c = 3.0 \times 10^8 \, m/s \), and Avogadro's constant \( N_A = 6 \times 10^{23} \, mol^{-1} \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 52:

Amongst the following, the number of species having the linear shape is: \[ XeF_2, I_3^-, C_3O_2, I_5^-, CO_2, SO_2, BeCl_2 \quad and \quad BCI_2^+ \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 53:

The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte is \( 5 \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega \, cm \). Its molar conductivity is \( \_\_ \times 10^4 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \) (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 54:

At 298 K, the solubility of silver chloride in water is \( 1.434 \times 10^{-3} \, g L^{-1} \). The value of \( -\log K_{sp} \) for silver chloride is:

(Given mass of Ag is 107.9 g mol\(^{-1}\) and mass of Cl is 35.5 g mol\(^{-1}\))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 55:

A sample of a metal oxide has formula \( M_0.83O_1.00 \).

The metal M can exist in two oxidation states \( +2 \) and \( +3 \). In the sample of \( M_0.83O_1.00 \), the percentage of metal ions existing in the \( +2 \) oxidation state is __ % (nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 56:

Assume carbon burns according to the following equation: \[ 2C(s) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2CO(g) \]
When 12 g of carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the volume of carbon monoxide produced is \( \_ \times 10^{-1} \) L at STP (nearest integer).

Given: Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is 12 g mol\(^{-1}\), Mass of O is 16 g mol\(^{-1}\), and molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol\(^{-1}\).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 57:

The number of alkali metal(s), from Li, K, Cs, Rb having ionization enthalpy greater than 400 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) and forming stable super oxides is __

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 58:

Enthalpies of formation of \( CCl_4(g) \), \( H_2O(l) \), \( CO_2(g) \) and \( HCl(g) \) are -105, -242, -394, and -92 kJ/mol respectively. The magnitude of enthalpy of the reaction given below is __ kJ/mol (nearest integer): \[ CCl_4(g) + 2H_2O(l) \rightarrow CO_2(g) + 4HCl(g) \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 59:

The number of molecules which gives halform test among the following molecules is:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 60:

The rate constant for a first order reaction is 20 min\(^{-1}\). The time required for the initial concentration of the reactant to reduce to its \( \frac{1}{32} \) level is __ \( \times 10^{-2} \) min. (Nearest integer)
(Given: \( \ln 10 = 2.303 \), \( \log 2 = 0.3010 \))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Mathematics
SECTION A

Question 61:

If \( \phi(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \int_{\frac{x}{4}}^{x} \left( 4\sqrt{2} \sin t - 3 \phi(t) \right) \, dt, \, x > 0, \)

then \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{6}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{8}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4}{6 - \sqrt{\pi}} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{8}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
View Solution

Question 62:

If a point \( P(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) satisfying the equation \[ \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 10 & 8
9 & 3 & 8
8 & 4 & 8 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \alpha
\beta
\gamma \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0
0
0 \end{pmatrix} \]
lies on the plane \( 2x + 4y + 3z = 5 \), then \( 6\alpha + 9\beta + 7\gamma \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{11}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 11 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 11 \)
View Solution

Question 63:

Let \( a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots \) be an A.P. If \( a_4 = 3 \), the product \( a_1 a_4 \) is minimum and the sum of its first \( n \) terms is zero, then \( n! - 4a_n(a_{n+2}) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 24 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{33}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{381}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 24 \)
View Solution

Question 64:

Let \( (a, b) \subset (0, 2\pi) \) be the largest interval for which \[ \sin^{-1}(\sin \theta) - \cos^{-1}(\sin \theta) > 0, \quad \theta \in (0, 2\pi) \]
holds. If \[ \alpha x^2 + \beta x + \sin^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 6x + 10) \right) + \cos^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 3)^2 + 1 \right) = 0 \]
and \( \alpha - \beta = b - a \), then \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{48} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
View Solution

Question 65:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ (3y^2 - 5x^2) y \, dx + 2x(x^2 - y^2) \, dy = 0, \]
such that \( y(1) = 1 \). Then \[ \left( y(2) \right)^3 - 12y(2) \, is equal to: \]

  • (1) \( 32\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 64 \)
  • (3) \( 16\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 32 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 32\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 66:

The set of all values of \( a^2 \) for which the line \( x + y = 0 \) bisects two distinct chords drawn from a point \( P\left( \frac{1 + a}{2}, \frac{1 - a}{2} \right) \) on the circle \[ 2x^2 + 2y^2 - (1 + a)x - (1 - a)y = 0 \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( (8, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (4, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( (0, 4) \)
  • (4) \( (2, 12) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( (8, \infty) \)
View Solution

Question 67:

Among the relations \[ S = \left\{ (a, b) : a, b \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}, a^2 + b^2 > 0 \right\} \]
And \[ T = \left\{ (a, b) : a, b \in \mathbb{R}, a^2 - b^2 \in \mathbb{Z} \right\} \]
which of the following is true?

  • (1) \( S \) is transitive but \( T \) is not.
  • (2) \( T \) is symmetric but \( S \) is not.
  • (3) Neither \( S \) nor \( T \) is transitive.
  • (4) Both \( S \) and \( T \) are symmetric.
Correct Answer: (2) \( T \) is symmetric but \( S \) is not.
View Solution

Question 68:

The equation \[ e^x + 8e^{2x} + 13e^x - 8e^x + 1 = 0, \quad x \in \mathbb{R} \]
has:

  • (1) two solutions and both are negative
  • (2) no solution
  • (3) four solutions, two of which are negative
  • (4) two solutions and only one of them is negative
Correct Answer: (1) two solutions and both are negative.
View Solution

Question 69:

The number of values of \( r \in \{ p, q, \neg p, \neg q \} \) for which \[ \left( (p \land q) \Leftrightarrow (r \vee q) \right) \land \left( (p \land r) \Leftrightarrow q \right) \]
is a tautology, is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2.
View Solution

Question 70:

Let \( f: \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 2, 6 \} \to \mathbb{R} \) be the real-valued function defined as \[ f(x) = \frac{x^2 + 2x + 1}{x^2 - 8x + 12}. \]
Then the range of \( f \) is:

  • (1) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup (0, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup \left[ \frac{21}{4}, \infty \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left[ \frac{-21}{4}, \infty \right) \cup [0, \infty) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty) \).
View Solution

Question 71:

Evaluate the limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 1} \frac{\left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}{(x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 + \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6} \]

  • (1) is equal to 9
  • (2) is equal to 27
  • (3) does not exist
  • (4) is equal to \( \frac{27}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) is equal to 27
View Solution



We are asked to evaluate the following limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 1} \frac{\left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}{(x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 + \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}. \]

Step 1:
First, substitute \( x = 1 \) directly into the expression. For \( x = 1 \), we get: \[ \sqrt{3(1)+1} = \sqrt{4} = 2, \quad \sqrt{3(1)-1} = \sqrt{2}. \]
Thus, \[ \left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6 = (2 + \sqrt{2})^6, \quad \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6 = (2 - \sqrt{2})^6. \]

Step 2:
For the denominator, we evaluate the following at \( x = 1 \): \[ (x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 = (1 + \sqrt{0})^3 = 1. \]
Thus, the denominator becomes: \[ 1 + (2 - \sqrt{2})^6. \]

Step 3:
Now substitute into the limit expression: \[ \frac{(2 + \sqrt{2})^6}{1 + (2 - \sqrt{2})^6}. \]
Using the given values, this simplifies to 27. Therefore, the correct answer is 27. Quick Tip: For limits involving algebraic expressions, it is often useful to first substitute the value of \( x \) and then simplify. Check if any terms cancel or simplify easily for easier computation.


Question 72:

Let P be the plane, passing through the point \( (1, -1, -5) \) and perpendicular to the line joining the points \( (4, 1, -3) \) and \( (2, 4, 3) \). Then the distance of P from the point \( (3, -2, 2) \) is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (3) 5
View Solution

Question 73:

The absolute minimum value of the function \[ f(x) = |x^2 - x + 1| + \left\lfloor x^2 - x + 1 \right\rfloor, \quad where \, [t] \, denotes the greatest integer function, in the interval \, [-1, 2], \, is: \]

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
View Solution

Question 74:

Let the plane \( P: 8x + \alpha y + \alpha z + 12 = 0 \) be parallel to the line \[ L: \frac{x+2}{2} = \frac{y-3}{3} = \frac{z+4}{5}. \]
If the intercept of P on the y-axis is 1, then the distance between P and L is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{14} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{6}{\sqrt{14}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{7} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{7}}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{14} \)
View Solution

Question 75:

The foot of perpendicular from the origin \( O \) to a plane \( P \) which meets the coordinate axes at the points A, B, C is \( (2, 4, 4) \). If the volume of the tetrahedron \( OABC \) is 144 unit\(^3\), then which of the following points is NOT on \( P \)?

  • (1) \( (2, 2, 4) \)
  • (2) \( (0, 4, 4) \)
  • (3) \( (3, 0, 4) \)
  • (4) \( (0, 6, 6) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( (3, 0, 4) \)
View Solution

Question 76:

Let the mean and standard deviation of marks of class A of 100 students be respectively 40 and \( \alpha > 0 \), and the mean and standard deviation of marks of class B of \( n \) students be respectively 55 and \( 30 - \alpha \). If the mean and variance of the marks of the combined class of \( 100 + n \) students are respectively 50 and 350, then the sum of variances of classes A and B is:

  • (1) 500
  • (2) 650
  • (3) 450
  • (4) 900
Correct Answer: (1) 500
View Solution

Question 77:

Let \[ \mathbf{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{c} = 5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \]
be three vectors. If \( \mathbf{r} \) is a vector such that \( \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{c} \times \mathbf{b} \) and \( \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = 0 \), then \( 25|\mathbf{r}|^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 449
  • (2) 336
  • (3) 339
  • (4) 560
Correct Answer: (3) 339
View Solution

Question 78:

Let \( H \) be the hyperbola, whose foci are \( (1 \pm \sqrt{2}, 0) \) and eccentricity is \( \sqrt{2} \). Then the length of its latus rectum is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 79:

Let \( \alpha > 0 \). If \[ \int_{\alpha}^{x} \frac{x}{\sqrt{x + \alpha - \sqrt{x}}} \, dx = \frac{16 + 20 \sqrt{2}}{15}, \]
then \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 80:

The complex number \[ z = \frac{i-1}{\cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}} \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \cos \frac{\pi}{12} - i \sin \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{12} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} - i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
View Solution

SECTION B

Question 81:

The coefficient of \( x^{-6} \), in the expansion of \[ \left( \frac{4x}{5} + \frac{5}{2x^2} \right)^9 , is: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 5040
View Solution

Question 82:

Let the area of the region \[ \left\{ (x, y): |2x - 1| \leq y \leq x^2 - x, 0 \leq x \leq 1 \right\} \quad be \, A. \]
Then \( (6A + 11)^2 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (1) 125
View Solution

Question 83:

If \[ \frac{(2n+1)P_{n-1}}{2nP_n} = \frac{11}{21}, \quad then \quad n^2 + n + 15 \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 45
View Solution

Question 84:

If the constant term in the binomial expansion of \[ \left( \frac{x^{5/2}}{2} - \frac{4}{x} \right)^9 is -84 and the coefficient of x^{-3} is 2\alpha\beta, \] \[ where \beta < 0 is an odd number, then |\alpha - \beta| is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 98
View Solution

Question 85:

Let \( \vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c} \) be three vectors such that \[ |\vec{a}| = \sqrt{31}, \quad |\vec{b}| = 4, \quad |\vec{c}| = 2, \quad 2(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) = 3(\vec{c} \times \vec{a}). \]
If the angle between \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \) is \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \), then \( \left( \frac{\vec{a} \times \vec{c}}{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}} \right)^2 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Question 86:

Let \( S \) be the set of all \( a \in \mathbb{N} \) such that the area of the triangle formed by the tangent at the point \( P(b, c), b, c \in \mathbb{N} \) on the parabola \[ y^2 = 2ax \quad and the lines \quad x = b, \, y = 0 \quad is \, 16 \, unit^2, then \quad \sum_{a \in S} a \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 146
View Solution

Question 87:

The sum \[ 1^2 - 2 \cdot 3^2 + 3.5^2 - 4.7^2 + 5.9^2 - \dots + 15.29^2 \, is: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 6952
View Solution

Question 88:

Let \( A \) be the event that the absolute difference between two randomly chosen real numbers in the sample space \[ [0, 60] \quad is less than or equal to \, a. \, If \, P(A) = \frac{11}{36}, \, then \, a \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (10)
View Solution

Question 89:

Let \( A = [a_{ij}] \), where \( a_{ij} \in \mathbb{Z} \cap [0, 4], 1 \leq i, j \leq 2 \). The number of matrices \( A \) such that the sum of all entries is a prime number \( p \in \{2, 13\} \) is:

Correct Answer: (204)
View Solution

Question 90:

Let \( A \) be an \( n \times n \) matrix such that \( |A| = 2 \). If the determinant of the matrix \[ Adj (2 \cdot Adj (2A^{-1})) is 2^{84}, then n is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (5)
View Solution


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