JEE Main 2024 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 29, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 January 29 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 January 29 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Number of ways of arranging 8 identical books into 4 identical shelves where any number of shelves may remain empty is equal to

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 15

Question 2:

Let \( A \) be the point of intersection of the lines \( 3x + 2y = 14 \), \( 5x - y = 6 \) and \( B \) be the point of intersection of the lines \( 4x + 3y = 8 \), \( 6x + y = 5 \). The distance of the point \( P(5, -2) \) from the line \( AB \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{13}{2} \)
  • (2) 8
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (4) 6

Question 3:

If\[\int \frac{\sin^{\frac{2}{3}} x + \cos^{\frac{2}{3}} x}{\sqrt{\sin^{\frac{1}{3}} x \cos^{\frac{1}{3}} x \sin(x - \theta)}} \, dx = A \sqrt{\cos \theta \tan x - \sin \theta} + B \sqrt{\cos \theta \cot x + \sin(x - \theta)} + C,\]where \( C \) is the integration constant, then \( AB \) is equal to ______.

  • (1) \( 4 \csc(2\theta) \)
  • (2) \( 4 \sec \theta \)
  • (3) \( 2 \sec \theta \)
  • (4) \( 8 \csc(2\theta) \)

Question 4:

The distance of the point \( (2, 3) \) from the line \( 2x - 3y + 28 = 0 \), measured parallel to the line \( \sqrt{3}x - y + 1 = 0 \), is equal to

  • (1) \( 4 \sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 6 \sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) \( 3 + 4 \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 4 + 6 \sqrt{3} \)

Question 5:

Let a unit vector \( \hat{u} = x\hat{i} + y\hat{j} + z\hat{k} \) make angles \( \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{3} \), and \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \) with the vectors \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{k} \), \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{j} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{k} \), and \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{j} \) respectively. If \( \vec{v} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{i} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{j} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{k} \), then \( |\hat{u} - \vec{v}|^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{11}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 7

Question 6:

The function \( f(x) = \frac{x}{x^2 - 6x - 16} \), \( x \in \mathbb{R} - \{-2, 8\} \)

  • (1) decreases in \( (-2, 8) \) and increases in \( (-\infty, -2) \cup (8, \infty) \)
  • (2) decreases in \( (-\infty, -2) \cup (-2, 8) \cup (8, \infty) \)
  • (3) decreases in \( (-\infty, -2) \) and increases in \( (8, \infty) \)
  • (4) increases in \( (-\infty, -2) \cup (-2, 8) \cup (8, \infty) \)

Question 7:

If \( R \) is the smallest equivalence relation on the set \( \{1, 2, 3, 4\} \) such that \( \{(1,2), (1,3)\} \subseteq R \), then the number of elements in \( R \) is ______.

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 15

Question 8:

If the mean and variance of five observations are \( \frac{24}{5} \) and \( \frac{194}{25} \) respectively and the mean of first four observations is \( \frac{7}{2} \), then the variance of the first four observations is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{77}{12} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{105}{4} \)

Question 9:

Let \( P(3, 2, 3) \), \( Q(4, 6, 2) \), and \( R(7, 3, 2) \) be the vertices of \( \triangle PQR \). Then, the angle \( \angle QPR \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{7}{18} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{18} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)

Question 10:

Let \( y = \log_e \left( \frac{1 - x^2}{1 + x^2} \right), -1 < x < 1 \). Then at \( x = \frac{1}{2} \), the value of \( 225(y' - y'') \) is equal to

  • (1) 732
  • (2) 746
  • (3) 742
  • (4) 736

Question 11:

If \( \log_e a, \log_e b, \log_e c \) are in an A.P. and \( \log_e a - \log_e 2b, \log_e 2b - \log_e 3c, \log_e 3c - \log_e a \) are also in an A.P., then \( a : b : c \) is equal to

  • (1) 9 : 6 : 4
  • (2) 16 : 4 : 1
  • (3) 25 : 10 : 4
  • (4) 6 : 3 : 2

Question 12:

If \( \sin\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) = \log_e |x| + \frac{\alpha}{2} \) is the solution of the differential equation \[x \cos\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) \frac{dy}{dx} = y \cos\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) + x\]and \( y(1) = \frac{\pi}{3} \), then \( \alpha^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 9

Question 13:

An integer is chosen at random from the integers 1,2, 3, ..., 50. The probability that the chosen integer is a multiple of atleast one of 4, 6 and 7 is

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{25} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{21}{50} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{9}{50} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{14}{25} \)

Question 14:

Let \( \overrightarrow{OA} = \vec{a}, \overrightarrow{OB} = 12\vec{a} + 4\vec{b} \) and \( \overrightarrow{OC} = \vec{b} \), where \( O \) is the origin. If \( S \) is the parallelogram with adjacent sides \( OA \) and \( OC \), then\[\frac{\text{area of the quadrilateral OABC}}{\text{area of } S}\]is equal to ___.

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8

Question 15:

The function \( f(x) = 2x + 3(x)^{\frac{2}{3}}, x \in \mathbb{R} \), has

  • (1) exactly one point of local minima and no point of local maxima
  • (2) exactly one point of local maxima and no point of local minima
  • (3) exactly one point of local maxima and exactly one point of local minima
  • (4) exactly two points of local maxima and exactly one point of local minima

Question 16:

If each term of a geometric progression \( a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots \) with \( a_1 = \frac{1}{8} \) and \( a_2 \neq a_1 \), is the arithmetic mean of the next two terms and \( S_n = a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_n \), then \( S_{20} - S_{18} \) is equal to

  • (1) \( 2^{15} \)
  • (2) \( -2^{18} \)
  • (3) \( 2^{18} \)
  • (4) \( -2^{15} \)

Question 17:

Let \( r \) and \( \theta \) respectively be the modulus and amplitude of the complex number \( z = 2 - i \left( 2 \tan \frac{5\pi}{8} \right) \), then \( (r, \theta) \) is equal to

  • (1) \( \left( 2 \sec \frac{3\pi}{8}, \frac{3\pi}{8} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( 2 \sec \frac{3\pi}{8}, \frac{5\pi}{8} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( 2 \sec \frac{5\pi}{8}, \frac{3\pi}{8} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( 2 \sec \frac{11\pi}{8}, \frac{11\pi}{8} \right) \)

Question 18:

The sum of the solutions \( x \in \mathbb{R} \) of the equation\[\frac{3 \cos 2x + \cos^3 2x}{\cos^6 x - \sin^6 x} = x^3 - x^2 + 6\]is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) -1
  • (4) 3

Question 19:

Let \( x = \frac{m}{n} \) ( \( m, n \) are co-prime natural numbers) be a solution of the equation \( \cos \left( 2 \sin^{-1} x \right) = \frac{1}{9} \) and let \( \alpha, \beta (\alpha > \beta) \) be the roots of the equation \( mx^2 - nx - m + n = 0 \). Then the point \( (\alpha, \beta) \) lies on the line

  • (1) 3x + 2y = 2
  • (2) 5x – 8y = –9
  • (3) 3x – 2y = –2
  • (4) 5x + 8y = 9

Question 20:

\[\text{Let } A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 2 \\ 6 & 2 & 11 \\ 3 & 3 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \text{ and } P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 0 \\ 5 & 0 & 2 \\ 7 & 1 & 5 \end{bmatrix}.\]The sum of the prime factors of \( |P^{-1}AP - 2I| \) is equal to.

  • (1) 26
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 66
  • (4) 23

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \( O \) be the origin, and \( M \) and \( N \) be the points on the lines \[\frac{x - 5}{4} = \frac{y - 4}{1} = \frac{z - 5}{3} \]and\[\frac{x + 8}{12} = \frac{y + 2}{5} = \frac{z + 11}{9} \]respectively, such that \( MN \) is the shortest distance between the given lines. Then \( OM \cdot ON \) is equal to ______.


Question 22:

Let the area of the region \( \{(x, y): 0 \leq x \leq 3, 0 \leq y \leq \min\{x^2 + 2, 2x + 2\}\} \) be \( A \). Then \( 12A \) is equal to ______.


Question 23:

Let the set \( C = \{(x, y) \mid x^2 - 2^y = 2023, x, y \in \mathbb{N}\} \).Then\[\sum_{(x, y) \in C} (x + y)\]is equal to ______.


Question 24:

Let the slope of the line \( 45x + 5y + 3 = 0 \) be \( 27r_1 + \frac{9r_2}{2} \) for some \( r_1, r_2 \in \mathbb{R} \).Then\[\lim_{x \to 3} \left( \int_3^x \frac{8t^2}{\frac{3r_1 x}{2} - r_2 x^2 - r_1 x^3 - 3x} \, dt \right)\]is equal to _____.


Question 25:

Let \( \alpha, \beta \) be the roots of the equation \( x^2 - \sqrt{6}x + 3 = 0 \) such that \( \operatorname{Im}(\alpha) > \operatorname{Im}(\beta) \). Let \( a, b \) be integers not divisible by 3 and \( n \) be a natural number such that\[\frac{\alpha^{99}}{\beta} + \alpha^{98} = 3^n (a + ib), i = \sqrt{-1}.\]Then \( n + a + b \) is equal to ______.


Question 26:

Let for any three distinct consecutive terms \( a, b, c \) of an A.P., the lines \( ax + by + c = 0 \) be concurrent at the point \( P \) and \( Q (\alpha, \beta) \) be a point such that the system of equations \[x + y + z = 6,\]\[2x + 5y + \alpha z = \beta,\]\[x + 2y + 3z = 4,\]has infinitely many solutions. Then \( (PQ)^2 \) is equal to ______.


Question 27:

Let \( P(\alpha, \beta) \) be a point on the parabola \( y^2 = 4x \). If \( P \) also lies on the chord of the parabola \( x^2 = 8y \) whose midpoint is \( \left( 1, \frac{5}{4} \right) \), then \( (\alpha - 28)(\beta - 8) \) is equal to ______.


Question 28:

Remainder when \( 64^{32^{32}} \) is divided by 9 is equal to ______.


Question 29:

Let\[f(x) = \sqrt{\lim_{r \to x} \left( \frac{2r^2 \left[ (f(r))^2 - f(x) f(r) \right]}{r^2 - x^2} - r^3 e^{\frac{f(r)}{r}} \right)}\]be differentiable in \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (0, \infty) \) and \( f(1) = 1 \). Then the value of \( ea \), such that \( f(a) = 0 \), is equal to ______.


Question 30:

If\[\int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \sqrt{1 - \sin 2x} \, dx = \alpha + \beta \sqrt{2} + \gamma \sqrt{3},\]where \( \alpha \), \( \beta \), and \( \gamma \) are rational numbers, then \( 3\alpha + 4\beta - \gamma \) is equal to ______.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27 identical liquid drops. If the surface tension is T, then the work done in the process will be :

  • (1) \( 8\pi R^2 T \)
  • (2) \( 3\pi R^2 T \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{8} \pi R^2 T \)
  • (4) \( 4\pi R^2 T \)

Question 32:

In the given circuit, the current in resistance R3 is :
Resistance

  • (1) 1 A
  • (2) 1.5 A
  • (3) 2 A
  • (4) 2.5 A

Question 33:

A physical quantity \( Q \) is found to depend on quantities \( a \), \( b \), \( c \) by the relation\[Q = \frac{a^4 b^3}{c^2}.\]The percentage errors in \( a \), \( b \), and \( c \) are 3%, 4%, and 5% respectively. Then, the percentage error in \( Q \) is:

  • (1) 66%
  • (2) 43%
  • (3) 34%
  • (4) 14%

Question 34:

A stone of mass 900 g is tied to a string and moved in a vertical circle of radius 1 m making 10 rpm. The tension in the string, when the stone is at the lowest point, is (if \( \pi^2 = 9.8 \) and \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

  • (1) 97 N
  • (2) 9.8 N
  • (3) 8.82 N
  • (4) 17.8 N

Question 35:

The truth table for this given circuit is :The truth table for this given circuit is :
Gates

  • (1)
    AB

    Y

    001
    011
    101
    110
  • (2)
    ABY
    000
    011
    100
    111
  • (3)
    ABY
    000
    010
    100
    111
  • (4)
    ABY
    001
    010
    101
    110

Question 36:

A bob of mass \( m \) is suspended by a light string of length \( L \). It is imparted a minimum horizontal velocity at the lowest point \( A \) such that it just completes a half circle, reaching the topmost position \( B \). The ratio of kinetic energies \( \frac{(\text{K.E.})_A}{(\text{K.E.})_B} \) is:
bob

  • (1) 3 : 2
  • (2) 5 : 1
  • (3) 2 : 5
  • (4) 1 : 5

Question 37:

An electric field is given by \( (6\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \, \text{N/C} \). The electric flux through a surface area \( 30\hat{i} \, \text{m}^2 \) lying in the YZ-plane (in SI units) is:

  • (1) 90
  • (2) 150
  • (3) 180
  • (4) 60

Question 38:

A planet takes 200 days to complete one revolution around the Sun. If the distance of the planet from Sun is reduced to one fourth of the original distance, how many days will it take to complete one revolution ?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 20

Question 39:

A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one end. If its other end is pulled by a force F, its length increases by l. If the radius of the wire and the applied force both are reduced to half of their original values keeping original length constant, the increase in length will become.

  • (1) 3 times
  • (2) 3/2 times
  • (3) 4 times
  • (4) 2 times

Question 40:

The temperature of a gas having \( 2.0 \times 10^{25} \) molecules per cubic meter at 1.38 atm (Given, \( k = 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \, \text{JK}^{-1} \)) is:

  • (1) 500 K
  • (2) 200 K
  • (3) 100 K
  • (4) 300 K

Question 41:

If the distance between object and its two times magnified virtual image produced by a curved mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must be :

  • (1) 15 cm
  • (2) -12 cm
  • (3) -10 cm
  • (4) 10/3 cm

Question 42:

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 35 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction. At a particular point (in space and time), \( \vec{E} = 9.6 \hat{j} \, \text{V/m} \). The value of the magnetic field at this point is:

  • (1) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \, \text{T} \)
  • (2) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-8} \hat{i} \, \text{T} \)
  • (3) \( 9.6 \hat{j} \, \text{T} \)
  • (4) \( 9.6 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \, \text{T} \)

Question 43:

In an a.c. circuit, voltage and current are given by:\[V = 100 \sin (100 \, t) \, \text{V}\]and\[I = 100 \sin \left(100 \, t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \, \text{mA}\]respectively. The average power dissipated in one cycle is:

  • (1) 5 W
  • (2) 10 W
  • (3) 2.5 W
  • (4) 25 W

Question 44:

A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position \( x \) as a function of time \( t \) is given as\[x = (t^3 - 6t^2 + 20t + 15) \, \text{m}.\]The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is:

  • (1) 4 m/s
  • (2) 8 m/s
  • (3) 10 m/s
  • (4) 6 m/s

Question 45:

The bob of a pendulum was released from a horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is 10 m. If it dissipates 10% of its initial energy against air resistance, the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowest point is: [Use, \( g : 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)]

  • (1) \( 6\sqrt{5} \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 5\sqrt{6} \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 5\sqrt{5} \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{5} \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)

Question 46:

N moles of a polyatomic gas (f = 6) must be mixed with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that the mixture behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N is :

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 2

Question 47:

In Young’s double slit experiment, light from two identical sources is superimposing on a screen. The path difference between the two lights reaching a point on the screen is \( \frac{7\lambda}{4} \). The ratio of the intensity of the fringe at this point with respect to the maximum intensity of the fringe is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \)

Question 48:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Most of the mass of the atom and all its positive charge are concentrated in a tiny nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is Rutherford’s model.
Statement II : An atom is a spherical cloud of positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a special case of Rutherford’s model.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
  • (4) Both statement I and statement II are true

Question 49:

Two sources of light emit with a power of 200 W.The ratio of number of photons of visible light emitted by each source having wavelengths 300 nm and 500 nm respectively, will be :

  • (1) 1 : 5
  • (2) 1 : 3
  • (3) 5 : 3
  • (4) 3 : 5

Question 50:

Two particles \( X \) and \( Y \) having equal charges are being accelerated through the same potential difference. Thereafter, they enter normally in a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) respectively. The mass ratio of \( X \) and \( Y \) is:

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{R_2}{R_1} \right)^2 \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{R_1}{R_2} \right)^2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{R_1}{R_2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{R_2}{R_1} \)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

In the given circuit, the current flowing through the resistance \( 20 \Omega \) is \( 0.3 \, \text{A} \), while the ammeter reads \( 0.9 \, \text{A} \). The value of \( R_1 \) is ______ \( \Omega \).
Resistance diagram


Question 52:

In the given figure, the charge stored in \(6\mu F\) capacitor, when points A and B are joined by a connecting wire is _______\(\mu C\).
capacitor


Question 53:

In a single slit diffraction pattern, a light of wavelength \( 6000 \, \text{Å} \) is used. The distance between the first and third minima in the diffraction pattern is found to be 3 mm when the screen is placed 50 cm away from the slits. The width of the slit is ______ \( \times 10^{-4} \) m.


Question 54:

A body of mass \( 5 \, \text{kg} \) moving with a uniform speed \( 3\sqrt{2} \, \text{m/s}^{-1} \) in the \( X - Y \) plane along the line \( y = x + 4 \). The angular momentum of the particle about the origin will be ______ \( \text{kg m}^2 \text{s}^{-1} \).


Question 55:

A hydrogen atom is bombarded with electrons accelerated through a potential difference of \( V \), which causes excitation of hydrogen atoms. If the experiment is being performed at \( T = 0 \, \text{K} \), the minimum potential difference needed to observe any Balmer series lines in the emission spectra will be\[\frac{\alpha}{10} V,\]where \( \alpha = \, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \).


Question 56:

A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude \( A \) and a time period of \( 6\pi \) seconds. Assuming the oscillation starts from its mean position, the time required by it to travel from \( x = A \) to \( x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} A \) will be \( \frac{\pi}{x} \) seconds, where \( x = \, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \).


Question 57:

Two metallic wires \( P \) and \( Q \) have the same volume and are made of the same material. If their areas of cross-section are in the ratio \( 4 : 1 \) and a force \( F_1 \) is applied to \( P \), producing an extension of \( \Delta l \), the force required to produce the same extension in \( Q \) is \( F_2 \).The value of \( \frac{F_1}{F_2} \) is _______.


Question 58:

A particle is moving in a circle of radius 50 cm in such a way that at any instant the normal and tangential components of its acceleration are equal. If its speed at \( t = 0 \) is \( 4 \, \text{m/s} \), the time taken to complete the first revolution will be\[\frac{1}{\alpha} \left[ 1 - e^{2\pi} \right] \, \text{s},\]where \( \alpha = \, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \).


Question 59:

A charge of \( 4.0 \, \mu \text{C} \) is moving with a velocity of \( 4.0 \times 10^6 \, \text{ms}^{-1} \) along the positive y-axis under a magnetic field \( \vec{B} \) of strength \( (2\hat{k}) \, \text{T} \). The force acting on the charge is \( x \hat{i} \, \text{N} \). The value of \( x \) is _____.


Question 60:

A horizontal straight wire 5 m long, extending from east to west, is falling freely at a right angle to the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field \( 0.60 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{Wb/m}^2 \). The instantaneous value of emf induced in the wire when its velocity is \( 10 \, \text{m/s} \) is _______ \( \times 10^{-3} \, \text{V} \).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s reagent, a brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is

  • (1) \(\text{H}_2\text{S}\)
  • (2) \(\text{CO}_2\)
  • (3) \(\text{NH}_3\)
  • (4) \(\text{Cl}_2\)

Question 62:

\(\text{Match List I with List II}\)
\(\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{List I (Bio Polymer)} & \text{List II (Monomer)} \\ \hline \text{A. Starch} & \text{I. nucleotide} \\ \text{B. Cellulose} & \text{II. } \alpha\text{-glucose} \\ \text{C. Nucleic acid} & \text{III. } \beta\text{-glucose} \\ \text{D. Protein} & \text{IV. } \alpha\text{-amino acid} \\ \hline \end{array}\)
\(\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-}\)

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 63:

Which of the following acts as a strong reducing agent? (Atomic number : Ce = 58, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Lu = 71)

  • (1) \(\text{Lu}^{3+}\)
  • (2) \(\text{Gd}^{3+}\)
  • (3) \(\text{Eu}^{2+}\)
  • (4) \(\text{Ce}^{4+}\)

Question 64:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II: Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 65:

According to IUPAC system, the compound
Problem Fig

  • (1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
  • (2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
  • (3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
  • (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Question 66:

\(\text{Match List I with List II}\)
\(\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{List I (Spectral Series for Hydrogen)} & \text{List II (Spectral Region/Higher Energy State)} \\ \hline \text{A. Lyman} & \text{I. Infrared region} \\ \text{B. Balmer} & \text{II. UV region} \\ \text{C. Paschen} & \text{III. Infrared region} \\ \text{D. Pfund} & \text{IV. Visible region} \\ \hline \end{array}\)
\(\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-}\)

  • (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 67:

The element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is

  • (1) Si
  • (2) Al
  • (3) N
  • (4) C

Question 68:

Which of the following statements are correct about Zn, Cd and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +I and +II.
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D only
  • (2) B, C only
  • (3) A, D only
  • (4) C, D only

Question 69:

The ascending acidity order of the following H atoms is
Chemical reaction

  • (1) \(C \lt D \lt B \lt A\)
  • (2) \( A \lt B \lt C \lt D \)
  • (3) \( A \lt B \lt D \lt C\)
  • (4) \(D \lt C \lt B \lt A\)

Question 70:

The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is

  • (1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)
  • (2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
  • (3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII)
  • (4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)

Question 71:

Identify the reagents used for the following conversion
reagents

  • (1) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH2–NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol
  • (2) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(alc), C =Zn/HCl
  • (3) A = DIBAL-H, B= NaOH(aq), C = NH2–NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol
  • (4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl

Question 72:

Chromatographic technique/s based on the principle of differential adsorption is/are
A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B only
  • (2) A only
  • (3) A & B only
  • (4) C only

Question 73:

Which of the following reaction is correct ?

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 74:

Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its

  • (1) Large size and high electronegativity
  • (2) Small size and low electronegativity
  • (3) Small size and high electronegativity
  • (4) Large size and low electronegativity

Question 75:

Which one of the following will show geometrical isomerism?

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 76:

A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with Nickel ions in basic medium is

  • (1) sodium nitroprusside
  • (2) neutral FeCl\(_3\)
  • (3) meta-dinitrobenzene
  • (4) dimethyl glyoxime

Question 77:

Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolysed in presence of an acid results

  • (1) Salicyclic acid
  • (2) Benzene-1,2-diol
  • (3) Benzene-1, 3-diol
  • (4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde

Question 78:

\(\text{Match List I with List II}\)
\(\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{List I (Compound)} & \text{List II (p}K_a\text{ value)} \\ \hline \text{A. Ethanol} & \text{I. } 10.0 \\ \text{B. Phenol} & \text{II. } 15.9 \\ \text{C. m-Nitrophenol} & \text{III. } 7.1 \\ \text{D. p-Nitrophenol} & \text{IV. } 8.3 \\ \hline \end{array}\)
\(\text{Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-}\)

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 79:

The product A formed in the following reaction is:
 reaction

  • (1)
  • (2) Fig 2
  • (3) Fig 3
  • (4) Fig 4

Question 80:

Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by reaction with

  • (1) NaCN
  • (2) NH\(_4\)CN
  • (3) KCN
  • (4) AgCN

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

\(\text{The total number of molecules with zero dipole moment among CH}_4, \text{ BF}_3, \text{ H}_2\text{O, HF, NH}_3, \text{ CO}_2 \text{ and}\)
\(\text{SO}_2 \text{ is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)


Question 82:

\(\text{Standard enthalpy of vaporisation for CCl}_4 \text{ is 30.5 kJ mol}^{-1}. \text{ Heat required for vaporisation of } 284 \, \text{g of CCl}_4 \text{ at constant temperature is } \_\_\_\_ \, \text{kJ.}\)
\(\text{(Given molar mass in g mol}^{-1}\text{; C = 12, Cl = 35.5)}\)


Question 83:

If 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is required to neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of NaOH in 50 mL of given NaOH solution is _____g.


Question 84:

\(\text{The following concentrations were observed at 500 K for the formation of NH}_3 \text{ from N}_2 \text{ and H}_2\text{. At equilibrium: [N}_2] = 2 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{M, [H}_2] = 3 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{M, and [NH}_3] = 1.5 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{M. Equilibrium constant for the reaction is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)


Question 85:

\(\text{A constant current was passed through a solution of AuCl}_4^- \text{ ion between gold electrodes. After a}\)
\(\text{period of 10.0 minutes, the increase in mass of cathode was 1.314 g. The total charge passed}\)
\(\text{through the solution is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_} \times 10^{-2} \, \text{F.}\)
\(\text{(Given atomic mass of Au = 197)}\)


Question 86:

The total number of anti bonding molecular orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a diatomic molecule is _____________.


Question 87:

The half-life of radio isotopic bromine - 82 is 36 hours. The fraction which remains after one day is ___________ ×10–2.
(Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)


Question 88:

The total number of ‘Sigma’ and Pi bonds in 2 formylhex-4-enoic acid is ____.


Question 89:

\(\text{The oxidation number of iron in the compound formed during brown ring test for NO}_3^-\text{ ion is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)


Question 90:

\(\text{Molality of 0.8 M H}_2\text{SO}_4 \text{ solution (density 1.06 g cm}^{-3}\text{) is \_\_\_\_\_\_} \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m}.\)

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
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Chemistry
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JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc. after the conclusion of the exam.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

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