JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 27, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Considering only the principal values of inverse trigonometric functions, the number of positive real values of \( x \) satisfying \[ \tan^{-1}(x) + \tan^{-1}(2x) = \frac{\pi}{4} \] is:

  • (1) More than 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 0

Question 2:

Let the position vectors of the vertices \( A, B \) and \( C \) of a triangle be \[ 2\mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k}, \quad \mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j} + 2\mathbf{k} \quad \text{and} \quad 2\mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j} + 2\mathbf{k} \] respectively. Let \( l_1, l_2 \) and \( l_3 \) be the lengths of the perpendiculars drawn from the ortho center of the triangle on the sides \( AB, BC \) and \( CA \) respectively. Then \( l_1^2 + l_2^2 + l_3^2 \) equals:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 3:

Consider the function \( f : (0, 2) \to \mathbb{R} \) defined by \[ f(x) = \frac{x}{2} + \frac{2}{x} \] and the function \( g(x) \) defined by \[ g(x) = \begin{cases} \min\{f(t)\}, & 0 < t \leq x \text{ and } 0 < x \leq 1 \\ \frac{3}{2} + x, & 1 < x < 2 \end{cases} \] Then:

  • (1) g is continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
  • (2) g is not continuous for all x (0,2)
  • (3) g is neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1
  • (4) g is continuous and differentiable for all x (0,2) 

Question 4:

An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two successive draws of 4 balls are made without replacement. The probability that the first draw gives all white balls, and the second draw gives all black balls, is:

  • (1) \( \frac{5}{256} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{715} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{715} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{256} \)

Question 5:

Let the image of the point \( (1, 0, 7) \) in the line \[ \frac{x}{1} = \frac{y - 1}{2} = \frac{z - 2}{3} \] be the point \( (\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \). Then which one of the following points lies on the line passing through \( (\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) and making angles \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \) and \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \) with the y-axis and z-axis respectively and an acute angle with the x-axis?

  • (1) \( (1, -2, 1 + \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (2) \( (2, 1, 2 - \sqrt{2}) \)
  • (3) \( (3, 4, 3 - 2\sqrt{2}) \)
  • (4) \( (3, -4, 3 + 2\sqrt{2}) \)

Question 6:

Let \( A \) and \( B \) be two finite sets with \( m \) and \( n \) elements respectively. The total number of subsets of the set \( A \) is 56 more than the total number of subsets of \( B \). Then the distance of the point \( P(m, n) \) from the point \( Q(-2, -3) \) is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8

Question 7:

If \( \alpha, \beta \) are the roots of the equation \( x^2 - x - 1 = 0 \) and \( S_n = 2023 \alpha^n + 2024 \beta^n \), then:

  • (1) \( S_{12} = S_1 + S_{10} \)
  • (2) \( 2S_{11} = S_{12} + S_{10} \)
  • (3) \( S_{11} = S_{10} + S_{12} \)
  • (4) \( S_1 + S_{10} = S_{12} \)

Question 8:

Let \( e_1 \) be the eccentricity of the hyperbola \[ \frac{x^2}{16} - \frac{y^2}{9} = 1 \] and \( e_2 \) be the eccentricity of the ellipse \[ \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1, \quad a > b, \] which passes through the foci of the hyperbola. If \( e_1 e_2 = 1 \), then the length of the chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and passing through (0, 2) is: 

  • (1) \( 4\sqrt{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8\sqrt{5}}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10\sqrt{5}}{3} \)
  • (4) \( 3\sqrt{5} \)

Question 9:

The 20th term from the end of the progression \[ 20, 19, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{4}, \ldots, -129 \frac{1}{4} \] is:

  • (1) –118
  • (2) –115
  • (3) –110
  • (4) –100

Question 10:

Let \( f : R \setminus \left\{ -\frac{1}{2} \right\} \to R \) and \( g : R \setminus \left\{ -\frac{5}{2} \right\} \to R \) be defined as \( f(x) = \frac{2x + 3}{2x + 1} \) and \( g(x) = \frac{|x| + 1}{2x + 5} \). Then the domain of the function \( f(g(x)) \) is:

  • (1) \( R \setminus \left\{ -\frac{5}{2} \right\} \)
  • (2) \( R \)
  • (3) \( R \setminus \left\{ -\frac{7}{4} \right\} \)
  • (4) \( R \setminus \left\{ -\frac{5}{2}, -\frac{7}{4} \right\} \)

Question 11:

If \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3 + \alpha \sin x + \beta \cos x + \log(1 - x)}{3 \tan^2 x} = \frac{1}{3}, \] then \( 2\alpha - \beta \) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 1

Question 12:

If \(y = y(x)\) is the solution curve of the differential equation \[ (x^2 - 4) \, dy - (y^2 - 3y) \, dx = 0, \] with \(x > 2\), \(y(4) = \frac{3}{2}\) and the slope of the curve is never zero, then the value of \(y(10)\) equals: 

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{1 + (8)^{1/4}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{1 + 2\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{1 - 2\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{1 - (8)^{1/4}} \)

Question 13:

If \( 2 \tan^2 \theta - 5 \sec \theta = 1 \) has exactly 7 solutions in the interval \(\left[ 0, \frac{n\pi}{2} \right],\) for the least value of \( n \in \mathbb{N} \) then \(\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{k}{2^k}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2^{15}} (2^{14} - 14) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2^{13}} (2^{14} - 15) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2^{14}} (2^{15} - 15) \)
  • (4) \( 1 - \frac{15}{2^{13}} \)

Question 14:

Let \( g(x) = 3f\left(\frac{x}{3}\right) + f(3 - x) \) and \( f''(x) >0 \) for all \( x \in (0, 3) \). If \( g \) is decreasing in \( (0, \alpha) \) and increasing in \( (\alpha, 3) \), then \( 8\alpha \) is:

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 20

Question 15:

Let \( R \) be the interior region between the lines \( 3x - y + 1 = 0 \) and \( x + 2y - 5 = 0 \) containing the origin. The set of all values of \( a \), for which the points \( (a^2, a + 1) \) lie in \( R \), is:

  • (1) \( (-3, -1) \cup \left(-\frac{1}{3}, 1\right) \)
  • (2) \( (-3, 0) \cup \left(-\frac{1}{3}, 1\right) \)
  • (3) \( (-3, 0) \cup \left(\frac{2}{3}, 1\right) \)
  • (4) \( (-3, -1) \cup \left(\frac{1}{3}, 1\right) \)

Question 16:

Let \( \alpha = \frac{(4!)!}{(4!)^{3!}} \) and \( \beta = \frac{(5!)!}{(5!)^{4!}} \). Then:

  • (1) \( \alpha \in \mathbb{N} \) and \( \beta \notin \mathbb{N} \)
  • (2) \( \alpha \notin \mathbb{N} \) and \( \beta \in \mathbb{N} \)
  • (3) \( \alpha \in \mathbb{N} \) and \( \beta \in \mathbb{N} \)
  • (4) \( \alpha \notin \mathbb{N} \) and \( \beta \notin \mathbb{N} \)

Question 17:

The integral \[ \int \frac{x^8 - x^2}{(x^{12} + 3x^6 + 1) \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{x^3 + 1}{x^3} \right)} \, dx \] is equal to: 

  • (1) \( \log_e\left[\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x^3 + 1}{x^3}\right)\right]^{1/3} + C \)
  • (2) \( \log_e\left[\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x^3 + 1}{x^3}\right)\right]^{1/2} + C \)
  • (3) \( \log_e\left[\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x^3 + 1}{x^3}\right)\right] + C \)
  • (4) \( \log_e\left[\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x^3 + 1}{x^3}\right)\right]^{3} + C \)

Question 18:

The values of \(\alpha\), for which
Problem Figure
lie in the interval

  • (1) (-2, 1)
  • (2) (-3, 0)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac{3}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)\)
  • (4) (0, 3)

Question 19:

For \(0<a<1\), the value of the integral \(\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi}\frac{dx}{1-2a\cos x+a^2}\) is :

  • (1) \(\dfrac{\pi^2}{\pi+a^2}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{\pi^2}{\pi-a^2}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{\pi}{1-a^2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{\pi}{1+a^2}\)

Question 20:

The position vectors of the vertices \( A, B \) and \( C \) of a triangle are \[ 2\mathbf{i} - 3\mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k}, \quad 2\mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k} \quad \text{and} \quad -\mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k} \] respectively. Let \( l \) denote the length of the angle bisector \( AD \) of \( \angle BAC \) where \( D \) is on the line segment \( BC \). Then \( 2l^2 \) equals:

  • (1) 49
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 45

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

The mean and standard deviation of 15 observations were found to be 12 and 3 respectively. On rechecking it was found that an observation was read as 10 in place of 12. If \( \mu \) and \( \sigma^2 \) denote the mean and variance of the correct observations respectively, then \( 15(\mu + \mu^2 + \sigma^2) \) is equal to \(\ldots\)


Question 22:

Coefficient of x2012 in (1-x)2008(1+x+x²)2007 is equal to ___

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 23:

The lines \[ \frac{x - 2}{2} = \frac{y + 2}{-2} = \frac{z - 7}{16} \] and \[ \frac{x + 3}{4} = \frac{y + 2}{3} = \frac{z + 2}{1} \] intersect at the point \( P \). If the distance of \( P \) from the line \[ \frac{x + 1}{2} = \frac{y - 1}{3} = \frac{z - 1}{1} \] is \( l \), then \( 14l^2 \) is equal to ________


Question 24:

Let \( f(x) = \int_0^x g(t) \log_e \left( \frac{1 - t}{1 + t} \right) dt \), where \( g \) is a continuous odd function. If \[ \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \left( f(x) + \frac{x^2 \cos x}{1 + e^x} \right) dx = \left( \frac{\pi}{\alpha} \right)^2 - \alpha, \] then \( \alpha \) is equal to .....


Question 25:

If the area of the region \[ \{(x,y) : 0 \leq y \leq \min\{2x, 6x - x^2\}\} \] is \( A \), then \( 12A \) is equal to ________


Question 26:

If the sum of squares of all real values of \( \alpha \), for which the lines \( 2x - y + 3 = 0 \), \( 6x + 3y + 1 = 0 \) and \( \alpha x + 2y - 2 = 0 \) do not form a triangle \( p \), then the greatest integer less than or equal to \( p \) is ....


Question 27:

Let \( A \) be a \( 2 \times 2 \) real matrix and \( I \) be the identity matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation \[ |A - xI| = 0 \] be \( -1 \) and \( 3 \), then the sum of the diagonal elements of the matrix \( A^2 \) is .....


Question 28:

Consider a circle \( (x - \alpha)^2 + (y - \beta)^2 = 50 \), where \( \alpha, \beta> 0 \). If the circle touches the line \( y + x = 0 \) at the point \( P \), whose distance from the origin is \( 4\sqrt{2} \), then \( (\alpha + \beta)^2 \) is equal to ....


Question 29:

Let the complex numbers \( \alpha \) and \( \frac{1}{\alpha} \) lie on the circles \[ |z - z_0|^2 = 4 \] and \[ |z - z_0|^2 = 16 \] respectively, where \( z_0 = 1 + i \). Then, the value of \( 100 |\alpha|^2 \) is ....


Question 30:

If the solution curve of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{x + y - 2}{x - y} \] passing through the point \( (2, 1) \) is \[ \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{y - 1}{x - 1}\right) - \frac{1}{\beta} \log_e\left(\alpha + \left(\frac{y - 1}{x - 1}\right)^2\right) = \log_e |x - 1|, \] then \( 5\beta + \alpha \) is equal to


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements, the reading taken will be more than the actual reading. 
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect or due to rough handling. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 32:

A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its magnitude of acceleration in the extreme position and lowest position are equal. The angle \(\theta\) of thread deflection in the extreme position will be :

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}(\sqrt{2})\)
  • (2) \(2\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (4) \(2\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\)

Question 33:

Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction depends on the area of contact and independent of materials.
Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact and depends on materials.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 34:

Primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to secondary winding is 10 : 1. Load resistance connected to secondary side is 46 \(\Omega \). The power consumed in it is :

  • (1) 12.5 W
  • (2) 10.0 W
  • (3) 11.5 W
  • (4) 12.0 W

Question 35:

A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a man. The rod makes an angle \(60^\circ\) with the horizontal, the weight experienced by the man is :

  • (1) 6 kg
  • (2) 12 kg
  • (3) 3 kg
  • (4) \(6\sqrt{3}\) kg

Question 36:

Assertion: The angular velocity of the moon revolving around the earth is more than that of the earth revolving around the Sun.
Reason: The time taken by the moon to revolve around the earth is less than the time taken by the earth to revolve around the sun.

  • (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
  • (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R)

Question 37:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The property of body, by virtue of which it tends to regain its original shape when the external force is removed, is Elasticity.
Reason (R) : The restoring force depends upon the bonded inter atomic and inter molecular force of solid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (A)
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 38:

The atomic mass of \(_{6}^{12}C\) is 12.000000 u and that of \(_{6}^{13}C\) is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from \(_{6}^{13}C\), if mass of neutron is 1.008665 u, will be :

  • (1) 62.5 MeV
  • (2) 6.25 MeV
  • (3) 4.95 MeV
  • (4) 49.5 MeV

Question 39:

If the work function of a metal is 6.63 eV, then find the threshold frequency for photoelectric effect.

  • (1) 1.9 × 1015 Hz
  • (2) 1.6×1015 Hz
  • (3) 2 x 1016 Hz
  • (4) 1.2×1015 Hz

Question 40:

During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of \(\frac{C_p}{C_v}\) for the gas is :

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{7}\)

Question 41:

A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third of its velocity after travelling 4 cm. It penetrates further \( D \times 10^{-3} \) m before coming to rest. The value of \( D \) is :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 5
  • (3) \(32\times10^{-3}\)
  • (4) 4

Question 42:

Three voltmeters, all having different internal resistances are joined as shown in figure. When some potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are \(V_1\), \(V_2\) and \(V_3\). 
image
Choose the correct option.

  • (1) \(V_1 = V_2\)
  • (2) \(V_1 \neq V_3 - V_2\)
  • (3) \(V_1 + V_2 > V_3\)
  • (4) \(V_1 + V_2 = V_3\)

Question 43:

The equation of state of a real gas is given by \[ \left( P + \frac{a}{V^2} \right)(V - b) = RT, \] where \( P, V \) and \( T \) are pressure, volume and temperature respectively and \( R \) is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of \[ \frac{a}{b^2} \] is similar to that of :

  • (1) PV
  • (2) R
  • (3) RT
  • (4) P

Question 44:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled a Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R)
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 45:

When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids then the transmitted light intensity will be maximum for a rotation of :

  • (1) \(60^\circ\)
  • (2) \(30^\circ\)
  • (3) \(90^\circ\)
  • (4) \(45^\circ\)

Question 46:

An object is placed in a medium of refractive index 3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity \(6 \times 10^8 \, \text{W/m}^2\) falls normally on the object and it is absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on the object would be (speed of light in free space = \(3 \times 10^8\) m/s) :

  • (1) \(36 \, \text{Nm}^{-2}\)
  • (2) \(18 \, \text{Nm}^{-2}\)
  • (3) \(6 \, \text{Nm}^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(2 \, \text{Nm}^{-2}\)

Question 47:

The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is :
[Use universal gas constant (R)= 8.31 J/mole K]

  • (1) 6232.5 J
  • (2) 6845.5 J
  • (3) 5942.0 J
  • (4) 5670.5 J

Question 48:

The truth table of the given circuit diagram is :
Circuit Diagram

  • (1)
    Option 1
  • (2)
    Option 2
  • (3)
    Option 3
  • (4)
    Option 4

Question 49:

A current of 200 \(\mu A\) deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through \(60^{\circ}\). The current to cause deflection through \(\frac{\pi}{10}\) radian is :

  • (1) 30 \(\mu A\)
  • (2) 120 \(\mu A\)
  • (3) 60 \(\mu A\)
  • (4) 180 \(\mu A\)

Question 50:

Wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure the specific resistance \( (S_1) \) of a given wire, having length \( L \), radius \( r \). If \( X \) is the resistance of the wire, then specific resistance is: \[ S_1 = X\left( \frac{\pi r^2}{L} \right). \] If the length of the wire gets doubled, then the value of specific resistance will be: 

  • (1) \( \frac{S_1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( 2S_1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{S_1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( S_1 \)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm, both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity of sound is ________ m/s.


Question 52:

A series LCR circuit with \( L = \frac{100}{\pi} \) mH, \( C = \frac{10^{-3}}{\pi} \) F and \( R = 10 \, \Omega \) is connected across an AC source of 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The power factor of the circuit would be _____.


Question 53:

Two charges of \( -4 \, \mu C \) and \( +4 \, \mu C \) are placed at the points \( A(1, 0, 4) \, m \) and \( B(2, -1, 5) \, m \) located in an electric field \( \vec{E} = 0.20 \, \hat{i} \, V / cm \). The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is \( 8\sqrt{\alpha} \times 10^{-5} \, Nm \), where \( \alpha = \, \).


Question 54:

A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the ratio of their kinetic energies is \( \frac{7}{x} \) where \( x \) is \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Question 55:

A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of upper point A from the starting point is ________ m (use g = 10 ms–2)


Question 56:

The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus \( (z = 50) \) of radius \( 9 \times 10^{-13} \) cm is \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \)\(\times 10^{6} V\).


Question 57:

The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop formed by two semicircular wires of radii \( R_1 = 2\pi \, m \) and \( R_2 = 4\pi \, m \) carrying current \( I = 4A \) as per figure given below is \( \alpha \times 10^{-7} \, T \). The value of \( \alpha \) is ______. (Centre O is common for all segments)


Question 58:

A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 •Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of ________ (degree).


Question 59:

The reading of pressure metre attached with a closed pipe is \( 4.5 \times 10^4 \, N/m^2 \). On opening the valve, water starts flowing and the reading of pressure metre falls to \( 2.0 \times 10^4 \, N/m^2 \). The velocity of water is found to be \( \sqrt{V} \, m/s \). The value of \( V \) is _____.


Question 60:

If Rydberg’s constant is \( R \), the longest wavelength of radiation in Paschen series will be \( \frac{\alpha}{7R} \), where \( \alpha = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Identity the incorrect pair from the following:

  • (1) Photography - AgBr
  • (2) Polythene preparation – TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
  • (3) Haber process - Iron
  • (4) Wacker process – Pt Cl2

Question 62:

The order of relative stability of the contributing structure is:
Chemical reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) \(I >II >III\)
  • (2) \(II >I >III\)
  • (3) \(I = II = III\)
  • (4) \(III >II >I\)

Question 63:

Products for the below reaction are:
CCH3CH3CH3O

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)

Question 64:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only –2 oxidation state.
Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 65:

The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substance is:

  • (1) Fractional distillation
  • (2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure
  • (3) Distillation
  • (4) Steam distillation

Question 66:

Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?

  • (1) Primary
  • (2) Secondary
  • (3) Tertiary
  • (4) Quaternary

Question 67:

Identify B formed in the reaction.
\[ \text{Cl} - \text{(CH}_2\text{)}_4 - \text{Cl} \xrightarrow{\text{excess NH}_3} A \xrightarrow{\text{NaOH}} B + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{NaCl} \]

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2) \[ \text{H}_2\text{N} - \text{(CH}_2\text{)}_4 - \text{NH}_2 \]
  • (3) \[ \text{ClNH}_3 - \text{(CH}_2\text{)}_4 - \text{NH}_3\text{Cl}^- \]
  • (4)
    Fig 2

Question 68:

Identify the following species in which \(d^2sp^3\) hybridization is shown by the central atom.

  • (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
  • (2) SF6
  • (3) BrF5
  • (4) [PtCl4]2-

Question 69:

Phenolic group can be identified by a positive

  • (1) Lucas test
  • (2) Carbylamine test
  • (3) Phthalein test
  • (4) Tollen's test

Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II.
Reaction & Reagent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Question 71:

Which among the following halide/s will not show S\(_N\)1 reaction:
Problem Fig
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (B) only

Question 72:

Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?

  • (1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeling off.
  • (2) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron does not take place.
  • (3) Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2
  • (4) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.

Question 73:

Which of the following can not act as an oxidising agent?

  • (1) MnO4-
  • (2) SO2-
  • (3) N3-
  • (4) BrO3-

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 75:

Choose the correct option having all the elements with \( d^{10} \) electronic configuration from the following:

  • (1) \( {}^{27}\text{Co}, {}^{28}\text{Ni}, {}^{26}\text{Fe}, {}^{24}\text{Cr} \)
  • (2) \( {}^{29}\text{Cu}, {}^{30}\text{Zn}, {}^{48}\text{Cd}, {}^{47}\text{Ag} \)
  • (3) \( {}^{46}\text{Pd}, {}^{28}\text{Ni}, {}^{26}\text{Fe}, {}^{24}\text{Cr} \)
  • (4) \( {}^{28}\text{Ni}, {}^{24}\text{Cr}, {}^{26}\text{Fe}, {}^{29}\text{Cu} \)

Question 76:

The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:

  • (1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations
  • (2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is \(60\degree\)
  • (3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation.
  • (4) The conformations of ethane are inter convertible to one-another.

Question 77:

The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is:
Chemical Reaction

  • (1) \( \text{Ph} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3 \)
  • (2) Option 2
  • (3)
    Option 3
  • (4) \( \text{Ph} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{OH} \)

Question 78:

Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)\(_2\) is:

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 79:

The quantity which changes with temperature:

  • (1) Mole fraction
  • (2) Mass Percentage
  • (3) Molarity
  • (4) Molality

Question 80:

The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of monocarboxylic acid is

  • (1) \( \text{C}_2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \)
  • (2) \( \text{CH}_2\text{O} \)
  • (3) \( \text{C}_2\text{H}_4\text{O}_2 \)
  • (4) \( \text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{O}_2 \)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3>to get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = __________


Question 82:

\(\text{The Spin only magnetic moment value of square planar complex } [\text{Pt(NH}_3\text{)}_2\text{Cl(NH}_2\text{CH}_3\text{)}]\text{Cl is } \_\_\_\_\_\_ \text{ B.M. (Nearest integer)}\)
\(\text{(Given atomic number for Pt = 78)}\)


Question 83:

Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon atoms from following is ________.
Chiral carbon atoms
\(\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH(NO}_2\text{) - COOH}\)
\(\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CHBr - CH}_2 - \text{CH}_3\)
\(\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH(I) - CH}_2 - \text{NO}_2\)
\(\text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH(OH) - CH}_2\text{OH}\)Compound


Question 84:

\(\text{Time required for completion of 99.9\% of a first order reaction is \_\_\_\_\_\_ times of half life } (t_{1/2}) \text{ of the reaction.}\)


Question 85:

\(\text{The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at } 25^{\circ}\text{C. The potential of the electrode will be } -\_\_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-2} \text{ V.}\)
\(\left( \frac{2.303RT}{F} = 0.059 \, \text{V} \right)\)


Question 86:

\(\text{The number of non-polar molecules from the following is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)
\(\text{HF, H}_2\text{O, SO}_2, \, \text{H}_2, \, \text{CO}_2, \, \text{CH}_4, \, \text{NH}_3, \, \text{HCl, CHCl}_3, \, \text{BF}_3\)


Question 87:

\(9.3 \, \text{g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100\% completed is } \_\_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-1} \, \text{g.}\)
\(\text{(Given molar mass in g mol}^{-1}\text{) N: 14, O: 16, C: 12, H: 1}\)


Question 88:

\(\text{Volume of } 3 \, \text{M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol}^{-1}\text{) which can be prepared from } 84 \, \text{g of NaOH is } \_\_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-1} \, \text{dm}^3.\)


Question 89:

\(\text{Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)
\(\text{Sr}^{2+} \, (Z = 38), \, \text{Cs}^{+} \, (Z = 55), \, \text{La}^{2+} \, (Z = 57), \, \text{Pb}^{2+} \, (Z = 82), \, \text{Yb}^{2+} \, (Z = 70), \, \text{and} \, \text{Fe}^{2+} \, (Z = 26)\)


Question 90:

\(\text{For a certain thermochemical reaction } \text{M} \rightarrow \text{N at } T = 400 \, \text{K}, \, \Delta H^\circ = 77.2 \, \text{kJ mol}^{-1}, \, \Delta S = 122 \, \text{JK}^{-1},\)
\(\text{log equilibrium constant (log K) is } - \_\_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-1}.\)

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 2 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

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Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
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Chemistry
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JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

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