JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on January 30, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a function defined by
\[ f(x) = \frac{x}{(1 + x^4)^{1/4}} \]
and \( g(x) = f(f(f(x))) \). Then
\[ 18 \int_{\sqrt[3]{\frac{8}{3}}}^{\sqrt[3]{\frac{4}{3}}} x^3 g(x) \, dx \]
equals: 

  • (1) 33
  • (2) 36
  • (3) 42
  • (4) 39

Question 2:

Let \( a \) and \( b \) be two distinct positive real numbers. Let the 11th term of a GP, whose first term is \( a \) and third term is \( b \), be equal to the \( p \)-th term of another GP, whose first term is \( a \) and fifth term is \( b \). Then \( p \) is equal to

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 18

Question 3:

Let \( y = f(x) \) be a thrice differentiable function in \( (-5, 5) \). Let the tangents to the curve \( y = f(x) \) at \( (1, f(1)) \) and \( (3, f(3)) \) make angles \( \frac{\pi}{6} \) and \( \frac{\pi}{4} \), respectively, with the positive x-axis. If \(2 \int_{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}^{1} \left( \left( f'(t) \right)^2 + 1 \right) f''(t) \, dt = \alpha + \beta \sqrt{3}\) where \( \alpha \), \( \beta \) are integers, then the value of \( \alpha + \beta \) equals

  • (1) -14
  • (2) 26
  • (3) -16
  • (4) 36

Question 4:

For \( \alpha, \beta \in \left( 0, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \), let \( 3 \sin(\alpha + \beta) = 2 \sin(\alpha - \beta) \) and a real number \( k \) be such that \( \tan \alpha = k \tan \beta \). Then the value of \( k \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( -\frac{2}{3} \)
  • (2) –5
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (4) 5

Question 5:

If \( z \) is a complex number, then the number of common roots of the equation \( z^{1985} + z^{100} + 1 = 0 \) and \( z^3 + 2z^2 + 2z + 1 = 0 \), is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 6:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} - \{0\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a function satisfying\[f\left( \frac{x}{y} \right) = \frac{f(x)}{f(y)}\]for all \( x, y \), \( f(y) \neq 0 \). If \( f'(1) = 2024 \),then

  • (1) \( x f'(x) - 2024 f(x) = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x f'(x) + 2024 f(x) = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x f'(x) + f(x) = 2024 \)
  • (4) \( x f'(x) - 2023 f(x) = 0 \)

Question 7:

Let \(R=\begin{pmatrix}x&0&0\\0&y&0\\0&0&z\end{pmatrix}\) be a non-zero \(3\times3\) matrix, where \(x\sin\theta=y\sin\left(\theta+\dfrac{2\pi}{3}\right)=z\sin\left(\theta+\dfrac{4\pi}{3}\right)\ne0,\ \theta\in(0,2\pi)\). For a square matrix \(M\), let trace \((M)\) denote the sum of all the diagonal entries of \(M\). Then, among the statements:
(I) Trace \((R)=0\)
(II) If trace \((\operatorname{adj}(\operatorname{adj}(R)))=0\), then \(R\) has exactly one non-zero entry.

  • (1) Only (I) is true
  • (2) Only (II) is true
  • (3) Both (I) and (II) are true
  • (4) Neither (I) nor (II) is true

Question 8:

If \(x^2-y^2+2hxy+2gx+2fy+c=0\) is the locus of points such that it is equidistant from the lines \(x+2y-8=0\) and \(2x+y+7=0\), then value of \(g+c+h-f\) is

  • (1) 29
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 8

Question 9:

Let \( a \) and \( b \) be real constants such that the function \( f \) defined by \[f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 + 3x + a, & x \leq 1 \\ bx + 2, & x>1 \end{cases}\]be differentiable on \( \mathbb{R} \). Then, the value of \( \int_{-2}^{2} f(x) \, dx \) equals

  • (1) \( \frac{15}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{19}{6} \)
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 17

Question 10:

Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be defined \( f(x) = ae^{2x} + be^x + cx \). If \( f(0) = -1 \), \( f'(\log_e 2) = 21 \) and
\[\int_{0}^{\log_e 4} (f(x) - cx) \, dx = \frac{39}{2}\]
then the value of \( |a + b + c| \) equals:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 8

Question 11:

Let \( L_1 : \vec{r} = (\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) + \lambda (\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \), \( \lambda \in \mathbb{R} \)
\( L_2 : \vec{r} = (\hat{j} - \hat{k}) + \mu (3\hat{i} + \hat{j} + p\hat{k}) \), \( \mu \in \mathbb{R} \) and
\( L_3 : \vec{r} = \delta (\ell \hat{i} + m \hat{j} + n \hat{k}) \), \( \delta \in \mathbb{R} \)
Be three lines such that \( L_1 \) is perpendicular to \( L_2 \) and \( L_3 \) is perpendicular to both \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \). Then the point which lies on \( L_3 \) is

  • (1) \((-1, 7, 4)\)
  • (2) \((-1, -7, 4)\)
  • (3) \((1, 7, -4)\)
  • (4) \((1, -7, 4)\)

Question 12:

Let \( \vec{a} = \hat{i} + \alpha \hat{j} + \beta \hat{k} \), \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R} \). Let a vector \( \vec{b} \) be such that the angle between \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \) is \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) and \( |\vec{b}|^2 = 6 \),
If \( \vec{a} \times\vec{b} = 3\sqrt{2} \), then the value of \( \left( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 \right) | \vec{a} \times \vec{b} |^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 90
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 95
  • (4) 85

Question 13:

Let \( P \) be a point on the hyperbola \( H: \frac{x^2}{9} - \frac{y^2}{4} = 1 \), in the first quadrant such that the area of the triangle formed by \( P \) and the two foci of \( H \) is \( 2 \sqrt{13} \). Then, the square of the distance of \( P \) from the origin is

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 26
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 20

Question 14:

Let \( f(x) = (x + 3)^2 (x - 2)^3 \), \( x \in [-4, 4] \). If \( M \) and \( m \) are the maximum and minimum values of \( f \), respectively in \([-4, 4]\), then the value of \( M - m \) is:

  • (1) 600
  • (2) 392
  • (3) 608
  • (4) 108

Question 15:

Suppose \( 2 - p \), \( p \), \( 2 - \alpha \), \( \alpha \) are the coefficients of four consecutive terms in the expansion of \( (1 + x)^n \). Then the value of \( p^2 - \alpha^2 + 6\alpha + 2p \) equals

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 6

Question 16:

Consider the system of linear equations
x + y + z = 5,
x + 2y + λ2z = 9,
x + 3y + λz = μ,
where λ, μ ∈ ℝ.Then, which of the following statement is NOT correct?

  • (1) System has infinite number of solutions if λ = 1 and μ = 13
  • (2) System is inconsistent if λ = 1 and μ ≠ 13
  • (3) System is consistent if λ ≠ 1 and μ = 13
  • (4) System has a unique solution if λ ≠ 1 and μ ≠ 13

Question 17:

Let \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \) be two vectors such that \( |\vec{b}| = 1 \) and \( |\vec{b} \times \vec{a}| = 2 \). Then \( \left| (\vec{b} \times \vec{a}) - \vec{b} \right|^2 \) is equal to

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4

Question 18:

If the domain of the function \( f(x) = \log_e \left( \frac{2x + 3}{4x^2 + x - 3} \right) + \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{2x - 1}{x + 2} \right) \) is \( (\alpha, \beta] \), then the value of \( 5\beta - 4\alpha \) is equal to

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 9

Question 19:

Bag A contains 3 white, 7 red balls and bag B contains 3 white, 2 red balls. One bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. The probability of drawing the ball from bag A, if the ball drawn is white, is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{10} \)

Question 20:

Let \( A(10, 0) \) and \( B(0, \beta) \) be the points on the line \( 5x + 7y = 50 \). Let the point \( P \) divide the line segment \( AB \) internally in the ratio \( 7 : 3 \). Let \( 3x - 25 = 0 \) be a directrix of the ellipse \( E : \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) and the corresponding focus be \( S \). If from \( S \), the perpendicular on the x-axis passes through \( P \), then the length of the latus rectum of \( E \) is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{25}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{32}{9} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{32}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{25}{9} \)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

In an examination of Mathematics paper, there are 20 questions of equal marks and the question paper is divided into three sections : A, B and C . A student is required to attempt total 15 questions taking at least 4 questions from each section. If section A has 8 questions, section B has 6 questions and section C has 6 questions, then the total number of ways a student can select 15 questions is _______ .


Question 22:

Let \( Y = Y(X) \) be a curve lying in the first quadrant such that the area enclosed by the line \( Y - y = Y'(x) (X - x) \) and the coordinate axes, where \( (x, y) \) is any point on the curve, is always\[\frac{-y^2}{2Y'(x)} + 1, \quad Y'(x) \neq 0.\]If \( Y(1) = 1 \), then \( 12Y(2) \) equals ______.


Question 23:

The number of real solutions of the equation\[x \left( x^2 + 3|x| + 5|x - 1| + 6|x - 2| \right) = 0\]is ______.


Question 24:

Consider two circles \( C_1 : x^2 + y^2 = 25 \) and \( C_2 : (x - \alpha)^2 + y^2 = 16 \), where \( \alpha \in (5, 9) \). Let the angle between the two radii (one to each circle) drawn from one of the intersection points of \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) be\[\sin^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{63}}{8} \right).\]If the length of the common chord of \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) is \( \beta \), then the value of \( (\alpha \beta)^2 \) equals ____.


Question 25:

Let a line passing through the point \((-1, 2, 3)\) intersect the lines\( L_1 : \frac{x - 1}{3} = \frac{y - 2}{2} = \frac{z + 1}{-2} \) at \( M(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) and\( L_2 : \frac{x + 2}{-3} = \frac{y - 2}{-2} = \frac{z - 1}{4} \) at \( N(a, b, c) \).Then the value of \( \frac{(\alpha + \beta + \gamma)^2}{(a + b + c)^2} \) equals ____.


Question 26:

The variance \(\sigma^2\) of the data


Is _______.

 


Question 27:

The area of the region enclosed by the parabola \((y - 2)^2 = x - 1\), the line \(x - 2y + 4 = 0\) and the positive coordinate axes is ______.


Question 28:

The number of symmetric relations defined on the set {1, 2, 3, 4} which are not reflexive is _____.


Question 29:

Let \( \alpha = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \left( \frac{\binom{n}{k}}{k+1} \right)^2 \) and \( \beta = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \left( \frac{\binom{n}{k} \binom{n}{k+1}}{k+2} \right) \).
If \( 5\alpha = 6\beta \), then \( n \) equals __________.


Question 30:

Let \( S_n \) be the sum to \( n \)-terms of an arithmetic progression \( 3, 7, 11, \ldots \).
If \( 40 < \left( \frac{6}{n(n+1)} \sum_{k=1}^{n} S_k \right) <42 \), then \( n \) equals ___.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions of a travelling microscope and one smallest reading of the main scale is 0.5 mm, the Vernier constant of the travelling microscope is:

  • (1) 0.01 mm
  • (2) 0.1 mm
  • (3) 0.1 cm
  • (4) 0.01 cm

Question 32:

An electron revolving in the \( n^{th} \) Bohr orbit has magnetic moment \( \mu \). If \( \mu_n \) is the value of \( \mu \), the value of \( x \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 0

Question 33:

In the given circuit, the voltage across load resistance (\( R_L \)) is:

  • (1) 8.75 V
  • (2) 9.00 V
  • (3) 8.50 V
  • (4) 14.00 V

Question 34:

An alternating voltage \( V(t) = 220 \sin 100 \pi t \) volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 \( \Omega \). The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:

  • (1) 5 ms
  • (2) 3.3 ms
  • (3) 7.2 ms
  • (4) 2.2 ms

Question 35:

Choose the correct statement for processes A & B shown in figure.

  • (1) \( PV^n = k \) for process B and \( PV = k \) for process A.
  • (2) \( PV = k \) for process B and A.
  • (3) \( P^{n-1} = k \) for process B and \( T^n = k \) for process A.
  • (4) \( T^n P^{n-1} = k \) for process A and \( PV = k \) for process B.

Question 36:

A block of mass m is placed on a surface having vertical cross section given by \(y=\frac{x^2}{4}\). If coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which block can be placed without slipping is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} m \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} m \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{6} m \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{3} m \)

Question 37:

Ice at temperature –10°C is converted to steam at 100°C, the curve plotted between temperature (T) and time (t) when it is being heated by constant power source is

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 38:

When a potential difference V is applied across a wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a rate W. If the wire is cut into two halves and these halves are connected mutually parallel across the same supply, the same supply, the energy dissipation rate will become:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}W\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}W\)
  • (3) 4W
  • (4) 2W

Question 39:

Match List I with List II
Table
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 40:

In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass \( M \), three similar daughter nuclei of the same mass are formed. The speed of a daughter nuclei in terms of mass defect \( \Delta M \) will be:

  • (1) \( c \sqrt{\frac{c \Delta M}{M}} \)
  • (2) \( c \sqrt{\frac{2 \Delta M}{M}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\Delta M c^2}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{2c \Delta M}{M}} \)

Question 41:

For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy \( E_k \) of the photoelectrons is plotted against the frequency \( \nu \) of the incident photons as shown in figure. The slope of the graph gives

  • (1) Planck’s constant
  • (2) Charge of electron
  • (3) Work function of the metal
  • (4) Ratio of Planck’s constant to electric charge

Question 42:

A beam of unpolarised light of intensity \( I_0 \) is passed through a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A. The intensity of emergent light is:

  • (1) \(\frac{I_0}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{I_0}{2\sqrt2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{I_0}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{I_0}{8}\)

Question 43:

\(\text{If three moles of monoatomic gas } \left( \gamma = \frac{5}{3} \right) \text{ is mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas } \left( \gamma = \frac{7}{5} \right),\)\(\text{the value of adiabatic exponent } \gamma \text{ for the mixture is:}\)

  • (1) 1.75
  • (2) 1.4
  • (3) 1.52
  • (4) 1.35

Question 44:

Three blocks A, B and C are pulled on a horizontal smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in figure
3 blocks
The tensions T1 and T2 in the string are respectively:

  • (1) 40N, 64N
  • (2) 60N, 80N
  • (3) 88N, 96N
  • (4) 80N, 100N

Question 45:

A particle of charge \(-q\) and mass \(m\) moves in a circle of radius \(r\) around an infinitely long line charge of linear density \(+\lambda\). Then the time period will be given as:

  • (1) \( T = 2\pi r \sqrt{\frac{m}{2kq}} \)
  • (2) \( T^2 = \frac{4\pi m r^3}{2kq} \)
  • (3) \( T = \frac{1}{2\pi r} \sqrt{\frac{m}{2kq}} \)
  • (4) \( T = \frac{2kq}{m} \)

Question 46:

Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s. If the radius of a planet be one-third the radius of earth and mass be one-sixth that of earth, the escape velocity from the planet is:

  • (1) 11.2 km/s
  • (2) 8.4 km/s
  • (3) 4.2 km/s
  • (4) 7.9 km/s

Question 47:

Projectiles A and B are thrown at angles of \(45^{\circ}\) and \(60^{\circ}\) with vertical respectively from top of a \(400\ m\) high tower. If their ranges and times of flight are same, the ratio of their speeds of projection \(v_A:v_B\) is :
[Take \(g=10\ ms^{-2}\)]

  • (1) \(1:2\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt2:1\)
  • (3) \(1:\sqrt2\)
  • (4) \(1:\sqrt3\)

Question 48:

If the total energy transferred to a surface in time \( t \) is \( 6.48 \times 10^5 \, \text{J} \), then the magnitude of the total momentum delivered to this surface for complete absorption will be :

  • (1) \( 2.16 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{kg m/s} \)
  • (2) \( 2.46 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{kg m/s} \)
  • (3) \( 1.58 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{kg m/s} \)
  • (4) \( 4.32 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{kg m/s} \)

Question 49:

If mass is written as \( m = k c^P G^{-1/2} h^{1/2} \), then the value of \( P \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( -\frac{1}{3} \)

Question 50:

A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60° by a force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface as shown in the figure. When the block is pushed up by 10 m along the inclined surface, the work done against frictional force is:

A block of mass 1 kg
  • (1) \( \sqrt{5} \, J \)
  • (2) \( 5 \times 10^3 \, J \)
  • (3) 5J
  • (4) \( 10 \, J \)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small identical drops of water. If E1 be the total surface energy of 1000 small drops of water and E2 be the surface energy of single big drop of water, the E1 : E2 is x : 1 where x = ________.


Question 52:

A power transmission line feeds input power at 2.3 kV to a step down transformer with its primary winding having 3000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. The current in the primary of the transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90%. The winding of transformer is made of copper. The output current of transformer is_____A.


Question 53:

The current of 5 A flows in a square loop of sides 1 m placed in air. The magnetic field at the center of the loop is \(X\sqrt{2} \times 10^{-7} \, T\). The value of X = _________.
A square loop of side 1 m


Question 54:

Two discs of moment of inertia \( I_1 = 4 \, kg \, m^2 \) and \( I_2 = 2 \, kg \, m^2 \) about their central axes and normal to their planes, rotating with angular speeds \( 10 \, rad/s \) and \( 4 \, rad/s \) respectively are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident. The loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process is __________ J.


Question 55:

A point source is emitting sound waves of intensity \( 16 \times 10^{-8} \, Wm^{-2} \) at the origin. The difference in intensity (magnitude only) at two points located at distances of 2 m and 4 m from the origin respectively will be _____ \( \times 10^{-8} \, Wm^{-2} \).


Question 56:

Two resistances of 100Ω and 200Ω are connected in series with a battery of 4V and negligible internal resistance. A voltmeter is used to measure voltage across the 100Ω resistance, which gives a reading of 1V. The resistance of the voltmeter must be _____ Ω.


Question 57:

Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle of 37° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.7 g/cm3, the angle remains the same. If the density of the material of the sphere is 1.4 g/cm3, the dielectric constant of the liquid is ___________. (tan 37° =\( \frac{3}{4}\))


Question 58:

A simple pendulum is placed at a place where its distance from the earth's surface is equal to the radius of the earth. If the length of the string is 4 m, then the time period of small oscillations will be _____ s. [take \( g = \pi^2 \, m/s^2 \)]


Question 59:

In an experiment to measure the focal length (f) of a convex lens, the magnitude of object distance (x) and the image distance (y) are measured with reference to the focal point of the lens. The y-x plot is shown in figure.
The focal length of the lens is_____cm.


Question 60:

A vector has magnitude same as that of A = \(-3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}\) and is parallel to B = \(4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}\). The x and y components of this vector in the first quadrant are x and y respectively where:

\(x = \_\_\_\_\).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

The products A and B formed in the following reaction scheme are respectively
Product formation

  • (1)
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 62:

The correct stability order of carbocations is

  • (1) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^+ \gt \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH}_2 \gt (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}^+ \gt \text{CH}_3\)
  • (2)
    Option 3
  • (3) Option 2
  • (4)
    Option 4

Question 63:

Which among the following purification methods is based on the principle of “Solubility” in two different solvents?

  • (1) Column Chromatography
  • (2) Sublimation
  • (3) Differential Extraction
  • (4) Distillation

Question 64:

IUPAC name of following compound is
Chemical compound

  • (1) 2-Aminopentanitrile
  • (2) 3-Aminobutanenitrile
  • (3) 2-Aminobutanitrile
  • (4) 3-Aminopropanenitrile

Question 65:

The solution from the following with highest depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is

  • (1) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
  • (2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
  • (3) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water
  • (4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water

Question 66:

Statement I: Since fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF3 is greater than NH3.
Statement II: In NH3, the orbital dipole due to the lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are in opposite directions, but in NF3, the orbital dipole due to the lone pair and the dipole moments of N-F bonds are in the same direction.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (3) Both statement I and Statement II is are true.
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is are true.

Question 67:

\(\text{A and B formed in the following reactions are:}\) \[ \text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2 + 4\text{NaOH} \rightarrow \text{A} + 2\text{NaCl} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} \] \[ \text{A} + 2\text{HCl} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{B} + 3\text{H}_2\text{O} \]

  • (1) \(\text{A} = \text{Na}_2\text{CrO}_4, \, \text{B} = \text{CrO}_3\)
  • (2) \(\text{A} = \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_4, \, \text{B} = \text{CrO}_4\)
  • (3) \(\text{A} = \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7, \, \text{B} = \text{CrO}_3\)
  • (4) \(\text{A} = \text{Na}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7, \, \text{B} = \text{CrO}_5\)

Question 68:

If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in a solution of a mixture of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective number of moles as \(n_a\), \(n_b\), and \(n_c\), the mole fraction of C in the solution is:

  • (1) \(\frac{n_C}{n_A + n_B + n_C}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{n_C}{n_A \times n_B \times n_C}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{n_C}{n_A - n_B - n_C}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n_B}{n_A + n_B}\)

Question 69:

Which of the following has a square pyramidal shape?

  • (1) PCI5
  • (2) BrF5
  • (3) PF5
  • (4) [Ni(CN)4]2-

Question 70:

Statement I: High concentration of strong nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides which do not have bulky substituents will follow \(S_N2\) mechanism.

Statement II: A secondary alkyl halide when treated with a large excess of ethanol follows \(S_N1\) mechanism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the questions given below:

  • (1) Both statements are true
  • (2) Statement I is true, II is false
  • (3) Both statements are false
  • (4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

Question 71:

\(\text{Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements.}\)
A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order \(\text{NH}_3 > \text{PH}_3 > \text{AsH}_3 > \text{SbH}_3 > \text{BiH}_3\)
B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases in the order \(\text{NH}_3 < \text{PH}_3 < \text{AsH}_3 < \text{SbH}_3 < \text{BiH}_3\)
C. Among the hydrides, \(\text{NH}_3\) is a strong reducing agent while \(\text{BiH}_3\) is a mild reducing agent.
D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the order \(\text{NH}_3 < \text{PH}_3 < \text{AsH}_3 < \text{SbH}_3 < \text{BiH}_3\)
Choose the most appropriate from the option given below:

  • (1) B and C only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) A and D only

Question 72:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: H2Te is more acidic than H2S.

Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te is lower than H2S.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

  • (1) A is true but R is false.
  • (2) A is false but R is true.
  • (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 73:

Alkaline oxidative fusion of \(MnO_2\) gives “A” which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution produces B. A and B respectively are:

  • (1) Mn\(_2\)O\(_7\) and MnO\(_4^-\)
  • (2) MnO\(_4^{2-}\) and MnO\(_4^-\)
  • (3) Mn\(_2\)O\(_3\) and MnO\(_4^{2-}\)
  • (4) MnO\(_4^{2-}\) and Mn\(_2\)O\(_7\)

Question 74:

Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when reacted with

  • (1) HCl, NaOH
  • (2) CO2 , NaOH
  • (3) CCl4 , NaOH
  • (4)
    Chemical compound

Question 75:

m–chlorobenzaldehyde on treatment with 50\(\%\) KOH solution yields

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 76:


Product A and B formed in the following set of reactions are:

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 77:

\(\text{The orange colour of } \text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7 \text{ and purple colour of KMnO}_4 \text{ is due to}\)

  • (1) d\(\rightarrow\)d transition in K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) and charge transfer transitions in KMnO\(_4\).
  • (2) d\(\rightarrow\)d transition in KMnO\(_4\) and charge transfer transitions in K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\).
  • (3) Charge transfer transition in both.
  • (4) d\(\rightarrow\)d transition in both.

Question 78:

The coordination geometry around the manganese in decacarbonyldimanganese(0) is

  • (1) Octahedral
  • (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
  • (3) Square pyramidal
  • (4) Square planar

Question 79:

\(\text{Reduction potential of ions are given below:}\)
\[ \begin{array}{ccc} \text{ClO}_4^- & \text{IO}_4^- & \text{BrO}_4^- \\ E^\circ = 1.19 \, \text{V} & E^\circ = 1.65 \, \text{V} & E^\circ = 1.74 \, \text{V} \\ \end{array} \]
The correct order of their oxidising power is:

  • (1) \(\text{ClO}_4^- \gt \text{IO}_4^- \gt \text{BrO}_4^-\)
  • (2) \(\text{BrO}_4^- \gt \text{IO}_4^- \gt \text{ClO}_4^-\)
  • (3) \(\text{BrO}_4^- \gt \text{ClO}_4^- \gt \text{IO}_4^-\)
  • (4) \(\text{IO}_4^- \gt \text{BrO}_4^- \gt \text{ClO}_4^-\)

Question 80:

Statement I: Along the period, the chemical reactivity of the element gradually increases from group 1 to group 18.
Statement II: The nature of oxides formed by group 1 element is basic while that of group 17 elements is acidic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the questions given below:

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
  • (2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
  • (3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
  • (4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The total number of correct statements, regarding the nucleic acids is_________.
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information.
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell division.
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
D. The message for the synthesis of particular proteins is present in DNA.
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to daughter cells.


Question 82:

Number of metal ions characterized by flame test among the following is _______.
\(\text{Sr}^{2+}, \text{Ba}^{2+}, \text{Ca}^{2+}, \text{Cu}^{2+}, \text{Zn}^{2+}, \text{Co}^{2+}, \text{Fe}^{2+}\)


Question 83:

Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra, when an electron makes transition from fifth excited state to first excited state will be __________.


Question 84:

Total number of species from the following which can undergo disproportionation reaction _______.
\(\text{H}_2\text{O}_2, \text{ClO}_3^-, \text{P}_4, \text{Cl}_2, \text{Ag}, \text{Cu}^{+1}, \text{F}_2, \text{NO}_2, \text{K}^+\)


Question 85:

Number of geometrical isomers possible for the given structure is/are ___________.
geometrical isomers


Question 86:

\(\text{The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1 M benzoic acid (} pK_a = 4.20 \text{) and 1 M sodium benzoate is 4.5.}\)
\(\text{The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution is \_\_\_\_\_\_ mL.}\)


Question 87:

\(\text{NO}_2 \text{ required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ in } \text{CCl}_4 \text{ as by equation}\)
\[ 2\text{N}_2\text{O}_{5(g)} \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_{2(g)} + \text{O}_{2(g)} \]
\(\text{The initial concentration of } \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \text{ is } 3 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ and it is } 2.75 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ after 30 minutes.}\)
\(\text{The rate of formation of } \text{NO}_2 \text{ is } x \times 10^{-3} \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1} , \text{ value of } x \text{ is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)


Question 88:

\(\text{Number of complexes which show optical isomerism among the following is \_\_\_\_\_\_.}\)
\[ \text{cis}-[\text{Cr(ox)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^{3-}, \quad [\text{Co(en)}_3]^{3+}, \] \[ \text{cis}-[\text{Pt(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^{2+}, \quad \text{cis}-[\text{Co(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^{+}, \] \[ \text{trans}-[\text{Pt(en)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^{2+}, \quad \text{trans}-[\text{Cr(ox)}_2\text{Cl}_2]^{3-} \]


Question 89:

\(\text{2-chlorobutane} + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow \text{C}_4\text{H}_8\text{Cl}_2 \, (\text{isomers})\)
\(\text{Total number of optically active isomers shown by} \, \text{C}_4\text{H}_8\text{Cl}_2, \, \text{obtained in the above reaction is} \, \_\_\_\_\_\_.\)


Question 90:

\(\text{Two reactions are given below:}\) \[ 2\text{Fe}_{(s)} + \frac{3}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_{3(s)}, \Delta H^\circ = -822 \, \text{kJ/mol} \] \[ \text{C}_{(s)} + \frac{1}{2}\text{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \text{CO}_{(g)}, \Delta H^\circ = -110 \, \text{kJ/mol} \] \(\text{Then enthalpy change for the following reaction}\) \[ 3\text{C}_{(s)} + \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_{3(s)} \rightarrow 2\text{Fe}_{(s)} + 3\text{CO}_{(g)} \]

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 30 Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc. after the conclusion of the exam.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper