JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 25 Shift 1- Download PDF

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 25 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can download JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper PDF with Answer Key for Jan 25 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main Chemistry Question Paper is divided into two sections, Section A with 20 MCQs and Section B with 10 numerical type questions. Candidates are required to answer all questions from Section A and any 5 questions from section B.

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 25 Shift 1- Download PDF

JEE Main 2023 25 Jan Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF	Download	Check Solution

Question 1:

The compound which will have the lowest rate towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution on treatment with OH$^-$ is:

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 2:

The variation of the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction with substrate concentration is correctly represented by which graph?

Options:

1. a

2. b.

3. c.

4. d.

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 3:

Identify the product formed (A and E) in the following reaction sequence:

\

(A) \
(B) \
(C) \
(D)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 4:

Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View Solution

Question 5:

Reaction of thionyl chloride with white phosphorus forms a compound \textbf{[A]}, which on hydrolysis gives \textbf{[B]}, a dibasic acid. \textbf{[A]} and \textbf{[B]} are respectively:

(A) P$_4$O$_6$ and H$_3$PO$_3$ \
(B) PCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_3$ \
(C) PCl$_5$ and H$_3$PO$_4$ \
(D) POCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_4$

Correct Answer: (2) PCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_3$ \
View Solution

Question 6:

A cubic solid is made up of two elements X and Y. Atoms of X are present on every alternate corner and one at the center of the cube. Y is at $\frac{1}{4}$ of the total faces. The empirical formula of the compound is:

(A) X$_2$Y$_1._5$ \
(B) X$_2._5$Y \
(C) XY$_2._5$ \
(D) X$_1._5$Y$_2$

Correct Answer: (2) X$_2._5$Y \
View Solution

Question 7:

The radius of the 2$^{nd}$ orbit of Li$^{2+}$ is x. The expected radius of the 3$^{rd}$ orbit of Be$^{3+}$ is:

(A) $\frac{9}{4}x$
(B) $\frac{4}{9}x$
(C) $\frac{27}{16}x$
(D) $\frac{16}{27}x$

Correct Answer: (3) $\frac{27}{16}x$
View Solution

Question 8:

Which of the following conformations will be the most stable?

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution

Question 9:

Match items of Row I with those of Row II:
Row I:

Row II:

(A) [(i)] $\alpha$-D-(-)-Fructofuranose
(B) [(ii)] $\beta$-D-(-)-Fructofuranose
(C) [(iii)] $\alpha$-D-(+)-Glucopyranose
(D) [(iv)] $\beta$-D-(+)-Glucopyranose
Correct Match:
(A) (1) P $\to$ iv, Q $\to$ iii, R $\to$ i, S $\to$ ii \
(B) (2) P $\to$ i, Q $\to$ ii, R $\to$ iii, S $\to$ iv \
(C) (3) P $\to$ iii, Q $\to$ iv, R $\to$ ii, S $\to$ i \
(D) (4) P $\to$ iii, Q $\to$ iv, R $\to$ i, S $\to$ ii

Correct Answer:(D) (4) P $\to$ iii, Q $\to$ iv, R $\to$ i, S $\to$ ii

View Solution

- (P): $\alpha$-D-(+)-Glucopyranose (iii): This structure has the -OH group at C1 in the $\alpha$-position (below the plane) in the six-membered pyranose ring.\\ - (Q): $\beta$-D-(+)-Glucopyranose (iv): This structure has the -OH group at C1 in the $\beta$-position (above the plane) in the six-membered pyranose ring.\\ - (R): $\alpha$-D-(-)-Fructofuranose (i): This structure is a five-membered fructofuranose ring with the $\alpha$-configuration (OH group at C2 below the plane).\\ - (S): $\beta$-D-(-)-Fructofuranose (ii): This structure is a five-membered fructofuranose ring with the $\beta$-configuration (OH group at C2 above the plane).\\ Thus, the correct matching is: \[ \text{P $\to$ iii, Q $\to$ iv, R $\to$ i, S $\to$ ii.} \] 1. Glucose exists in both pyranose ($\text{six-membered}$) and furanose ($\text{five-membered}$) forms. Pyranose forms are more stable.\\ 2. $\alpha$ and $\beta$ forms differ in the configuration of the hydroxyl group at the anomeric carbon (C1 for glucose and C2 for fructose).\\ 3. Fructose predominantly forms five-membered furanose rings due to its keto group.\\

Question 10:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: Acetal/Ketal is stable in basic medium.
Reason R: The high leaving tendency of alkoxide ion gives the stability to acetal/ketal in basic medium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Correct Answer:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 11:

Inert gases have positive electron gain enthalpy. Its correct order is:

(A) Xe $<$ Kr $<$ Ne $<$ He
(B) He $<$ Ne $<$ Kr $<$ Xe
(C) He $<$ Xe $<$ Kr $<$ Ne
(D) He $<$ Kr $<$ Xe $<$ Ne

Correct Answer: (C) He $<$ Xe $<$ Kr $<$ Ne
View Solution

Question 12:

12. Which one of the following reactions does not occur during the extraction of copper?

(A) 2Cu$_2$S + 3O$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2Cu$_2$O + 2SO$_2$
(B) 2FeS + 3O$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2FeO + 2SO$_2$
(C) CaO + SiO$_2$ $\rightarrow$ CaSiO$_3$
(D) FeO + SiO$_2$ $\rightarrow$ FeSiO$_3$

Correct Answer:(C) CaO + SiO$_2$ $\rightarrow$ CaSiO$_3$
View Solution

Question 13:

13. The correct sequence of reagents for the preparation of Q and R is:

(A) (i) CrO$_3$, 770 K, 20 atm; (ii) CrO$_2$Cl$_2$, H$^+$; (iii) NaOH; (iv) H$_3$O$^+$
(B) (i) CrO$_2$Cl$_2$, H$_3$O$^+$; (ii) CrO$_3$, 770 K, 20 atm; (iii) NaOH; (iv) H$_3$O$^+$
(C) (i) KMnO$_4$, OH$^{--}$; (ii) MoO$_3$, $\Delta$; (iii) NaOH; (iv) H$_3$O$^+$
(D) (i) MoO$_3$, $\Delta$; (ii) CrO$_2$Cl$_2$, H$_3$O$^+$; (iii) NaOH; (iv) H$_3$O$^+$

Correct Answer:(A) (i) CrO$_3$, 770 K, 20 atm; (ii) CrO$_2$Cl$_2$, H$^+$; (iii) NaOH; (iv) H$_3$O$^+$

View Solution

The reaction sequence involves:
Step 1: Oxidation of benzene to benzoquinone using CrO$_3$ at 770 K and 20 atm.
Step 2: Formation of phenol by further oxidation with CrO$_2$Cl$_2$ in acidic medium.
Step 3: Neutralization with NaOH to form phenoxide ion.
Step 4: Acidification with H$_3$O$^+$ to yield phenol. In the preparation of phenol from benzene, the use of CrO$_3$ and CrO$_2$Cl$_2$ ensures selective oxidation steps. Acidic and basic conditions aid in subsequent transformations.

Question 14:

The correct order in aqueous medium of basic strength in case of methyl-substituted amines is:

(A) Me$_2$NH $>$ MeNH$_2$ $>$ Me$_3$N $>$ NH$_3$
(B) Me$_2$N $>$ Me$_3$NH $>$ MeNH$_2$ $>$ NH$_3$
(C) NH$_3$ $>$ Me$_3$N $>$ MeNH$_2$ $>$ Me$_2$NH
(D) Me$_3$N $>$ Me$_2$NH $>$ MeNH$_2$ $>$ NH$_3$

Correct Answer:(A) Me$_2$NH $>$ MeNH$_2$ $>$ Me$_3$N $>$ NH$_3$
View Solution

Question 15:

25-volume hydrogen peroxide means:

(A) 1 L marketed solution contains 250 g of H$_2$O$_2$
(B) 1 L marketed solution contains 75 g of H$_2$O$_2$
(C) 1 L marketed solution contains 25 g of H$_2$O$_2$
(D) 1 L marketed solution contains 25 g of H$_2$O

Correct Answer:(B) 1 L marketed solution contains 75 g of H$_2$O$_2$
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following statements is incorrect for antibiotics?

(A) An antibiotic must be a product of metabolism.
(B) An antibiotic is a synthetic substance produced as a structural analogue of naturally occurring antibiotic.
(C) An antibiotic should promote the survival of microorganisms.
(D) An antibiotic should be effective in low concentrations.

Correct Answer: (C) An antibiotic should promote the survival of microorganisms.
View Solution

Question 17:

Compound A reacts with NH$_3$Cl and forms B and C. Compound B reacts with H$_2$O and CO$_2$ to form C. The compounds A, B, and C are:

(A) CaCl$_2$, NH$_3$, NH$_4$HCO$_3$
(B) CaCl$_2$, NH$_4$$^+$, (NH$_4$)$_2$CO$_3$
(C) Ca(OH)$_2$, NH$_3$, NH$_4$HCO$_3$
(D) Ca(OH)$_2$, NH$_4$$^+$, (NH$_4$)$_2$CO$_3$

Correct Answer: (C) Ca(OH)$_2$, NH$_3$, NH$_4$HCO$_3$
View Solution

Question 18:

Some reactions of NO$_2$ relevant to photochemical smog formation are:

Identify A, B, X, and Y:

(A) X = O, Y = NO, A = O$_2$, B = O$_3$
(B) X = N$_2$O, Y = O, A = O$_3$, B = NO
(C) X = $ \frac{1}{2}$ O$_2$, Y = NO$_2$, A = O$_3$, B = O$_2$
(D) X = NO, Y = O, A = O$_2$, B = N$_2$O$_3$

Correct Answer: (A) X = O, Y = NO, A = O$_2$, B = O$_3$
View Solution

Question 19:

Match the List-I with List-II:

(1) P$\to$ i, Q$\to$ iii, R$\to$ ii, S$\to$ iv
(2) P$\to$ iv, Q$\to$ ii, R$\to$ iii, S$\to$ i
(3) P$\to$ iii, Q$\to$ i, R$\to$ iv, S$\to$ ii
(4) P$\to$ i, Q$\to$ iii, R$\to$ iv, S$\to$ ii

Correct Answer: (4) P$\to$ i, Q$\to$ iii, R$\to$ iv, S$\to$ ii
View Solution

Question 20:

In the cumene to phenol preparation in the presence of air, the intermediate is:

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 21:

An athlete is given 100 g of glucose (C$_6$H$_12$O$_6$) for energy, which is equivalent to 1800 kJ of energy. If 50% of this energy is utilized for activities, the weight of extra water needed to perspire is ______ g. (Nearest integer)

Given: Enthalpy of evaporation of water = 45 kJ/mol; molar masses: C = 12 g/mol, H = 1 g/mol, O = 16 g/mol.

Correct Answer: 360
View Solution

Question 22:

A litre of buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of each NH$_3$ and NH$_4$Cl. On addition of 0.02 mole of HCl, the pH of the solution is found to be ______ $\times 10^{-3}$ (Nearest integer).

Given: pK$_b$(NH$_3$) = 4.745; $\log 2 = 0.301$; $\log 3 = 0.477$; T = 298 K.

Correct Answer: (9079)
View Solution

Question 23:

The osmotic pressure of solutions of PVC in cyclohexanone at 300 K are plotted on the graph. The molar mass of PVC is ______ g mol$^{-1}$ (Nearest integer).

Given: R = 0.083 L atm K$^{-1}$ mol$^{-1}$

Correct Answer: 41500
View Solution

Question 24:

How many of the following metal ions have a similar value of spin-only magnetic moment in the gaseous state?
\[ V$^{3+$, Cr$^{3+}$, Fe$^{2+}$, Ni$^{3+}$} \]

Given: Atomic numbers: V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26, Ni = 28.

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 25:

The density of a monobasic strong acid (Molar mass 24.2 g mol$^{-1}$) is 1.21 kg L$^{-1}$. The volume of its solution required for the complete neutralization of 25 mL of 0.24 M NaOH is ______ $\times 10^{-3}$ mL (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer: (12)
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Question 26:

For the first-order reaction $A \rightarrow B$, the half-life is 30 min. The time taken for 75% completion of the reaction is _______ min (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer: (60)
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Question 27:

The total number of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen atoms of ozone is _______.

Correct Answer: (6)
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Question 28:

In sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic compound gave 1.4439 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the compound is _______ (Nearest Integer).

Given: Atomic masses: Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16.

Correct Answer: (42)
View Solution

Question 29:

The number of paramagnetic species from the following is _______.
\[ [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}, [Ni(CO)_4], [NiCl_4]^{2-}, [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}, [Cu(NH_3)_4]^{2+}, [Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+} \]

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 30:

Consider the cell:
\[ Pt(s)|H_2(g)(1 atm)|H^{+}(aq,1 M)||Fe^{3+}(aq),Fe^{2+}(aq)|Pt(s) \]

Given: $E^\circ_{Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}} = 0.771 \, V, \, E^\circ_{H^+/H_2} = 0 \, V, \, T = 298 \, K$.

If the potential of the cell is 0.712 V, the ratio of concentration of $Fe^{2+}$ to $Fe^{3+}$ is _______ (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer: (10)
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JEE Main Answer Key 2023	JEE Main Cut off 2023

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Analysis Jan 25 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis for Chemistry paper conducted on January 25 Shift 1 is updated here. Candidates can check the topics with the highest weightage, difficulty level and memory-based Chemistry questions using the link below.

JEE Main 2023 Paper Analysis Jan 25 Shift 1 *(Out)*

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature	Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode	Computer-based Test
Exam Language	13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Exam Duration	3 hours
Sectional Time Limit	None
Chemistry Marks	100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked	20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered	20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
Marking Scheme	+4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking	-1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Pattern	JEE Main Chapter-wise Weightage

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Jan 25 Shift 1- Download PDF