JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on January 27, 2024, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 January 27 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Evaluate the integral  \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{\sqrt{3+x} + \sqrt{1+x}} \, dx\) Given that the integral can be expressed in the form \(a + b\sqrt{2} + c\sqrt{3}\), where \(a, b, c\) are rational numbers, find the value of \(2a + 3b - 4c\).

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( 10 \)
  • (3) \( 7 \)
  • (4) \( 8 \)

Question 2:

If \(S = \{z \in C : |z – i| = |z + i| = |z–1|\}\), then, n(S) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 3:

Let \( S = \{ 1, 2, 3, \ldots, 10 \} \). Suppose \( M \) is the set of all the subsets of \( S \), then the relation \( R = \{ (A, B): A \cap B \neq \phi; A, B \in M \} \) is:

  • (1) symmetric and reflexive only
  • (2) reflexive only
  • (3) symmetric and transitive only
  • (4) symmetric only

Question 4:

If the shortest distance of the parabola \(y^{2}=4x\) from the centre of the circle \(x² + y² - 4x - 16y + 64 = 0\) is d, then d2 is equal to:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 20

Question 5:

If \( (a, b) \) be the orthocenter of the triangle whose vertices are \( (1, 2) \), \( (2, 3) \), and \( (3, 1) \), and \( I_1 = \int_a^b x \sin(4x - x^2) dx \), \( I_2 = \int_a^b \sin(4x - x^2) dx \), then \( 36 \frac{I_1}{I_2} \) is equal to:

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 88
  • (3) 66
  • (4) 72

Question 6:

Let \( x = x(t) \) and \( y = y(t) \) be solutions of the differential equations \( \frac{dx}{dt} + ax = 0 \) and \( \frac{dy}{dt} + by = 0 \) respectively, \( a, b \in \mathbb{R} \). Given \( x(0) = 2 \), \( y(0) = 1 \), and \( 3y(1) = 2x(1) \), the value of t for which \( x(t) = y(t) \), is:

  • (1) \( \log_{ \frac{2}{3}}2 \)
  • (2) \( \log_{4} 3 \)
  • (3) \( \log_{3} 4 \)
  • (4) \(\log_4{{\frac{2}{3}}} \)

Question 7:

The distance of the point \( (7, -2, 11) \) from the line \( \frac{x - 6}{1} = \frac{y - 4}{0} = \frac{z - 8}{3} \) along the line \( \frac{x - 5}{2} = \frac{y - 1}{-3} = \frac{z - 5}{6} \), is:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 21

Question 8:

The length of the chord of the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{25} + \frac{y^2}{16} = 1\), whose mid-point is \(\left(1, \frac{2}{5}\right)\), is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{1691}}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{2009}}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{1741}}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{1541}}{5}\)

Question 9:

Consider the function.\(f(x) = \begin{cases}  \frac{a(7x - 12 - x^2)}{b(x^2 - 7x + 12)} & , \quad x < 3 \\[8pt] \frac{\sin(x - 3)}{2^{x - \lfloor x \rfloor}} & , \quad x > 3 \\[8pt] b & , \quad x = 3  \end{cases}\)Where \(\lfloor x \rfloor\)denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\). If \(S\) denotes the set of all ordered pairs \((a, b)\) such that \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x = 3\), then the number of elements in \(S\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) Infinitely many
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 1

Question 10:

If \( a = \lim_{{x \to 0}} \frac{\sqrt{1 + \sqrt{1 + x^4}} - \sqrt{2}}{x^4} \) and \( b = \lim_{{x \to 0}} \frac{\sin^2 x}{\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{1 + \cos x}} \), then the value of \( ab^3 \) is:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 30

Question 11:

Consider the matrix \( f(x) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos x & -\sin x & 0 \\ \sin x & \cos x & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \).
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: \( f(-x) \) is the inverse of the matrix \( f(x) \).
Statement II: \( f(x) f(y) = f(x + y) \).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:"

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 12:

Four distinct points \( (2k, 3k), (1, 0), (0, 1) \) and \( (0, 0) \) lie on a circle for \( k \) equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{13}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{13}\)

Question 13:

If the shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x - 4}{1} = \frac{y + 1}{2} = \frac{z}{-3} and \frac{x - \lambda}{2} = \frac{y + 1}{4} = \frac{z - 2}{-5}\) is \(\frac{6}{\sqrt{5}}\), then the sum of all possible values of \(\lambda\) is:

  • (1) \( 5 \)
  • (2) \( 8 \)
  • (3) \( 7 \)
  • (4) \( 10 \)

Question 14:

The portion of the line \( 4x + 5y = 20 \) in the first quadrant is trisected by the lines \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) passing through the origin. The tangent of an angle between the lines \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{25}{41}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{30}{41}\)

Question 15:

\(^{n-1}C_r = (k^2 - 8)  ^{n}C_{r+1}\) if and only if:

  • (1) \( 2\sqrt{2} < k ≤ 3 \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{3} < k ≤ 3\sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 2\sqrt{3} < k <3 \sqrt{3} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2} < k < 2\sqrt{3} \)

Question 16:

The number of common terms in the progressions 4, 9, 14, 19, ...,up to 25th term and 3, 6, 9, 12, ..., up to 37th term is:

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8

Question 17:

Let \( a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_{10} \) be 10 observations such that   \(\sum_{k=1}^{10} a_k = 50 \quad \text{and} \quad \sum_{1 \leq k < j \leq 10} a_k \cdot a_j = 1100\). Then the standard deviation of \( a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_{10} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 5 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) \( 10 \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{15} \)

Question 18:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + \hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 3(\hat{i} - \hat{j} + \hat{k})\). Let \(\vec{c}\) be the vector such that \(\vec{a} \times \vec{c} = \vec{b}\) and \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c} = 3\). Then \(\vec{a} \cdot ((\vec{c} \times \vec{b}) - \vec{b} \cdot \vec{c})\) is equal to:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 36

Question 19:

If \( A \) denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of \( (1 - 3x + 10x^2)^n \) and \( B \) denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of \( (1 + x^2)^n \), then:

  • (1) \( A = B^3 \)
  • (2) \( 3A = B \)
  • (3) \( B = A^3 \)
  • (4) \( A = 3B \)

Question 20:

The function \( f : \mathbb{N} - \{1\} \to \mathbb{N} \); defined by \( f(n) \) = the highest prime factor of \( n \), is:

  • (1) both one-one and onto
  • (2) one-one only
  • (3) onto only
  • (4) neither one-one nor onto

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

If \( 8 = 3 + \frac{1}{4}(3 + p) + \frac{1}{4^2}(3 + 2p) + \frac{1}{4^3}(3 + 3p) + \ldots \infty \), then the value of \( p \) is ______.


Question 22:

If the solution of the differential equation \((2x + 3y - 2) \, dx + (4x + 6y - 7) \, dy = 0, \quad y(0) = 3,\) is  \(\alpha x + \beta y + 3 \log_e |2x + 3y - \gamma| = 6,\) then \(\alpha + 2\beta + 3\gamma\) is equal to ____.


Question 23:

Let \( f(x) = x^3 + x^2 f'(1) + x f''(2) + f'''(3) \), \( x \in \mathbb{R} \). Then \( f'(10) \) is equal to ______.


Question 24:

Let the set of all \( a \in \mathbb{R} \) such that the equation \(\cos 2x + a \sin x = 2a - 7\) has a solution be \([p, q]\) and \( r = \tan 9^\circ - \tan 27^\circ - \frac{1}{\cot 63^\circ + \tan 81^\circ} \), then \( pqr \) is equal to ______.


Question 25:

Let for a differentiable function \(f : (0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\), \(f(x) - f(y) \geq \log_e \left( \frac{x}{y} \right) + x - y, \quad \forall \; x, y \in (0, \infty).\) 
Then \(\sum_{n=1}^{20} f'\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) is equal to ____.


Question 26:

Let the area of the region \(\{(x, y) : x - 2y + 4 \geq 0, x + 2y^2 \geq 0, x + 4y^2 \leq 8, y \geq 0\}\) be \(\frac{m}{n}\), where \( m \) and \( n \) are coprime numbers. Then \( m + n \) is equal to ______.


Question 27:

Let \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \), \( B = [B_1, B_2, B_3] \), where \( B_1, B_2, B_3 \) are column matrices, and \( AB_1 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \), \( AB_2 = \begin{bmatrix} 2 \\ 3 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \), \( AB_3 = \begin{bmatrix} 3 \\ 2 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} \).
If \(\alpha = |B|\) and \(\beta\) is the sum of all the diagonal elements of B, then \(\alpha^3 + \beta^3\) is equal to _____.


Question 28:

The least positive integral value of \( \alpha \), for which the angle between the vectors \( \alpha \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 2\hat{k} \) and \( \alpha \hat{i} + 2\alpha \hat{j} - 2\hat{k} \) is acute, is ______.


Question 29:

If \(\alpha\) satisfies the equation \(x^2 + x + 1 = 0\) and \((1 + \alpha)^7 = A + B \alpha + C \alpha^2\), \(A, B, C \geq 0\), then \(5(3A - 2B - C)\) is equal to ______.


Question 30:

A fair die is tossed repeatedly until a six is obtained. Let X denote the number of tosses required and let \(a=P(X=3), b=P(X≥3)\), and \(( c = P(X \geq 6|X>3).\) Then \(\frac{b+c}{a}\) is equals to ____.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Position of an ant \( S \) (in meters) moving in the Y-Z plane is given by \( S = 2t \hat{j} + 5t \hat{k} \) (where \( t \) is in seconds). The magnitude and direction of velocity of the ant at \( t = 1 \, s \) will be:

  • (1) 16 m/s in y-direction
  • (2) 4 m/s in x-direction
  • (3) 9 m/s in z-direction
  • (4) 4 m/s in y-direction

Question 32:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids. 
Statement (II): Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble impurities. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 33:

If the refractive index of the material of a prism is \(cot\bigg(\frac{A}{2}\bigg)\), where A is the angle of the prism, then the angle of minimum deviation will be:

  • (1) \(π-3A\)
  • (2) \(π-2A\)
  • (3) \(A\)
  • (4) \(\frac{A}{2}\)

Question 34:

A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its velocity. If \( \vec{E} \) and \( \vec{B} \) represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, then the region of space may have:
(A) \( \vec{E} = 0, \vec{B} = 0 \) 
(B) \( \vec{E} = 0, \vec{B} \neq 0 \) 
(C) \( \vec{E} \neq 0, \vec{B} = 0 \) 
(D) \( \vec{E} \neq 0, \vec{B} \neq 0 \) 
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 35:

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g. If the diameter of earth reduces to half of its original value and mass remains constant, then acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth would be:

  • (1) g/4
  • (2) 4g
  • (3) g/2
  • (4) 2g

Question 36:

A train is moving with a speed of 12 m/s on rails which are 1.5 m apart. To negotiate a curve radius of 400 m, the height by which the outer rail should be raised with respect to the inner rail is (Given, \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)):

  • (1) 6.0 cm
  • (2) 5.4 cm
  • (3) 4.8 cm
  • (4) 4.2 cm

Question 37:

Which of the following circuits is reverse-biased?

  • (1) Circ. 1
  • (2)
    Circ. 2
  • (3)
    Circ. 3
  • (4)
    Circ. 4

Question 38:

Identify the physical quantity that cannot be measured using a spherometer:

  • (1) Radius of curvature of concave surface
  • (2) Specific rotation of liquids
  • (3) Thickness of thin plates
  • (4) Radius of curvature of convex surface

Question 39:

Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitude of their linear momentum is:

  • (1) 3:5
  • (2) 2:5
  • (3) 5:4
  • (4) 4:5

Question 40:

0.08 kg of air is heated at constant volume through 5°C. The specific heat of air at constant volume is 0.17 kcal/kg°C and \( J = 4.18 \) joule/cal. The change in its internal energy is approximately:

  • (1) 318 J
  • (2) 298 J
  • (3) 284 J
  • (4) 142 J

Question 41:

The radius of the third stationary orbit of an electron in Bohr's atom is \( R \). The radius of the fourth stationary orbit will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3} R\)
  • (2) \(\frac{16}{9} R\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4} R\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{16} R\)

Question 42:

A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m is placed at 60° to a magnetic field of 4 T. The loop is removed from the field in 10 sec. The average emf induced in the loop during this time is:

  • (1) -2V
  • (2) \(+2V\)
  • (3) \(+ 1V\)
  • (4) – 1V

Question 43:

An electric charge \(10^{-6} \, \mu C\) is placed at the origin (0, 0) of an X-Y coordinate system. Two points P and Q are situated at \((\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{3}) \, \text{mm}\) and \((\sqrt{6}, 0) \, \text{mm}\) respectively. The potential difference between the points P and Q will be:

  • (1) 0 V
  • (2) \( \sqrt{6} \) V
  • (3) \(\sqrt{3} \) V
  • (4) 3 V

Question 44:

A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an image of an extended source of light on a photo-electric cell. A current \( I \) is produced. The lens is replaced by another convex lens having the same diameter but focal length 20 cm. The photoelectric current now is:

  • (1) \( \frac{I}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 4 I \)
  • (3) 2 I
  • (4) \( I \)

Question 45:

A body of mass 1000 kg is moving horizontally with a velocity of 6 m/s. If 200 kg extra mass is added, the final velocity (in m/s) is:

  • (1) 5 m/s
  • (2) 4 m/s
  • (3) 2 m/s
  • (4) 6 m/s

Question 46:

A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction is described by \( E_y = (200 \, \text{V/m}) \sin(1.5 \times 10^7 t - 0.05 x) \). The intensity of the wave is:

  • (1) 35.4 W/m²
  • (2) 53.1 W/m²
  • (3) 26.6 W/m²
  • (4) 106.2 W/m²

Question 47:

Given below are two statements: 
Statement (I): Planck's constant and angular momentum have the same dimensions. 
Statement (II): Linear momentum and moment of force have the same dimensions. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 48:

A wire of length 10 cm and radius \( \sqrt{7} \times 10^{-4} \, m \) is connected across the right gap of a meter bridge. When a resistance of 4.5 \( \Omega \) is connected on the left gap by using a resistance box, the balance length is found to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the wire is \( R \times 10^{-7} \, \Omega \, m \), then the value of \( R \) is:

  • (1) 63
  • (2) 70
  • (3) 66
  • (4) 35

Question 49:

A wire of resistance \( R \) and length \( L \) is cut into 5 equal parts. If these parts are joined in parallel, then the resultant resistance will be:

  • (1) 5 R
  • (2) 25 R
  • (3) \( \frac{R}{25} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{R}{5} \)

Question 50:

The average kinetic energy of a monatomic molecule is 0.414 eV at temperature: (Use \( k_B = 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \, \text{J/mol-K} \))

  • (1) 3000 K
  • (2) 3200 K
  • (3) 1600 K
  • (4) 1500 K

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A particle starts from origin at \( t = 0 \) with a velocity \( 5\hat{i} \, \text{m/s} \) and moves in the \( x\)-\( y \) plane under the action of a force that produces a constant acceleration of \( (3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}) \, \text{m/s}^2 \). If the \( x \)-coordinate of the particle at that instant is 84 m, then the speed of the particle at this time is \( \sqrt{\alpha} \, \text{m/s} \). The value of \( \alpha \) is ______.


Question 52:

A thin metallic wire having a cross-sectional area of \( 10^{-4} \, \text{m}^2 \) is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm. A positive charge of \( 2\pi \, C \) is uniformly distributed over the ring, while another positive charge of 30 pC is kept at the center of the ring. The tension in the ring is ______ N; provided that the ring does not deform (neglect the influence of gravity).
(Given, \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{SI units}\))


Question 53:

Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the relation \( i = i_0 \sin \omega t \), where \( i_0 = 5 \, \text{A} \) and \( \omega = 50\pi \, \text{rad/s} \). The maximum value of emf in the second coil is \( \frac{\pi}{\alpha} \). The value of \( \alpha \) is ______.


Question 54:

Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices \( \frac{8}{5} \) and \( \frac{3}{2} \) respectively are put in a beaker as shown in the figure. The height of each column is 6 cm. A coin is placed at the bottom of the beaker. For near-normal vision, the apparent depth of the coin is \( \frac{\alpha}{4} \) cm. The value of \( \alpha \) is ______.


Question 55:

In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide (A ≈ 236) with binding energy 7.6 MeV/Nucleon dissociated into middle mass nuclides (A ≈ 118), having binding energy of 8.6 MeV/Nucleon. The energy released in the process would be ____ MeV.


Question 56:

Four particles each of mass 1 kg are placed at four corners of a square of side 2 m. Moment of inertia of system about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its vertices is _____ kgm2.
Problem figure


Question 57:

A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position, the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is \( \sqrt{\alpha} \) cm, where \(\alpha\) = ______


Question 58:

Two long, straight wires carry equal currents in opposite directions as shown in figure. The separation between the wires is 5.0 cm. The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point P midway between the wires is ____ μT
(Given: \(\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{TmA}^{-1}\))
Straight wire


Question 59:

The charge accumulated on the capacitor connected in the following circuit is ____ µC
(Given \( C = 150 \, \mu \text{F} \))
Capacitor


Question 60:

If the average depth of an ocean is 4000 m and the bulk modulus of water is \( 2 \times 10^9 \, \text{N/m}^2 \), then the fractional compression \( \frac{\Delta V}{V} \) of water at the bottom of the ocean is \( \alpha \times 10^{-2} \). The value of \( \alpha \) is ______ (Given \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( p = 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \)).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage known as:

  • (1) Disulphide linkage
  • (2) Glycosidic linkage
  • (3) Phosphodiester linkage
  • (4) Peptide linkage

Question 62:

Highest enol content will be shown by:

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 63:

Element not showing variable oxidation state is:

  • (1) Chlorine
  • (2) Fluorine
  • (3) Bromine
  • (4) Iodine

Question 64:

Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 65:

Which of the following electronic configurations would be associated with the highest magnetic moment?

  • (1) \([Ar] 3d^7\)
  • (2) \([Ar] 3d^8\)
  • (3) \([Ar] 3d^2\)
  • (4) \([Ar] 3d^6\)

Question 66:

Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?

  • (1) acidic hydrogen
  • (2) acidic hydrogen
  • (3) acidic hydrogen
  • (4) acidic hydrogen

Question 67:

A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult's law will have:

  • (1) Increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
  • (2) Increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
  • (3) Decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
  • (4) Decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point

Question 68:

Consider the following complex ions:
P = \([FeF_6]^{3-}\) 
Q = \([V(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\) 
R = \([Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\) 
The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin-only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is:

  • (1) R < Q < P
  • (2) R < P < Q
  • (3) Q < R < P
  • (4) Q < P < R

Question 69:

Choose the polar molecule from the following:

  • (1) \(CH_2=CH_2\)
  • (2) \(CHCl_3\)
  • (3) \(CCl_4\)
  • (4) \(CO_2\)

Question 70:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The 4f and 5f-series of elements are placed separately in the Periodic table to preserve the principle of classification.
Statement (II): s-block elements can be found in pure form in nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 71:

Given below are two statements: 
Statement (I): p-nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol. 
Statement (II): Ethanol will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 72:

The ascending order of acidity of –OH group in the following compounds is: 
–OH group
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) \( (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)\)
  • (2) \( (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)\)
  • (3) \( (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)\)
  • (4) \( (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)\)

Question 73:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Melting point of Boron (2453 K) is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R): Solid Boron has a very strong crystalline lattice. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 74:

Cyclohexene Cyclohexeneis _________ type of an organic compound.

  • (1) Alicyclic
  • (2) Acyclic
  • (3) Benzenoid non-aromatic
  • (4) Benzenoid aromatic

Question 75:

Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product of lead formed is a:

  • (1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination number six
  • (2) Neutral complex with coordination number four
  • (3) Dianionic complex with coordination number six
  • (4) Dianionic complex with coordination number four

Question 76:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.
Statement (II): Acidic/basic nature of salt solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on \( K_a \) and \( K_b \) value of acid and the base forming it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 77:

IUPAC name of the following compound (P) is:
P compound

  • (1) 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
  • (2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
  • (3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
  • (4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane

Question 78:

NaCl reacts with conc. \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \) to give reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are:

  • (1) \(CrO_2Cl_2, Na_2CrO_4\)
  • (2) \(Na_2CrO_4, CrO_2Cl_2\)
  • (3) \(CrO_2Cl_2, KHSO_4\)
  • (4) \(CrO_2Cl_2, Na_2Cr_2O_7\)

Question 79:

The correct statement regarding nucleophilic substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is:

  • (1) Retention occurs in \(SN_1\) reaction and inversion occurs in \( SN_2 \) reaction.
  • (2) Racemisation occurs in \( SN_1 \) reaction and retention occurs in \( SN_2 \) reaction.
  • (3) Racemisation occurs in both \( SN_1 \) and \( SN_2 \) reactions.
  • (4) Racemisation occurs in \( S_N1 \) reaction and inversion occurs in \( S_N2 \) reaction.

Question 80:

The electronic configuration of Neodymium (60) Nd is

  • (1) \([Xe] 4f^46s^2\)
  • (2) \([Xe] 5f^1\)
  • (3) \([Xe] 4f^26s^2\)
  • (4) \([Xe] 5f^44d^1\)

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol–1 ) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be _____ g.


Question 82:

Consider the following data for the given reaction
 \(2\)\(\text{HI}_{(g)}\) \(\rightarrow\) \(\text{H}_2{(g)}\)\( + \)\(\text{I}_2{(g)}\)

The order of the reaction is __________.


Question 83:

Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO2​ after complete combustion is ______ g.
(Given Molar mass in g mol−1: C=12.0, H=1.0, O=16.0).


Question 84:

If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand isothermally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a constant opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the amount of heat transferred is ______ J.


Question 85:

3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence of peroxide forms an addition product (A). The number of possible stereoisomers for 'A' is ______.


Question 86:

Among the given organic compounds, the total number of aromatic compounds is
aromatic compounds


Question 87:

Among the following, total number of meta directing functional groups is (Integer based) \(−OCH_3​, −NO_2​, −CN, −CH_3​, −NHCOCH_3​, −COR, −OH, −COOH, −Cl\).


Question 88:

The number of electrons present in all the completely filled subshells having n=4 and s=+½​ is _____. (Where n = principal quantum number and s = spin quantum number).


Question 89:

Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is _____.


Question 90:

From the given list, the number of compounds with +4 oxidation state of Sulphur_____.
\(SO_3​, H_2​SO_3​, SOCl_2​, SF_4​, BaSO_4​, H_2​S_2​O_7\)​.

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 27 Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is available here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc. after the conclusion of the exam.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
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