JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on January 30, 2024, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 January 30 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let \( g : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a non-constant twice differentiable function such that \( g'\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = g'\left(\frac{3}{2}\right) \). If a real-valued function \( f \) is defined as \[ f(x) = \frac{1}{2} \left[ g(x) + g(2 - x) \right], \] then

  • (1) \( f''(x) = 0 \) for at least two \( x \) in \( (0, 2) \)
  • (2) \( f''(x) = 0 \) for exactly one \( x \) in \( (0, 1) \)
  • (3) \( f''(x) = 0 \) for no \( x \) in \( (0, 1) \)
  • (4) \( f'\left(\frac{3}{2}\right) + f'\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = 1 \)

Question 2:

The value of \(\lim_{{n \to \infty}} \sum_{{k=1}}^{n} \frac{n^3}{{(n^2 + k^2)(n^2 + 3k^2)}}\) is 

  • (1) \( \frac{13\pi}{8(4\sqrt{3} + 3)} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{(2\sqrt{3} + 3) \pi}{24} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{13(2\sqrt{3} - 3) \pi}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{8(2\sqrt{3} + 3)} \)

Question 3:

If the circles \( (x+1)^2 + (y+2)^2 = r^2 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 4y + 4 = 0 \) intersect at exactly two distinct points, then

  • (1) \( 3 < r < 7 \)
  • (2) \( 0 < r < 7 \)
  • (3) \( 5 < r < 9 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} < r < 7 \)

Question 4:

Let \( \vec{a} = a_1 \hat{i} + a_2 \hat{j} + a_3 \hat{k} \) and \( \vec{b} = b_1 \hat{i} + b_2 \hat{j} + b_3 \hat{k} \) be two vectors such that \( |\vec{a}| = 1 \), \( \vec{a} \times \vec{b} = 2 \), and \( |\vec{b}| = 4 \). If \( \vec{c} = 2(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) - 3\vec{b} \), then the angle between \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \)
  • (4) \( \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) \)

Question 5:

The maximum area of a triangle whose one vertex is at \( (0, 0) \) and the other two vertices lie on the curve \( y = -2x^2 + 54 \) at points \( (x, y) \) and \( (-x, y) \) where \( y > 0 \) is:

  • (1) 88
  • (2) 108
  • (3) 92
  • (4) 122

Question 6:

If \[ f(x) = \begin{vmatrix} 2 \cos^4 x & 2 \sin^4 x & 3 + \sin^2 2x \\ 3 + 2 \cos^4 x & 2 \sin^4 x & \sin^2 2x \\ 2 \cos^4 x & 3 + 2 \sin^4 x & \sin^2 2x \end{vmatrix} \] then \( \frac{1}{5} f'(0) \) is equal to

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6

Question 7:

Let \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma\) be the foot of perpendicular from the point \((1, 2, 3)\) on the line \(\frac{x + 3}{5} = \frac{y - 1}{2} = \frac{z + 4}{3}\). Then \(19(\alpha + \beta + \gamma)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 102
  • (2) 101
  • (3) 99
  • (4) 100

Question 8:

A line passing through the point \( A(9, 0) \) makes an angle of \( 30^\circ \) with the positive direction of the x-axis. If this line is rotated about \( A \) through an angle of \( 15^\circ \) in the clockwise direction, then its equation in the new position is:

  • (1) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{3} + 2} + y = 9\)
  • (2) \(\frac{y}{\sqrt{3} - 2} + x = 9\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{3} + 2} + y = 9\)
  • (4) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{3} - 2} + y = 9\)

Question 9:

Consider the system of linear equations \( x + y + z = 4\mu \), \( x + 2y + 2\lambda z = 10\mu \), \( x + 3y + 4\lambda^2 z = \mu^2 + 15 \), where \( \lambda, \mu \in \mathbb{R} \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (1) The system has a unique solution if \( \lambda \neq \frac{1}{2} \) and \( \mu \neq 1, 15 \).
  • (2) The system has an infinite number of solutions if \( \lambda = \frac{1}{2} \) and \( \mu = 15 \).
  • (3) The system is inconsistent if \( \lambda = \frac{1}{2} \) and \( \mu \neq 1 \).
  • (4) The system is consistent if \( \lambda \neq \frac{1}{2} \).

Question 10:

Let \( f : \left[ -\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right] \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a differentiable function such that \( f(0) = \frac{1}{2} \). If the \( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\int_{0}^{x} f(t) \, dt}{e^{x^2} - 1} = \alpha \), then \( 8\alpha^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4

Question 11:

If the length of the minor axis of an ellipse is equal to half of the distance between the foci, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is.

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{17}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt 7}\)

Question 12:
Let M denote the median of the following frequency distribution.

\(x_i\)

\(f_i\)  

0 - 42
4 - 84
8 - 127
12 - 168
16 - 206
Then 20M is equal to:
  • (1) 416
  • (2) 104
  • (3) 52
  • (4) 208

Question 13:

Two integers \( x \) and \( y \) are chosen with replacement from the set \( \{0, 1, 2, 3, \ldots, 10\} \). Then the probability that \( |x - y| > 5 \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{30}{121} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{62}{121} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{60}{121} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{31}{121} \)

Question 14:

Let \( A (2, 3, 5) \) and \( C(-3, 4, -2) \) be opposite vertices of a parallelogram \( ABCD \). If the diagonal \( \overrightarrow{BD} = \hat{i} + 2 \hat{j} + 3 \hat{k} \), then the area of the parallelogram is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{410} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{474} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{586} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{306} \)

Question 15:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\sec(x) \frac{dy}{dx} + [2(1 - x) \tan(x) + x(2 - x)] = 0\) such that \(y(0) = 2\). Then \(y(2)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 2\(1 - sin2\)
  • (3) 2\(\sin(2) + 1\)
  • (4) 1

Question 16:

If \(z = x + iy, \quad xy \neq 0\) satisfies the equation \(z^2 + iz = 0\), then \(|z^2|\); equal to
 


Question 17:

If \( 2 \sin^3 x + \sin 2x \cos x + 4 \sin x - 4 = 0 \) has exactly 3 solutions in the interval \( \left[ 0, \frac{n \pi}{2} \right] \), \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), then the roots of the equation \( x^2 + nx + (n - 3) = 0 \) belong to:

  • (1) \( (0, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (-\infty, 0) \)
  • (3) \( \left( -\frac{\sqrt{17}}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{17}}{2} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \mathbb{Z} \)

Question 18:

If the domain of the function \[ f(x) = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{2 - |x|}{4} \right) + \left( \log_e (3 - x) \right)^{-1} \] is \([-\alpha, \beta) - \{ \gamma \}\), then \( \alpha + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 8

Question 19:

Let \( S_n \) denote the sum of the first \( n \) terms of an arithmetic progression. If \( S_{20} = 790 \) and \( S_{10} = 145 \), then \( S_{15} - S_5 \) is:

  • (1) 390
  • (2) 395
  • (3) 405
  • (4) 410

Question 20:

The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the parabola \(y^2 = 4(x - 2)\) and the line \(y = 2x - 8\) is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

A group of 40 students appeared in an examination of 3 subjects – Mathematics, Physics & Chemistry. It was found that all students passed in at least one of the subjects, 20 students passed in Mathematics, 25 students passed in Physics, 16 students passed in Chemistry, at most 11 students passed in both Mathematics and Physics, at most 15 students passed in both Physics and Chemistry, at most 15 students passed in both Mathematics and Chemistry. The maximum number of students passed in all the three subjects is ________.


Question 22:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \( (1 - x^2) \, dy = \left[ xy + \left( x^3 + 2 \right) \sqrt{3 \left( 1 - x^2 \right)} \right] dx \), \( -1 < x < 1, y(0) = 0 \). If \( y\left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = \frac{m}{n} \), \( m \) and \( n \) are coprime numbers, then \( m + n \) is equal to \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Question 23:

The value \( 9 \int_{0}^{9} \left\lfloor \frac{10x}{x+1} \right\rfloor \, dx \), where \( \left\lfloor t \right\rfloor \) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \( t \), is ________.


Question 24:

Let \( \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{N} \) be roots of the equation \( x^2 - 70x + \lambda = 0 \), where \( \frac{\lambda}{2}, \frac{\lambda}{3} \notin \mathbb{N} \). If \( \lambda \) assumes the minimum possible value, then \[ \frac{\left( \sqrt{\alpha - 1} + \sqrt{\beta - 1} \right)(\lambda + 35)}{|\alpha - \beta|} \] is equal to____.


Question 25:

Number of integral terms in the expansion of \( \left( \sqrt{7} z + \frac{1}{6 \sqrt{z}} \right)^{824} \) is equal to ______.


Question 26:

Let the latus rectum of the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{9} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) subtend an angle of \( \frac{\pi}{3} \) at the center of the hyperbola. If \( b^2 \) is equal to \( \frac{1}{m} \left( 1 + \sqrt{n} \right) \), where \( l \) and \( m \) are coprime numbers, then \( l^2 + m^2 + n^2 \) is equal to \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Question 27:

If \( d_1 \) is the shortest distance between the lines  \(\frac{x+1}{2} = \frac{y-1}{-12} = \frac{z-1}{-7} \quad \text{and} \quad \frac{x-1}{7} = \frac{y+8}{2} = \frac{z-4}{5},\) and \( d_2 \) is the shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{1} = \frac{z-6}{-3} \quad \text{and} \quad \frac{x+2}{1} = \frac{y+2}{2} = \frac{z-1}{6},\) then the value of \( \frac{32\sqrt{3}d_1}{d_2} \) is:


Question 28:

Let \( \alpha = 1^2 + 4^2 + 8^2 + 13^2 + 19^2 + 26^2 + \ldots \) up to 10 terms and \( \beta = \sum_{n=1}^{10} n^4 \). If \( 4\alpha - \beta = 55k + 40 \), then \( k \) is equal to \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Question 29:

Let \( A = \{1, 2, 3, \ldots, 7\} \) and let \( P(A) \) denote the power set of \( A \). If the number of functions \( f : A \rightarrow P(A) \) such that \( a \in f(a), \, \forall a \in A \) is \( m^n \), \( m \) and \( n \in \mathbb{N} \) and \( m \) is least, then \( m + n \) is equal to \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Question 30:

If the function \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{|x|}, & |x| \geq 2 \\ ax^2 + 2b, & |x| < 2 \end{cases} \) is differentiable on \( \mathbb{R} \), then \( 48 (a + b) \) is equal to \(\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\).


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

Theratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy to the potential energy of an electron in the 5th excited state of a hydrogen atom is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) 1

Question 32:

The work function of a substance is 3.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause the emission of photoelectrons from this substance is approximately:

  • (1) 215 nm
  • (2) 400 nm
  • (3) 414 nm
  • (4) 200 nm

Question 33:

Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220 V ac. Primary and secondary turns of the transforms are 100 and 10 respectively. Secondary coil of transformer is connected to two series resistance shown in shown in figure. The output voltage (V0) is :
Transformer

  • (1) 15 V
  • (2) 7 V
  • (3) 44 V
  • (4) 22 V

Question 34:

A particle of mass m is projected from ground with speed u at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find its angular momentum about the point of projection when it reaches its maximum height.

  • (1) \(\frac{mu^3}{16g}\)
  • (2) \({\frac{\sqrt3mu^3}{16g}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{mu^3}{3g}\)
  • (4) Zero

Question 35:

The diffraction pattern of a light of wavelength 400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0.2 mm is focused on the focal plane of a convex lens of focal length 100 cm. The width of the 1st secondary maxima will be :

  • (1) 2 mm
  • (2) 2 cm
  • (3) 0.02 mm
  • (4) 0.2 mm

Question 36:

A series \( L, R \) circuit connected with an AC source \( E = (25 \sin 1000 \, t) \, \text{V} \) has a power factor of \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \). If the source of emf is changed to \( E = (20 \sin 2000 \, t) \, \text{V} \), the new power factor of the circuit will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{7}} \)

Question 37:

The electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole at a distance \( r \) varies as:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{r^3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{r^2}\)
  • (4) \(r\)

Question 38:

A particle is placed at the point \( A \) of a frictionless track \( ABC \) as shown in the figure. It is gently pushed toward the right. The speed of the particle when it reaches the point \( B \) is: (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)).
Problem Fig.

  • (1) 20 m/s
  • (2) \( \sqrt{10} \, \text{m/s} \)
  • (3) \( 2 \sqrt{10} \, \text{m/s} \)
  • (4) 10 m/s

Question 39:

Two thermodynamical processes are shown in the figure. The molar heat capacity for process \( A \) and \( B \) are \( C_A \) and \( C_B \). The molar heat capacity at constant pressure and constant volume are represented by \( C_P \) and \( C_V \), respectively. Choose the correct statement.
Figure

  • (1) \( C_B = \infty, \, C_A = 0 \)
  • (2) \( C_A = 0 \, \text{and} \, C_B = \infty \)
  • (3) \( C_P \gt C_V \gt C_A = C_B \)
  • (4) \( C_A \gt C_P \gt C_V \)

Question 40:

The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is represented as \( \vec{E} = E_0 \cos(\omega t - kz) \hat{i} \). The corresponding magnetic induction vector will be:

  • (1) \( \vec{B} = E_0 C \cos(\omega t - kz) \hat{j} \)
  • (2) \( \vec{B} = \frac{E_0}{C} \cos(\omega t - kz) \hat{j} \)
  • (3) \( \vec{B} = E_0 C \cos(\omega t + kz) \hat{j} \)
  • (4) \( \vec{B} = \frac{E_0}{C} \cos(\omega t + kz) \hat{j} \)

Question 41:

At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47ºC?

  • (1) 80 K
  • (2) -73 K
  • (3) 20 K
  • (4) 4 K

Question 42:

Match List-I with List-II. 
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I} & & \text{List-II} \\ \hline \text{A. Coefficient of viscosity} & & \text{I.} \; [M L^2 T^{-2}] \\ \text{B. Surface Tension} & & \text{II.} \; [M L^2 T^{-1}] \\ \text{C. Angular momentum} & & \text{III.} \; [M L^1 T^{-1}] \\ \text{D. Rotational kinetic energy} & & \text{IV.} \; [M L^0 T^{-2}] \\ \hline \end{array} \]

  • (1) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
  • (2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
  • (3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
  • (4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

Question 43:

A potential divider circuit is shown in figure. The output voltage V0 is
Circuit

  • (1) 4V
  • (2) 2 mV
  • (3) 0.5 V
  • (4) 12 mV

Question 44:

A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10V is used as a voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The current through the Zener diode is
Diode

  • (1) 50 mA
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 30 mA
  • (4) 20 mA

Question 45:

Two insulated circular loop A and B radius ‘a’ carrying a current of ‘I’ in the anti clockwise direction as shown in figure. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre will be :
Problem fig

  • (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{2} \mu_0 I}{a} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2a} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{\sqrt{2} a} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2 \mu_0 I}{a} \)

Question 46:

All surfaces shown in figure are assumed to be frictionless and the pulleys and the string are light. The acceleration of the block of mass 2 kg is :
block of mass 2 kg

  • (1) \( g \)
  • (2) \( \frac{g}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{g}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{g}{4} \)

Question 47:

An electric toaster has resistance of \( 60 \, \Omega \) at room temperature \( (27^\circ \text{C}) \). The toaster is connected to a 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by the toaster is around: (if \( \alpha = 2 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ \text{C} \))

  • (1) 1694\( ^\circ \)C
  • (2) 1235\( ^\circ \)C
  • (3) 694\( ^\circ \)C
  • (4) 1667\( ^\circ \)C

Question 48:

A spherical body of mass 100 g is dropped from a height of 10 m from the ground. After hitting the ground, the body rebounds to a height of 5 m. The impulse of force imparted by the ground to the body is given by: (given \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

  • (1) 4.32 kg ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 43.2 kg ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 23.9 kg ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 2.39 kg ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 49:

Young’s modules of material of a wire of length ‘L’ and cross-sectional area A is Y. If the length of the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is halved then Young’s modules will be :

  • (1) \( \frac{Y}{4} \)
  • (2) \( 4Y \)
  • (3) \( Y \)
  • (4) \( 2Y \)

Question 50:

The gravitational potential at a point above the surface of earth is \( -5.12 \times 10^7 \, \text{J} / \text{kg} \) and the acceleration due to gravity at that point is \( 6.4 \, \text{m/s}^2 \). Assume that the mean radius of earth to be \( 6400 \, \text{km} \). The height of this point above the earth’s surface is:

  • (1) 1200 km
  • (2) 540 km
  • (3) 1600 km
  • (4) 1000 km

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is \( 3.5 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{T} \). A very long straight conductor carrying current of \( \sqrt{2} \, \text{A} \) in the direction from South East to North West is placed. The force per unit length experienced by the conductor is \( \ldots \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N/m} \).


Question 52:

Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell \( E_1 \) is of 8 V emf and 2 \( \Omega \) internal resistance; the cell \( E_2 \) is of 2 V emf and 4 \( \Omega \) internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell \( E_2 \) is:
Circuit


Question 53:

An electron of a hydrogen atom in an excited state is having energy \( E_n = -0.85 \, \text{eV} \). The maximum number of allowed transitions to lower energy levels is \( \ldots \).


Question 54:

A capacitor of capacitance \( C \) and potential \( V \) has energy \( E \). It is connected to another capacitor of capacitance \( 2C \) and potential \( 2V \). Then the loss of energy is \( \frac{x}{3} E \), where \( x \) is \( \_\_\_\_ \).


Question 55:

The distance between object and its two times magnified real image as produced by a convex lens is 45 cm. The focal length of the lens used is ______ cm.


Question 56:

In a closed organ pipe, the frequency of the fundamental note is 30 Hz. A certain amount of water is now poured in the organ pipe so that the fundamental frequency is increased to 110 Hz. If the organ pipe has a cross-sectional area of 2 cm\(^2\), the amount of water poured in the organ tube is \( \_\_\_\_\_\_ \) g. (Take speed of sound in air as 330 m/s)


Question 57:

Consider a disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2 m, rotating with angular velocity of 10 rad/s about an axis perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical disc is kept gently over the rotating disc along the same axis. The energy dissipated so that both the discs continue to rotate together without slipping is \( \_\_\_\_ \) J.
Angular velocity


Question 58:

The displacement and the increase in the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval of \( t \) to \( (t + 1) \) s are 125 m and 50 m/s, respectively. The distance travelled by the particle in \( (t + 2)^{\text{th}} \) s is \( \_\_\_\_ \) m.


Question 59:

Each of three blocks \( P \), \( Q \), and \( R \) shown in the figure has a mass of 3 kg. Each of the wires \( A \) and \( B \) has a cross-sectional area of 0.005 cm\(^2\) and Young's modulus \( 2 \times 10^{11} \, \text{N} \, \text{m}^{-2} \). Neglecting friction, the longitudinal strain on wire \( B \) is \( \ldots \times 10^{-4} \). (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))
Wire figure


Question 60:

A ceiling fan having 3 blades of length 80 cm each is rotating with an angular velocity of 1200 rpm. The magnetic field of earth in that region is 0.5 G and the angle of dip is \( 30^\circ \). The emf induced across the blades is \( N \pi \times 10^{-5} \, \text{V} \). The value of \( N \) is \( \_\_\_\_\_ \).


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry:

  • (1) Square planar
  • (2) Tetrahedral
  • (3) Octahedral
  • (4) Trigonal bipyramidal

Question 62:

Example of vinylic halide is

  • (1)
    Fig 1
  • (2)
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 63:

Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt with dil H2SO4, turns a piece of paper dipped in lead acetate into black, it is a confirmatory test for sulphide ion.
Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper turns black because of formation of lead sulphite. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
  • (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
  • (3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
  • (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

Question 64:

The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:
reaction

  • (1)
    Fig 2
  • (2)
    Fig 1
  • (3)
    Fig 3
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 65:

 Rosenmund reduction
This reduction reaction is known as:

  • (1) Etard Reaction
  • (2) Stephen's Reaction
  • (3) Wolff Kishner Reduction
  • (4) Rosenmund reduction

Question 66:

Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B gives the product C. Find out A and B.\[ \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{CH} + \text{Na} \xrightarrow{} \text{A}\xrightarrow{B} \text{CH}_3 - \text{C} \equiv \text{C} - \text{CH}_2 - \text{CH}_2 + \text{NaBr}(C)\]

  • (1)
    Reac 3
  • (2)
    Reac 2
  • (3)
    Reac 1
  • (4)
    Reac 4

Question 67:

Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?

  • (1)
    Fig 3
  • (2)
    Fig 2
  • (3)
    Fig 1
  • (4)
    Fig 4

Question 68:

What happens to freezing point of benzene when small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene?

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Remains unchanged
  • (3) First decreases and then increases
  • (4) Decreases

Question 69:

Choose the correct option

Molecule

Shape

A\(BrF_5\)iT-shape
B\(H_2O\)iiSee-saw
C\(ClF_3\)iiiBent
D\(SF_4\)ivSquare Pyramidal
  • (1) (A)- IV, (B)- III, (C)- I, (D)- II
  • (2) (A)- III, (B)- IV, (C)- I, (D)- II
  • (3) (A)- II, (B)- I, (C)- III, (D)- IV
  • (4) (A)- I, (B)- III, (C)- IV, (D)- II

Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \text{List-I (Species)} & \text{List-II (Electronic distribution)} \\ \hline \text{(A) Cr}^{+2} & \text{(I) } 3d^8 \\ \text{(B) Mn}^{+} & \text{(II) } 3d^3 4s^1 \\ \text{(C) Ni}^{+2} & \text{(III) } 3d^4 \\ \text{(D) V}^{+} & \text{(IV) } 3d^5 4s^1 \\ \hline \end{array} \]

  • (1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (2) (A)-III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D)-II
  • (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
  • (4) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III

Question 71:

The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil HNO\(_3\) before testing for halogens because

  • (1) AgCN is soluble in HNO\(_3\)
  • (2) Silver halides are soluble in HNO\(_3\)
  • (3) Ag\(_2\)S is soluble in HNO\(_3\)
  • (4) Na\(_2\)S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO\(_3\)

Question 72:

Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The orbitals having same energy are called as degenerate orbitals.
Statement-II: In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d orbitals are not degenerate orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given

  • (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
  • (4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

Question 73:

Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling‟s reagent is:

  • (1) Lactose
  • (2) Maltose
  • (3) Sucrose
  • (4) Glucose

Question 74:

In the given reactions identify the reagent A and reagent B
Chemical Reaction

  • (1) \( A-\text{CrO}_3 \quad B-\text{CrO}_3\)
  • (2) \(A-\text{CrO}_3 \quad B-\text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2\)
  • (3) \(A-\text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2 \quad B-\text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2\)
  • (4) \(A-\text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2 \quad B-\text{CrO}_3\)

Question 75:

Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:

  • (1) Nd\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) Nd\(^{3+}\) and Ce\(^{4+}\)
  • (3) La\(^{3+}\) and Ce\(^{4+}\)
  • (4) Lu\(^{3+}\) and Eu\(^{3+}\)

Question 76:

Choose the correct statements from the following:
A Ethane-1,2-diamine is a chelating ligand.
B Metallic aluminium is produced by electrolysis of aluminium oxide in presence of cryolite.
C Cyanide ion is used as a ligand for leaching of silver.
D Phosphine acts as a ligand in Wilkinson catalyst.
E The stability constants of \( \text{Ca}^{2+} \) and \( \text{Mg}^{2+} \) are similar to EDTA complexes.

  • (1) (B), (C), (E) only
  • (2) (B), (C), (D), (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Question 77:

Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B)
Main Reaction

  • (1)
    Rec 1
  • (2)
    Rec 2
  • (3)
    Reac 3
  • (4)
    Reac 4

Question 78:

Given below are two statement one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl is an example of allyl halide
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in which the halogen atom is attached to sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
In the light of the two above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  • (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 79:

Given below are the two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However from As to Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is observed.
Reason (R): covalent and ionic radii in a particular oxidation state increases down the group.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 80:

Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is

  • (1)
    Bond 1
  • (2)
    Bond 2
  • (3)
    Bond 3
  • (4)
    Bond 4

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule is _________.


Question 82:

The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is g. (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g/mol)


Question 83:

0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m2 area. The number of silver atoms deposited on plate are _____ × 1023. (At mass Ag = 108,d = 7.9 g/cm³)


Question 84:

The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal with semicarbazide contains _____number of nitrogen atoms.


Question 85:

The pH at which Mg(OH)\(_2\) \([K_{sp} = 1 \times 10^{-11}]\) begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg\(^{2+}\) ions is \( \_\_\_\_ \).


Question 86:

\[ 2 \text{MnO}_4^{-} + b \text{I}^{-} + c \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow x \text{I}_2 + y \text{MnO}_2 + z \text{OH}^{-} \]
If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of \( z \) is \( \_\_\_\_\_\_ \).


Question 87:

Problem Fig
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point \( A \) and coming back to the same point by tracing the path \( A \to B \to C \to A \) as shown in the diagram. The total work done in the process is \( \_\_\_\_ \) J.


Question 88:

The rate of a first order reaction is \( 0.04 \, \text{mol} \, \text{L}^{-1} \, \text{s}^{-1} \) at 10 minutes and \( 0.03 \, \text{mol} \, \text{L}^{-1} \, \text{s}^{-1} \) at 20 minutes after initiation. Half-life of the reaction is \( \_\_\_\_ \) minutes. (Given \( \log 2 = 0.3010, \, \log 3 = 0.4771 \))


Question 89:

On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the organic compound is \( \_\_\_\_ \times 10^{-1} \).


Question 90:

If IUPAC name of an element is “Unununnium” then the element belongs to nth group of periodic table. The value of n is______

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

Read More:

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper