JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the first shift on April 9, 2024, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If the domain of the function \(f(x) = \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2x + 3} \right)\) is \(\mathbb{R} - (\alpha, \beta)\), then \(12 \alpha \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 32

Question 2:

Let three vectors \( \vec{a} = \alpha \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j} + 2 \hat{k} \),
\( \vec{b} = 5 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + 4 \hat{k} \),
\( \vec{c} = x \hat{i} + y \hat{j} + z \hat{k} \) from a triangle such that \( \vec{c} = \vec{a} - \vec{b} \) and the area of the triangle is \( 5 \sqrt{6} \). If \(\alpha\) is a positive real number, then \( |\vec{c}|^2 \) is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 10

Question 3:

Let \( f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + ex + 41 \) be such that \( f(1) = 40 \), \( f'(1) = 2 \) and \( f''(1) = 4 \). Then \( a^2 + b^2 + c^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 73
  • (3) 54
  • (4) 51

Question 4:

The parabola \( y^2 = 4x \) divides the area of the circle \( x^2 + y^2 = 5 \) in two parts. The area of the smaller part is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{2}{3} + 5 \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} + 5 \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} + \sqrt{5} \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} + \sqrt{5} \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \right) \)

Question 5:

The solution of the differential equation \( (x^2 + y^2) dx - 5xy \, dy = 0, \, y(1) = 0 \), is:

  • (1) \(|x^2 - 4y^2|^5 = x^2\)
  • (2) \(|x^2 - 2y^2|^6 = x\)
  • (3) \(|x^2 - 4y^2|^6 = x\)
  • (4) \(|x^2 - 2y^2|^5 = x^2\)

Question 6:

Let \[ \left| \cos \theta \cos (60^\circ - \theta) \cos (60^\circ - \theta) \right| \leq \frac{1}{8}, \quad \theta \in [0, 2\pi] \] Then, the sum of all \( \theta \in [0, 2\pi] \), where \( \cos 3\theta \) attains its maximum value, is:

  • (1) \( 9\pi \)
  • (2) \( 18\pi \)
  • (3) \( 6\pi \)
  • (4) \( 15\pi \)

Question 7:

If the sum of the series \[ \frac{1}{1 \cdot (1 + d)} + \frac{1}{(1 + d)(1 + 2d)} + \cdots + \frac{1}{(1 + 9d)(1 + 10d)} \] is equal to 5, then \(50d\) is equal to: 

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 10

Question 8:

The coefficient of \( x^{70} \) in \( x^2 (1+x)^{98} + x^3 (1+x)^{97} + x^4 (1+x)^{96} + \ldots + x^{54} (1+x)^{46} \) is \( ^{99}C_p - ^{46}C_q \).
Then a possible value to \( p + q \) is:

  • (1) 55
  • (2) 61
  • (3) 68
  • (4) 83

Question 9: The frequency distribution of the age of students in a class of 40 students is given below:
\(Age\)151617181920
No. of Students58512xy

If the mean deviation about the median is 1.25, then \(4x + 5y\) is equal to:
  • (1) 43
  • (2) 44
  • (3) 47
  • (4) 46

Question 10:

Let a circle passing through (2, 0) have its centre at the point \( (h, k) \). Let \( (x_c, y_c) \) be the point of intersection of the lines \( 3x + 5y = 1 \) and \( (2 + c)x + 5c^2y = 1 \). If \( h = \lim_{c \to 1} x_c \) and \( k = \lim_{c \to 1} y_c \), then the equation of the circle is:

  • (1) \( 25x^2 + 25y^2 - 20x + 2y - 60 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 5x^2 + 5y^2 - 4x - 2y - 12 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( 25x^2 + 25y^2 - 2x + 2y - 60 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 5x^2 + 5y^2 - 4x + 2y - 12 = 0 \)

Question 11:

Let \( \int \frac{2 - \tan x}{3 + \tan x} \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \left( \alpha x + \log_e \lvert \beta \sin x + \gamma \cos x \rvert \right) + C \), where \( C \) is the constant of integration.

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 7

Question 12:

Let \(\alpha, \beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2 + 2\sqrt{2}x - 1 = 0\). The quadratic equation, whose roots are \(\alpha^4 + \beta^4\) and \(\frac{1}{10} \left( \alpha^6 + \beta^6 \right)\), is:

  • (1) \( x^2 - 190x + 9466 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x^2 - 195x + 9466 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 - 195x + 9506 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x^2 - 180x + 9506 = 0 \)

Question 13:

Let \( f(x) = x^2 + 9 \), \( g(x) = \frac{x}{x-9} \), and \[ a = f \circ g(10), \, b = g \circ f(3). \]
If \( e \) and \( l \) denote the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse \[ \frac{x^2}{a} + \frac{y^2}{b} = 1, \] then \( 8e^2 + l^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12

Question 14:

The shortest distance between the line:
\[ \frac{x-3}{4} = \frac{y+7}{-11} = \frac{z-1}{5} \] and \[ \frac{x-5}{3} = \frac{y-9}{-6} = \frac{z+2}{1} \] is:

  • (1) \(\frac{187}{\sqrt{563}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{178}{\sqrt{563}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{185}{\sqrt{563}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{179}{\sqrt{563}}\)

Question 15:

A variable line \( L \) passes through the point \( (3, 5) \) and intersects the positive coordinate axes at the points \( A \) and \( B \). The minimum area of the triangle \( OAB \), where \( O \) is the origin, is:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 40
  • (4) 35

Question 16:

The solution curve, of the differential equation \( 2y \frac{dy}{dx} + 3 = 5 \frac{dy}{dx} \), passing through the point \( (0, 1) \), is a conic, whose vertex lies on the line:

  • (1) \( 2x + 3y = 9 \)
  • (2) \( 2x + 3y = -9 \)
  • (3) \( 2x + 3y = -6 \)
  • (4) \( 2x + 3y = 6 \)

Question 17:

Let \( \lambda, \mu \in \mathbb{R} \). If the system of equations
\( 3x + 5y + \lambda z = 3 \) 
\( 7x + 11y - 9z = 2 \) 
\( 97x + 155y - 189z = \mu \) 
has infinitely many solutions, then \( \mu + 2\lambda \) is equal to:

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 22

Question 18:

A ray of light coming from the point \( P(1, 2) \) gets reflected from the point \( Q \) on the x-axis and then passes through the point \( R(4, 3) \). If the point \( S(h, k) \) is such that \( PQRS \) is a parallelogram, then \( hk^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 90
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 70

Question 19:

Let the line \(L\) intersect the lines
\(x - 2 = -y = z - 1\), \(\quad 2(x + 1) = 2(y - 1) = z + 1\)
and be parallel to the line
\(\frac{x-2}{3} = \frac{y-1}{1} = \frac{z-2}{2}\).
Then which of the following points lies on \(L\)?

  • (1) \(\left( \frac{1}{3}, 1, 1 \right)\)
  • (2) \(\left( \frac{1}{3}, 1, -1 \right)\)
  • (3) \(\left( \frac{1}{3}, -1, -1 \right)\)
  • (4) \(\left( \frac{1}{3}, -1, 1 \right)\)

Question 20:

Let \(\overrightarrow{OA} = 2\vec{a}\), \(\overrightarrow{OB} = 6\vec{a} + 5\vec{b}\), and \(\overrightarrow{OC} = 3\vec{b}\), where \(O\) is the origin. If the area of the parallelogram with adjacent sides \(\overrightarrow{OA}\) and \(\overrightarrow{OC}\) is 15 sq. units, then the area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral \(OABC\) is equal to:

  • (1) 38
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 35

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \( A = \{2, 3, 6, 7\} \) and \( B = \{4, 5, 6, 8\} \). Let \( R \) be a relation defined on \( A \times B \) by \((a_1, b_1) R (a_2, b_2)\) if and only if \(a_1 + a_2 = b_1 + b_2\). Then the number of elements in \( R \) is __________.


Question 22:

Let \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \frac{n}{\sqrt{n^4 + 1}} - \frac{2n}{\left(n^2 + 1\right)\sqrt{n^4 + 1}} + \frac{n}{\sqrt{n^4 + 16}} - \frac{8n}{\left(n^2 + 4\right)\sqrt{n^4 + 16}} + \ldots + \frac{n}{\sqrt{n^4 + n^4}} - \frac{2n \cdot n^2}{\left(n^2 + n^2\right)\sqrt{n^4 + n^4}} \right)\)  be \(\frac{\pi}{k},\) using only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions. Then \(k^2\) is equal to ______.


Question 23:

Let \( f: (0, \pi) \to \mathbb{R} \) be a function given by
\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \left(\frac{8}{7}\right)^{\tan 8x / \tan 7x}, & 0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2} \\ a - 8, & x = \frac{\pi}{2} \\ \left(1 + |\cot x|\right)^{b^{\lfloor \tan x \rfloor}}, & \frac{\pi}{2} < x < \pi \end{cases} \]
Where \( a, b \in \mathbb{Z} \). If \( f \) is continuous at \( x = \frac{\pi}{2} \), then \( a^2 + b^2 \) is equal to __________.


Question 24:

The remainder when \( 4^{28^{2024}} \) is divided by 21 is __________.


Question 25:

If a function \( f \) satisfies \( f(m + n) = f(m) + f(n) \) for all \( m, n \in \mathbb{N} \) and \( f(1) = 1 \), then the largest natural number \( \lambda \) such that \[ \sum_{k=1}^{2022} f(\lambda + k) \leq (2022)^2 \] is equal to __________.


Question 26:

Let the centre of a circle, passing through the point \((0, 0)\), \((1, 0)\) and touching the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = 9\), be \((h, k)\). Then for all possible values of the coordinates of the centre \((h, k)\), \(4(h^2 + k^2)\) is equal to __________.


Question 27:

The sum of the square of the modulus of the elements in the set \[ \{z = a + ib : a, b \in \mathbb{Z}, z \in \mathbb{C}, |z-1| \leq 1, |z-5| \leq |z-5i|\} \] is ________.


Question 28:

Let the set of all positive values of \( \lambda \), for which the point of local minimum of the function \((1 + x (\lambda^2 - x^2)) \frac{x^2 + x + 2}{x^2 + 5x + 6} < 0\) be \((\alpha, \beta)\).
Then \( \alpha^2 + \beta^2 \) is equal to ________.


Question 29:

Let A be a non-singular matrix of order 3. If \[ \text{det}\left(3 \text{adj}(2 \text{adj}((\text{det} A) A))\right) = 3^{-13} \cdot 2^{-10} \] and \[ \text{det}\left(3 \text{adj}(2 A)\right) = 2^m \cdot 3^n, \] then \( |3m + 2n| \) is equal to __________.


Question 30:

Let \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) denote the outcome of three independent rolls of a fair tetrahedral die, whose four faces are marked 1, 2, 3, 4. If the probability that \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\) has all real roots is \(\frac{m}{n}\), \(\text{gcd}(m, n) = 1\), then \(m + n\) is equal to ______.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

A plane EM wave is propagating along x direction. It has a wavelength of 4 mm. If electric field is in y direction with the maximum magnitude of 60 V m-1, the equation for magnetic field is:

  • (1) \( B_z = 60 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{k} \, \text{T} \)
  • (2) \( B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \times 10^3 \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{k} \, \text{T} \)
  • (3) \( B_x = 60 \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{i} \, \text{T} \)
  • (4) \( B_z = 2 \times 10^{-7} \sin \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} \left( x - 3 \times 10^8 t \right) \right] \hat{k} \, \text{T} \)

Question 32:

A galvanometer has a coil of resistance \(200 \, \Omega\) with a full scale deflection at \(20 \, \mu A\). The value of resistance to be added to use it as an ammeter of range (0–20) mA is:

  • (1) \(0.40 \, \Omega\)
  • (2) \(0.20 \, \Omega\)
  • (3) \(0.50 \, \Omega\)
  • (4) \(0.10 \, \Omega\)

Question 33:

The dimensional formula of latent heat is:

  • (1) \([M^0 L T^{-2}]\)
  • (2) \([M L T^{-2}]\)
  • (3) \([M^0 L^2 T^{-2}]\)
  • (4) \([M L^2 T^{-2}]\)

Question 34:

A sphere of relative density \( \sigma \) and diameter \( D \) has a concentric cavity of diameter \( d \). The ratio of \( \frac{D}{d} \), if it just floats on water in a tank, is:

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{\sigma}{\sigma - 1} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{\sigma + 1}{\sigma - 1} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{\sigma - 1}{\sigma} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{\sigma - 2}{\sigma + 2} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \)

Question 35:

The volume of an ideal gas (\( \gamma = 1.5 \)) is changed adiabatically from 5 litres to 4 litres. The ratio of initial pressure to final pressure is:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{16}{25} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{8}{5\sqrt{5}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \)

Question 36:

A light emitting diode (LED) is fabricated using GaAs semiconducting material whose band gap is 1.42 eV. The wavelength of light emitted from the LED is:

  • (1) 650 nm
  • (2) 1243 nm
  • (3) 875 nm
  • (4) 1400 nm

Question 37:

A particle of mass m moves on a straight line with its velocity increasing with distance according to the equation \( v = \alpha \sqrt{x} \), where \(\alpha\) is a constant. The total work done by all the forces applied on the particle during its displacement from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = d \), will be:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{m}{2\alpha^2 d}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{md}{2\alpha^2}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{m\alpha^2 d}{2}\)
  • (4) \(2m\alpha^2 d\)

Question 38:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): When currents vary with time, Newton’s third law is valid only if momentum carried by the electromagnetic field is taken into account. 
Statement (II): Ampere’s circuital law does not depend on Biot-Savart’s law. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 39:

A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed 6 m/s. The other half is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds 9 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle during the motion is:

  • (1) 8.8 m/s
  • (2) 10 m/s
  • (3) 9.2 m/s
  • (4) 8 m/s

Question 40:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave lens, image is formed at the centre of curvature of the lens on the other side.
Statement (II): Concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 41:

A sample of 1 mole gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. If adiabatic constant for the gas is \(\gamma=\frac{3}{2}\) , then the work done by the gas in the process is:

  • (1) \(RT[2-\sqrt2]\)
  • (2) \(\frac{R}{T}[2-\sqrt2]\)
  • (3) \(RT[2+\sqrt2]\)
  • (4) \(\frac{T}{R}[2-\sqrt2]\)

Question 42:

A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as shown in figure. If the area of each stair is \(\frac{A}{3}\) and the height is d, the capacitance of the arrangement is:
Problem Fig

  • (1) \( \frac{11 \varepsilon_0 A}{18 d} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{13 \varepsilon_0 A}{17 d} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{11 \varepsilon_0 A}{20 d} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{18 \varepsilon_0 A}{11 d} \)

Question 43:

One main scale division of a vernier caliper is equal to m units. If nth division of main scale coincides with (n + 1)th division of vernier scale,
the least count of the vernier caliper is:

  • (1) \(\frac{n}{n+1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{m}{n+1}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{n+1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{m}{n(n+1)}\)

Question 44:

A heavy iron bar, of weight W is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a person. The bar makes an angle \(\theta\) with the horizontal. The weight experienced by the person is:

  • (1) \(\frac{W}{2}\)
  • (2) W
  • (3) \(W cos\theta\)
  • (4) \(W sin\theta\)

Question 45:

A light unstretchable string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\). If the acceleration of the system is \(\frac{g}{8}\), then the ratio of the masses \(\frac{m_2}{m_1}\) is:

  • (1) 9 : 7
  • (2) 4 : 3
  • (3) 5 : 3
  • (4) 8 : 1

Question 46:

The energy equivalent of 1g of substance is:

  • (1) \( 11.2 \times 10^{24} \, \text{MeV} \)
  • (2) \( 5.6 \times 10^{12} \, \text{MeV} \)
  • (3) \( 5.6 \, \text{eV} \)
  • (4) \( 5.6 \times 10^{26} \, \text{MeV} \)

Question 47:

The equivalent resistance between A and B is:
Resistance Diagram

  • (1) \(18\Omega\)
  • (2) \(25\Omega\)
  • (3) \(27\Omega\)
  • (4) \(19\Omega\)

Question 48:

An astronaut takes a ball of mass \( m \) from earth to space. He throws the ball into a circular orbit about earth at an altitude of 318.5 km. From earth's surface to the orbit, the change in total mechanical energy of the ball is \( x \frac{GM_em}{21R_e} \). The value of \( x \) is
(take \( R_e = 6370 \, \text{km} \)):

  • (1) 11
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 10

Question 49:

A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series across an ac supply. A dielectric is then placed between the plates of the capacitor. The glow of the bulb:

  • (1) increases
  • (2) remains same
  • (3) becomes zero
  • (4) decreases

Question 50:

A proton, an electron, and an alpha particle have the same energies. Their de-Broglie wavelengths will be compared as:

  • (1) \(\lambda_e>\lambda_\alpha>\lambda_p\)
  • (2) \(\lambda_\alpha<\lambda_p<\lambda_e\)
  • (3) \(\lambda_p<\lambda_e<\lambda_\alpha\)
  • (4) \(\lambda_p>\lambda_e>\lambda_\alpha\)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A square loop of edge length \(2 \, \text{m}\) carrying current of \(2 \, \text{A}\) is placed with its edges parallel to the x-y axis. A magnetic field is passing through the x-y plane and expressed as \[ \vec{B} = B_0 (1 + 4x) \hat{k}, \] where \(B_0 = 5 \, \text{T}\). The net magnetic force experienced by the loop is ______ N.


Question 52:

At the centre of a half ring of radius \(R = 10 \, \text{cm}\) and linear charge density \(4n \, \text{C m}^{-1}\), the potential is \(x \pi \, \text{V}\). The value of \(x\) is ______.


Question 53:

In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point is \[ \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} \] of the maximum intensity, the minimum distance of the point from the central maximum is ____ \(\mu\)m.
(Given: \(\lambda = 600 \, \text{nm}, \, d = 1.0 \, \text{mm}, \, D = 1.0 \, \text{m}\))


Question 54:

If \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) make an angle \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{5}{9}\right)\) with each other, then \[ |\vec{a} + \vec{b}| = \sqrt{2} |\vec{a} - \vec{b}| \quad \text{for } |\vec{a}| = n |\vec{b}|. \] The integer value of \(n\) is _____.


Question 55:

Two persons pull a wire towards themselves. Each person exerts a force of \(200 \, \text{N}\) on the wire. Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is \(1 \times 10^{11} \, \text{N m}^{-2}\). Original length of the wire is \(2 \, \text{m}\) and the area of cross-section is \(2 \, \text{cm}^2\). The wire will extend in length by ______ \(\mu \text{m}\).


Question 56:

The position, velocity, and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion are found to have magnitudes of \(4 \, \text{m}\), \(2 \, \text{ms}^{-1}\), and \(16 \, \text{ms}^{-2}\) at a certain instant. The amplitude of the motion is \(\sqrt{x} \, \text{m}\) where \(x\) is ______.


Question 57:

A star has 100\% helium composition. It starts to convert three \(^4\)He into one \(^{12}\)C via the triple alpha process as \[ ^4\text{He} + ^4\text{He} + ^4\text{He} \rightarrow ^{12}\text{C} + Q. \] The mass of the star is \(2.0 \times 10^{32}\) kg and it generates energy at the rate of \(5.808 \times 10^{30}\) W. The rate of converting these \(^4\)He to \(^{12}\)C is \(n \times 10^{42}\) s\(^{-1}\), where \(n\) is ______.
[Take, mass of \(^4\)He = 4.0026 u, mass of \(^{12}\)C = 12 u]


Question 58:

A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of moment of inertia \(0.40 \, \text{kgm}^2\) and radius \(10 \, \text{cm}\). The wheel is free to rotate about its axis. Initially, the wheel is at rest. The string is now pulled by a force of \(40 \, \text{N}\). The angular velocity of the wheel after \(10 \, \text{s}\) is \(x \, \text{rad/s}\), where \(x\) is ______.


Question 59:

When a coil is connected across a 20 V dc supply, it draws a current of 5 A. When it is connected across 20 V, 50 Hz ac supply, it draws a current of 4 A. The self inductance of the coil is ______ mH.
(Take \(\pi\) = 3)


Question 60:

The current flowing through the 1\(\Omega \) resistor is \(\frac{n}{10}\)A. The value of n is ________.
Resistance Diagram


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Identify the product A and product B in the following set of reactions.
Chemical reaction

  • (1) A-CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)OH ; B-CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)OH
  • (2) product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) A-CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_3\), B-CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_3\)

Question 62:

The molar conductivity for electrolytes A and B are plotted against C1/2 as shown below. Electrolytes A and B respectively are :
Graph

  • (1)
    AB
    Weak electrolyteWeak electrolyte
  • (2)
    AB
    Strong electrolytestrong electrolyte
  • (3)
    AB
    Weak electrolytestrong electrolyte
  • (4)
    AB
    Strong electrolyteWeak electrolyte

Question 63:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The oxidation state of an element in a particular compound is the charge acquired by its atom on the basis of electron gain enthalpy consideration from other atoms in the molecule.
Statement (II): \(p\pi\)-\(p\pi\) bond formation is more prevalent in second period elements over other periods.
In the light of the above statements, choose the {most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 64: 0.05M CuSO\(_4\) when treated with 0.01M K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) gives green colour solution of Cu\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\). The \[ \text{[SPM : Semi Permeable Membrane]} \]
\(K_2Cr_2O_7\)\(CuSO_4\)
Side XSPMSide Y

Due to osmosis:
  • (1) Green colour formation observed on side Y.
  • (2) Green colour formation observed on side X.
  • (3) Molarity of\(K_2Cr_2O_7\)solution is lowered.
  • (4) Molarity of\(CuSO_4\)solution is lowered.

Question 65:

Identify major product "X" formed in the following reaction :
Chemical Reaction

  • (1) Compound 1
  • (2) Compound 2
  • (3) Compound 3
  • (4) Compound 4

Question 66:

The F\(^-\) ions make the enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite (the enamel on the surface of teeth) into much harder fluoroapatite having the formula:

  • (1) [3(Ca\(_3\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\)).CaF\(_2\)]
  • (2) [3(Ca\(_2\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\)).Ca(OH)\(_2\)]
  • (3) [3(Ca\(_3\)(PO\(_4\))\(_3\).CaF\(_2\)]
  • (4) [3(Ca\(_3\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\).Ca(OH)\(_2\)]

Question 67:

Identify the incorrect statements regarding primary standard of titrimetric analysis
(A) It should be purely available in dry form.
(B) It should not undergo chemical change in air.
(C) It should be hygroscopic and should react with another chemical instantaneously and stoichiometrically.
(D) It should be readily soluble in water.
(E) KMnO4 & NaOH can be used as primary standard.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (C) and (D) only
  • (2) (B) and (E) only
  • (3) (A) and (B) only
  • (4) (C) and (E) only

Question 68:

Chemical Reaction
What is the structure of C ?

  • (1) Structure 1
  • (2) Structure 2
  • (3) Structure 3
  • (4) Structure 4

Question 69:

The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which of the following is correct ?

  • (1) Cu(II) is less stable
  • (2) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts
  • (3) Cu(II) is more stable
  • (4) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable

Question 70:

In which one of the following pairs the central atoms exhibit sp\(^2\) hybridization?

  • (1) BF\(_3\) and NO\(_2^-\)
  • (2) NH\(_2^-\) and H\(_2\)O
  • (3) H\(_2\)O and NO\(_2\)
  • (4) NH\(_2^-\) and BF\(_3\)

Question 71:

Relative stability of the contributing structures is :
Relative stability

  • (1) \((I)>(III)>(II)\)
  • (2) \((I)>(II)>(III)\)
  • (3) \((II)>(I)>(III)\)
  • (4) \((III)>(II)>(I)\)

Question 72:

correct order of compound

  • (1) Piperidine>Pyridine>Pyrrole
  • (2) Pyrrole>Pyridine>Piperidine
  • (3) Pyridine>Piperidine>Pyrrole
  • (4) Pyrrole>Piperidine >Pyridine

Question 73:

For the given compounds, the correct order of increasing \(pK_a\) value :
Chemical compounds

  • (1) \((E)<(D)<(C)<(B)<(A)\)
  • (2) \((D)<(E)<(C)<(B)<(A)\)
  • (3) \((E)<(D)<(B)<(A)<(C)\)
  • (4) \((B)<(D)<(A)<(C)<(E)\)
  • (5) None of these

Question 74:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S\(_8\) while oxygen exists as O\(_2\).
{Reason (R): Oxygen forms \(p\pi\)-\(p\pi\) multiple bonds with itself and other elements having small size and high electronegativity like C, N, which is not possible for sulphur.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 75:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The total number of geometrical isomers shown by [Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^+\) complex ion is three.
Reason (R): [Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^+\) complex ion has an octahedral geometry.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 76:

Methods used for purification of organic compounds are based on :

  • (1) neither on nature of compound nor on the impurity present.
  • (2) nature of compound only.
  • (3) nature of compound and presence of impurity.
  • (4) presence of impurity only.

Question 77:

Compare the energies of following sets of quantum numbers for multielectron system.
(A) n = 4, 1 = 1
(B) n= 4, l = 2
(C) n = 3, l = 1
(D) n = 3, l = 2
(E) n = 4, 1 = 0
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) \((B)>(A)>(C)>(E)>(D)\)
  • (2) \((E)>(C)<(D)<(A)<(B)\)
  • (3) \((E)>(C)>(A)>(D)>(B)\)
  • (4) \((C)<(E)<(D)<(A)<(B)\)

Question 78:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): SN\(_2\) reaction of C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)Br occurs more readily than the SN\(_2\) reaction of CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Br.
Reason (R): The partially bonded unhybridized p-orbital that develops in the trigonal bipyramidal transition state is stabilized by conjugation with the phenyl ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Question 79:

On reaction of Lead Sulphide with dilute nitric acid which of the following is not formed ?

  • (1) Lead nitrate
  • (2) Sulphur
  • (3) Nitric oxide
  • (4) Nitrous oxide

Question 80:

In the following sequence of reaction, the major products B and C respectively are :
Chemical reaction

  • (1) Product 1
  • (2) Product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) Product 4

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below:
\[ \text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-} + 14\text{H}^+ + 6\text{e}^- \rightarrow 2\text{Cr}^{3+} + 7\text{H}_2\text{O}, \, E^\circ = 1.33 \, \text{V} \]
\[ \text{Fe}^{3+} (\text{aq}) + \text{3e}^- \rightarrow \text{Fe}, \, E^\circ = -0.04 \, \text{V} \]
\[ \text{Ni}^{2+} (\text{aq}) + 2\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Ni}, \, E^\circ = -0.25 \, \text{V} \]
\[ \text{Ag}^+ (\text{aq}) + \text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Ag}, \, E^\circ = 0.80 \, \text{V} \]
\[ \text{Au}^{3+} (\text{aq}) + 3\text{e}^- \rightarrow \text{Au}, \, E^\circ = 1.40 \, \text{V} \]
Consider the given electrochemical reactions, the number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by \(\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7^{2-}\) in aqueous solution is ____.


Question 82:

Total number of essential amino acid among the given list of amino acids is _______.
Arginine, Phenylalanine, Aspartic acid, Cysteine, Histidine, Valine, Proline


Question 83:

Number of ambidentate ligands among the following is ____.
\[ \text{NO}_2^{-}, \text{SCN}^{-}, \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}, \text{NH}_3, \text{CN}^{-}, \text{SO}_4^{2-}, \text{H}_2\text{O} \]


Question 84:

Number of colourless lanthanoid ions among the following is ____.
\[ \text{Eu}^{3+}, \, \text{Lu}^{3+}, \, \text{Nd}^{3+}, \, \text{La}^{3+}, \, \text{Sm}^{3+} \]


Question 85:

The total number of species from the following in which one unpaired electron is present, is ____.
\[ \text{N}_2, \text{O}_2, \text{C}_2^{-}, \text{O}_2^{-}, \text{H}_2^{+}, \text{CN}^{-}, \text{He}_2^{+} \]


Question 86:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The rate law for the reaction \[ \text{A + B} \rightarrow \text{C} \] is rate\(({r}) = k[{A}]^2[{B}]\). When the concentration of both A and B is doubled, the reaction rate is increased ``x'' times.
Statement II:
Graph
The figure is showing ``the variation in concentration against time plot'' for a ``y'' order reaction. The value of \(x + y\) is _________.


Question 87:

How many compounds among the following compounds show inductive, mesomeric as well as hyperconjugation effects?
Compounds


Question 88:

When equal volume of 1M HCl and 1M H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) are separately neutralized by excess volume of 1M NaOH solution, X and Y kJ of heat is liberated respectively. The value of Y/X is ____.


Question 89:

The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO\(_4\) and CuSO\(_4\cdot\)5H\(_2\)O are \(-70\) kJ mol\(^{-1}\) and \(+12\) kJ mol\(^{-1}\) respectively. The heat of hydration of CuSO\(_4\) to CuSO\(_4\cdot\)5H\(_2\)O is \(-x\) kJ. The value of \(x\) is _____.


Question 90:

Molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing \(x \, \text{g}\) of anhyd. CuSO\(_4\) in 500 mL solution at 32\(^\circ\)C is \(2 \times 10^{-1} \, \text{M}\). Its molality will be ____ \( \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m}\) (nearest integer).
[Given density of the solution = 1.25 g/mL.]

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
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JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

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JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper