JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here for download. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 4 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
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JEE Main 4 April Shift 1 2024 Questions with Solution
SECTION-A
PHYSICS
Question 1:
Let f : R → R be a function given by:
1 − cos(2x)/x^2, for x < 0
beta * sqrt(1 − cos(x))/x, for x > 0.
If f is continuous at x = 0, then alpha^2 + beta^2 is equal to:
View Solution
Three urns A, B, and C contain 7 red, 5 black; 5 red, 7 black; and 6 red, 6 black balls, respectively. One of the urns is selected at random, and a ball is drawn. If the ball drawn is black, then the probability that it is drawn from urn A is:
View Solution
The vertices of a triangle are A(-1, 3), B(-2, 2), and C(3, -1). A new triangle is formed by shifting the sides of the triangle one unit inwards. Then the equation of the side of the new triangle nearest to the origin is:
View Solution
The equation of line AC is x + y = 2. To find the equation of a line parallel to it and shifted inward by sqrt(2), the equation becomes x + y = 2 − sqrt(2).
If the solution y = y(x) of the differential equation (x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 2x + 2) dy = (2x^2 + 2x + 3) dx satisfies y(-1) = -pi/4, then y(0) is equal to:
View Solution
Let the sum of the maximum and minimum values of the function f(x) = (2x^2 − 3x + 8)/(2x^2 + 3x + 8) be m/n, where gcd(m, n) = 1. Then m + n is equal to:
View Solution
One of the points of intersection of the curves y = 1 + 3x − 2x^2 and y = 1/x is (1/2, 2). Let the area of the region enclosed by these curves be 1/24 (l * sqrt(5) + m) − n ln(1 + sqrt(5)), where l, m, n are natural numbers. Then l + m + n is equal to:
View Solution
If the system of equations x + (sqrt(2) * sin(alpha)) * y + (sqrt(2) * cos(alpha)) * z = 0,
x + (cos(alpha)) * y + (sin(alpha)) * z = 0,
x + (sin(alpha)) * y − (cos(alpha)) * z = 0 has a non-trivial solution, then alpha in the interval (0, pi/2) is equal to:
View Solution
There are 5 points P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 on the side AB, excluding A and B, of a triangle ABC. Similarly, there are 6 points P6, P7, ..., P11 on the side BC and 7 points P12, P13, ..., P18 on the side CA of the triangle. The number of triangles that can be formed using the points P1, P2, ..., P18 as vertices is:
View Solution
The total ways to select 3 points from 18 is 816. Subtracting the collinear cases (65), the number of triangles is 751.
Let f(x) be defined as:
f(x) = x - 2, for -2 < x < 0
f(x) = 1 - 2x, for 0 <= x <= 2
Let h(x) = f(x) + f(x). Then the integral of h(x) dx is equal to:
View Solution
The sum of all rational terms in the expansion of (1/2^5 + 1/5^3)^15 is equal to:
View Solution
The values of α for which the determinant |1 3 2; α+3 2 1; 1 1 3| = 0 lie in the interval:
(1) (-2,1)
(2) (-3,0)
(3) (-3/2,3/2)
(4) (0,3)
View Solution
An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two successive draws of 4 balls are made without replacement. The probability that the first draw gives all white balls and the second draw gives all black balls is:
(1) 5/256
(2) 5/715
(3) 3/715
(4) 3/256
View Solution
The integral ∫(x⁸ - x²) dx / ((x¹² + 3x⁶ + 1) arctan(x³ + 1/x³)) is equal to:
(1) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)^(1/3) + C)
(2) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)^(1/2) + C)
(3) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³) + C)
(4) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)³ + C)
View Solution
If 2tan²(θ) - 5sec(θ) = 1 has exactly 7 solutions in the interval [0, nπ/2] for the least value of n ∈ N, then Σ(k=1 to n) k / 2k is equal to:
(1) 1/215(214 - 14)
(2) 1/214(215 - 15)
(3) 1 - 15/213
(4) 1/213(214 - 15)
View Solution
The position vectors of the vertices A, B, and C of a triangle are A = 2i - 3j + 3k, B = 2i + 2j + 3k, and C = -i + j + 3k respectively. If ℓ is the length of the angle bisector AD of ∠BAC, then 2ℓ² equals:
(1) 49
(2) 42
(3) 50
(4) 45
View Solution
If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the differential equation (x² - 4) dy - (y² - 3y) dx = 0, x > 2, y(4) = 3/2, and the slope of the curve is never zero, then y(10) equals:
(1) 3/(1 + 8^(1/4))
(2) 3/(1 + 2√2)
(3) 3/(1 - 2√2)
(4) 3/(1 - 8^(1/4))
View Solution
If e₁ is the eccentricity of the hyperbola x²/16 - y²/9 = 1 and e₂ is the eccentricity of the ellipse x²/a² + y²/b² = 1, which passes through the foci of the hyperbola and satisfies e₁e₂ = 1, then the length of the chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and passing through (0,2) is:
(1) 4√5
(2) 8√5/3
(3) 10√5/3
(4) 3√5
View Solution
Let α = (4!)! / (4!)³! and β = (5!)! / (5!)⁴!. Then:
(1) α ∈ N and β ∉ N
(2) α ∉ N and β ∈ N
(3) α ∈ N and β ∈ N
(4) α ∉ N and β ∉ N
View Solution
Let the position vectors of vertices A, B, and C of a triangle be 2i + 2j + k, i + 2j + 2k, and 2i + j + 2k respectively. Let l₁, l₂, and l₃ be lengths of perpendiculars from the orthocenter to sides AB, BC, and CA. Then l₁² + l₂² + l₃² equals:
(1) 1/5
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/3
View Solution
The mean and standard deviation of 15 observations were found to be 12 and 3 respectively. On rechecking, it was found that an observation was read as 10 instead of 12. If µ and σ² denote the mean and variance of the correct observations, then 15(µ + µ² + σ²) is equal to:
View Solution
The values of α for which lines 2x - y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0, and ax + 2y - 2 = 0 do not form a triangle are:
(1) (-2,1)
(2) (-3,0)
(3) (-3/2, 3/2)
(4) (0,3)
View Solution
If the area of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ y ≤ min(2x, 6x - x²)} is A, then 12A is equal to:
(1) 304
(2) 594
(3) 128
(4) 360
View Solution
Let Λ be a 2×2 real matrix and I be the identity matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation |Λ - xI| = 0 are -1 and 3, then the sum of the diagonal elements of the matrix Λ² is:
(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 14
(4) 7
View Solution
If the sum of squares of all real values of α, for which the lines 2x - y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0, and ax + 2y - 2 = 0 do not form a triangle is p, then the greatest integer less than or equal to p is:
(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 29
(4) 41
View Solution
The coefficient of x^2012 in the expansion of (1 - x)^2008(1 + x + x²)^2007 is:
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) 2
View Solution
If the solution curve of the differential equation dy/dx = (x + y - 2)/(x - y) passes through the point (2, 1), the value of y(10) equals:
(1) 3/(1 + (8)^(1/4))
(2) 3/(1 + (8)^(1/3))
(3) 1/(3 + (8)^(1/4))
(4) 2/(3 + (8)^(1/4))
View Solution
Let f(x) = ∫₀ˣ g(t) log((1 - t)/(1 + t)) dt, where g is a continuous odd function. If ∫(-π/2 to π/2) (f(x) x² cos(x)/(1 + e^x)) dx = π/2 - α, then α is equal to:
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5
View Solution
Consider a circle (x - α)² + (y - β)² = 50, where α, β > 0. If the circle touches the line y + x = 0 at point P, whose distance from the origin is 4√2, then (α + β)² is equal to:
(1) 100
(2) 150
(3) 50
(4) 200
View Solution
The lines (x - 2)/1 = (y - 1)/(-1) = (z - 7)/8 and (x + 3)/4 = (y + 2)/3 = (z + 2)/1 intersect at the point P. If the distance of P from the line (x + 1)/2 = (y - 1)/3 = (z - 1)/1 is l, then 14l² is equal to:
(1) 108
(2) 120
(3) 100
(4) 150
View Solution
Let the complex numbers α and 1/α lie on the circles |z - z₀| = 2 and |z - z₀| = 4 respectively, where z₀ = 1 + i. Then, the value of 100|α|² is:
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 15
View Solution
The equation of state of a real gas is given by P + (a/V²)(V - b) = RT, where P, V, and T are pressure, volume, and temperature. The dimensions of a/b² are similar to:
(1) P
(2) PV
(3) RT
(4) R
View Solution
The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J
View Solution
The primary side of a transformer is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to secondary winding is 10:1. Load resistance on the secondary side is 46 Ω. The power consumed in it is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10.0 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12.0 W
View Solution
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is:
(1) 5/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 7/5
(4) 9/7
View Solution
The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is:
(1) 16 ×10¹⁵ Hz
(2) 16 ×10¹² Hz
(3) 1.6 × 10¹² Hz
(4) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz
View Solution
A current of 200 µA deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60°. The current to cause deflection through π/10 radians is:
(1) 30 µA
(2) 120 µA
(3) 60 µA
(4) 180 µA
View Solution
The atomic mass of 6C¹² is 12.000000 u and that of 6C¹³ is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from 6C¹³, if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will be:
(1) 62.5 MeV
(2) 6.25 MeV
(3) 4.95 MeV
(4) 49.5 MeV
View Solution
A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme and lowest position are equal. The angle (θ) of deflection in the extreme position is:
(1) tan⁻¹(√2)
(2) 2tan⁻¹(1/2)
(3) tan⁻¹(1/2)
(4) 2tan⁻¹(1/√5)
View Solution
Three voltmeters are joined as shown. When a potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are V₁, V₂, and V₃. Choose the correct option:
(1) V₁ = V₂
(2) V₁ = V₃ - V₂
(3) V₁ + V₂ > V₃
(4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃
View Solution
The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J
View Solution
Given that the angular speed of the moon in its orbit about the earth is greater than that of the earth around the sun, identify the reason.
(1) Shorter period of orbit
(2) Larger radius
(3) Higher mass of the moon
(4) Higher gravitational pull
View Solution
The primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a turns ratio of 10:1. Load resistance is 46 Ω. The power consumed is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12 W
View Solution
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv is:
(1) 5/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 7/5
(4) 9/7
View Solution
The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is:
(1) 16 ×10¹⁵ Hz
(2) 16 ×10¹² Hz
(3) 1.6 × 10¹² Hz
(4) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz
View Solution
A current of 200 µA deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60°. The current to cause deflection through π/10 radians is:
(1) 30 µA
(2) 120 µA
(3) 60 µA
(4) 180 µA
View Solution
The atomic mass of 6C¹² is 12.000000 u and that of 6C¹³ is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from 6C¹³, if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will be:
(1) 62.5 MeV
(2) 6.25 MeV
(3) 4.95 MeV
(4) 49.5 MeV
View Solution
A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme and lowest position are equal. The angle (θ) of deflection in the extreme position is:
(1) tan⁻¹(√2)
(2) 2tan⁻¹(1/2)
(3) tan⁻¹(1/2)
(4) 2tan⁻¹(1/√5)
View Solution
Three voltmeters are joined as shown. When a potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are V₁, V₂, and V₃. Choose the correct option.
(1) V₁ = V₂
(2) V₁ = V₃ - V₂
(3) V₁ + V₂ > V₃
(4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃
View Solution
The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J
View Solution
The primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a turns ratio of 10:1. Load resistance is 46 Ω. The power consumed is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12 W
View Solution
The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1 = 2m and R2 = 4m carrying current I = 4A as per figure given below is α× 10−7 T. The value of α is:
View Solution
Two charges of −4µC and +4µC are placed at the points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2,−1, 5)m located in an electric field E⃗ = 0.20iV/cm. The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is 8√α× 10−5 Nm, where α = :
View Solution
A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm, both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity of sound is:
View Solution
A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of upper point A from the starting point is:
View Solution
The reading of a pressure meter attached with a closed pipe is 4.5×104 N/m2. On opening the valve, water starts flowing and the reading of pressure meter falls to 2.0×104 N/m2. The velocity of water is found to be √V m/s. The value of V is:
View Solution
A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the ratio of their kinetic energies is:
View Solution
A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen, placed on its focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of:
View Solution
The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus (Z = 50) of radius 9×10−13 cm is ×106 V:
View Solution
If Rydberg’s constant is R, the longest wavelength of radiation in Paschen series will be α×7R, where α = :
View Solution
A series LCR circuit with L = 100π mH, C = 10−3 F, and R = 10Ω, is connected across an ac source of 220V, 50Hz supply. The power factor of the circuit would be:
View Solution
The order of relative stability of the contributing structures is:
View Solution
Which among the following halide(s) will not show SN1 reaction:
(A) H2C = CH - CH2Cl
(B) CH3 - CH = CH - Cl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?
View Solution
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): In the Lanthanides, the formation of Ce4+ is favored by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II): Ce4+ is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state. Choose the correct option:
View Solution
Choose the correct option having all the elements with d10 electronic configuration from the following:
View Solution
Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:
View Solution
The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is:
View Solution
The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substance is:
View Solution
The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is a mixture of:
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution
Match List-I with List-II:
Correct Matching: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
View Solution
Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of:
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution
The bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only -2 oxidation state.
Statement (II): Down the group 16, stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state increases. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Identify from the following species in which d2sp3 hybridization is shown by the central atom:
View Solution
Identify the product formed in the following reaction: Cl-(CH2)4-Cl excess NH3 → A, NaOH → B + H2O + NaCl
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution
The quantity which changes with temperature is:
View Solution
Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?
View Solution
Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?
View Solution
The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:
View Solution
Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
View Solution
Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is:
View Solution
The number of non-polar molecules from the following is:
View Solution
Time required for completion of 99.9% of a first-order reaction is times of half life (t1/2) of the reaction:
View Solution
The spin-only magnetic moment value of square planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is B.M. (Nearest integer):
View Solution
For a certain thermochemical reaction M → N at T = 400 K, ∆H◦ = 77.2 kJ/mol, ∆S◦ = 122 J/K, log equilibrium constant (log K) is x × 10−1.
View Solution
Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g/mol) which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is x × 10−1 dm3.
View Solution
1 mole of PbS is oxidized by “X” moles of O3 to get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = ?
View Solution
The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will be - x × 10−2 V.
View Solution
9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100% completed is x × 10−1 g.
View Solution
Total number of compounds with chiral carbon atoms from the following is:
View Solution
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)
Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.
| Exam Date and Shift | Question Paper PDF |
|---|---|
| JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
| JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper | Check Here |
Also Check:
| JEE Main 2024 Paper Analysis | JEE Main 2024 Answer Key |
| JEE Main 2024 Cutoff | JEE Main 2024 Marks vs Rank |
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute
| Coaching Institutes | Question Paper with Solutions PDF |
|---|---|
| Aakash BYJUs | Download PDF |
| Reliable Institute | To be updated |
| Resonance | To be updated |
| Vedantu | Download PDF |
| Sri Chaitanya | To be updated |
| FIIT JEE | To be updated |
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Paper Analysis
JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern
| Feature | Question Paper Pattern |
|---|---|
| Examination Mode | Computer-based Test |
| Exam Language | 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu) |
| Number of Sections | Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics |
| Exam Duration | 3 hours |
| Sectional Time Limit | None |
| Total Marks | 300 marks |
| Total Number of Questions Asked | 90 Questions |
| Total Number of Questions to be Answered | 75 questions |
| Type of Questions | MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions |
| Section-wise Number of Questions | Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type, Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type |
| Marking Scheme | +4 for each correct answer |
| Negative Marking | -1 for each incorrect answer |
Read More:
- JEE Main 2024 question paper pattern and marking scheme
- Most important chapters in JEE Mains 2024, Check chapter wise weightage here














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