JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here for download. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 4 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
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JEE Main 4 April Shift 1 2024 Questions with Solution

SECTION-A

PHYSICS
 

Question 1:

Let f : R → R be a function given by:

1 − cos(2x)/x^2, for x < 0

beta * sqrt(1 − cos(x))/x, for x > 0.

If f is continuous at x = 0, then alpha^2 + beta^2 is equal to:

  • (1) 48
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (2) 12
View Solution

Question 2:

Three urns A, B, and C contain 7 red, 5 black; 5 red, 7 black; and 6 red, 6 black balls, respectively. One of the urns is selected at random, and a ball is drawn. If the ball drawn is black, then the probability that it is drawn from urn A is:

  • (1) 4/17
  • (2) 5/18
  • (3) 5/16
  • (4) 6/17
Correct Answer: (2) 5/18
View Solution

Question 3:

The vertices of a triangle are A(-1, 3), B(-2, 2), and C(3, -1). A new triangle is formed by shifting the sides of the triangle one unit inwards. Then the equation of the side of the new triangle nearest to the origin is:

  • (1) x − y − (2 + sqrt(2)) = 0
  • (2) −x + y − (2 − sqrt(2)) = 0
  • (3) x + y − (2 − sqrt(2)) = 0
  • (4) x + y + (2 − sqrt(2)) = 0
Correct Answer: (3) x + y − (2 − sqrt(2)) = 0
View Solution

The equation of line AC is x + y = 2. To find the equation of a line parallel to it and shifted inward by sqrt(2), the equation becomes x + y = 2 − sqrt(2).


Question 4:

If the solution y = y(x) of the differential equation (x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 2x + 2) dy = (2x^2 + 2x + 3) dx satisfies y(-1) = -pi/4, then y(0) is equal to:

  • (1) -pi/12
  • (2) 0
  • (3) pi/4
  • (4) pi/2
Correct Answer: (3) pi/4
View Solution

Question 5:

Let the sum of the maximum and minimum values of the function f(x) = (2x^2 − 3x + 8)/(2x^2 + 3x + 8) be m/n, where gcd(m, n) = 1. Then m + n is equal to:

  • (1) 182
  • (2) 217
  • (3) 195
  • (4) 201
Correct Answer: (4) 201
View Solution

Question 6:

One of the points of intersection of the curves y = 1 + 3x − 2x^2 and y = 1/x is (1/2, 2). Let the area of the region enclosed by these curves be 1/24 (l * sqrt(5) + m) − n ln(1 + sqrt(5)), where l, m, n are natural numbers. Then l + m + n is equal to:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 29
  • (4) 31
Correct Answer: (2) 30
View Solution

Question 7:

If the system of equations x + (sqrt(2) * sin(alpha)) * y + (sqrt(2) * cos(alpha)) * z = 0,

x + (cos(alpha)) * y + (sin(alpha)) * z = 0,

x + (sin(alpha)) * y − (cos(alpha)) * z = 0 has a non-trivial solution, then alpha in the interval (0, pi/2) is equal to:

  • (1) 3pi/4
  • (2) 7pi/24
  • (3) 5pi/24
  • (4) 11pi/24
Correct Answer: (3) 5pi/24
View Solution

Question 8:

There are 5 points P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 on the side AB, excluding A and B, of a triangle ABC. Similarly, there are 6 points P6, P7, ..., P11 on the side BC and 7 points P12, P13, ..., P18 on the side CA of the triangle. The number of triangles that can be formed using the points P1, P2, ..., P18 as vertices is:

  • (1) 776
  • (2) 751
  • (3) 796
  • (4) 771
Correct Answer: (2) 751
View Solution

The total ways to select 3 points from 18 is 816. Subtracting the collinear cases (65), the number of triangles is 751.


Question 9:

Let f(x) be defined as:

f(x) = x - 2, for -2 < x < 0

f(x) = 1 - 2x, for 0 <= x <= 2

Let h(x) = f(x) + f(x). Then the integral of h(x) dx is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 10:

The sum of all rational terms in the expansion of (1/2^5 + 1/5^3)^15 is equal to:

  • (1) 3133
  • (2) 633
  • (3) 931
  • (4) 6131
Correct Answer: (1) 3133
View Solution

Question 11:

The values of α for which the determinant |1 3 2; α+3 2 1; 1 1 3| = 0 lie in the interval:
(1) (-2,1)
(2) (-3,0)
(3) (-3/2,3/2)
(4) (0,3)

Correct Answer: (2)(-3,0).
View Solution

Question 12:

An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two successive draws of 4 balls are made without replacement. The probability that the first draw gives all white balls and the second draw gives all black balls is:
(1) 5/256
(2) 5/715
(3) 3/715
(4) 3/256

Correct Answer: (3)3/715.
View Solution

Question 13:

The integral ∫(x⁸ - x²) dx / ((x¹² + 3x⁶ + 1) arctan(x³ + 1/x³)) is equal to:
(1) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)^(1/3) + C)
(2) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)^(1/2) + C)
(3) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³) + C)
(4) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)³ + C)

Correct Answer: (1) log(arctan(x³ + 1/x³)^(1/3) + C).
View Solution

Question 14:

If 2tan²(θ) - 5sec(θ) = 1 has exactly 7 solutions in the interval [0, nπ/2] for the least value of n ∈ N, then Σ(k=1 to n) k / 2k is equal to:
(1) 1/215(214 - 14)
(2) 1/214(215 - 15)
(3) 1 - 15/213
(4) 1/213(214 - 15)

Correct Answer: 1/213(214 - 15).
View Solution

Question 15:

The position vectors of the vertices A, B, and C of a triangle are A = 2i - 3j + 3k, B = 2i + 2j + 3k, and C = -i + j + 3k respectively. If ℓ is the length of the angle bisector AD of ∠BAC, then 2ℓ² equals:
(1) 49
(2) 42
(3) 50
(4) 45

Correct Answer: (4) 45.
View Solution

Question 16:

If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the differential equation (x² - 4) dy - (y² - 3y) dx = 0, x > 2, y(4) = 3/2, and the slope of the curve is never zero, then y(10) equals:
(1) 3/(1 + 8^(1/4))
(2) 3/(1 + 2√2)
(3) 3/(1 - 2√2)
(4) 3/(1 - 8^(1/4))
 

Correct Answer: (4) 3/(1 + 8^(1/4)).
View Solution

Question 17:

If e₁ is the eccentricity of the hyperbola x²/16 - y²/9 = 1 and e₂ is the eccentricity of the ellipse x²/a² + y²/b² = 1, which passes through the foci of the hyperbola and satisfies e₁e₂ = 1, then the length of the chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and passing through (0,2) is:
(1) 4√5
(2) 8√5/3
(3) 10√5/3
(4) 3√5

Correct Answer: (3) 10√5/3.
View Solution

Question 18:

Let α = (4!)! / (4!)³! and β = (5!)! / (5!)⁴!. Then:
(1) α ∈ N and β ∉ N
(2) α ∉ N and β ∈ N
(3) α ∈ N and β ∈ N
(4) α ∉ N and β ∉ N

Correct Answer: (3) α ∈ N and β ∈ N.
View Solution

Question 19:

Let the position vectors of vertices A, B, and C of a triangle be 2i + 2j + k, i + 2j + 2k, and 2i + j + 2k respectively. Let l₁, l₂, and l₃ be lengths of perpendiculars from the orthocenter to sides AB, BC, and CA. Then l₁² + l₂² + l₃² equals:
(1) 1/5
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/3

Correct Answer: (2)1/2.
View Solution

Question 20:

The mean and standard deviation of 15 observations were found to be 12 and 3 respectively. On rechecking, it was found that an observation was read as 10 instead of 12. If µ and σ² denote the mean and variance of the correct observations, then 15(µ + µ² + σ²) is equal to:
 

Correct Answer: 2521.
View Solution

Question 21:

The values of α for which lines 2x - y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0, and ax + 2y - 2 = 0 do not form a triangle are:
(1) (-2,1)
(2) (-3,0)
(3) (-3/2, 3/2)
(4) (0,3)

Correct Answer: (2) (-3,0).
View Solution

Question 22:

If the area of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ y ≤ min(2x, 6x - x²)} is A, then 12A is equal to:
(1) 304
(2) 594
(3) 128
(4) 360

Correct Answer: (1) 304.
View Solution

Question 23:

Let Λ be a 2×2 real matrix and I be the identity matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation |Λ - xI| = 0 are -1 and 3, then the sum of the diagonal elements of the matrix Λ² is:
(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 14
(4) 7

Correct Answer: (1) 10.
View Solution

Question 24:

If the sum of squares of all real values of α, for which the lines 2x - y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0, and ax + 2y - 2 = 0 do not form a triangle is p, then the greatest integer less than or equal to p is:
(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 29
(4) 41

Correct Answer: (1)32.
View Solution

Question 25:

The coefficient of x^2012 in the expansion of (1 - x)^2008(1 + x + x²)^2007 is:
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) 2

Correct Answer: (1) 0.
View Solution

Question 26:

If the solution curve of the differential equation dy/dx = (x + y - 2)/(x - y) passes through the point (2, 1), the value of y(10) equals:
(1) 3/(1 + (8)^(1/4))
(2) 3/(1 + (8)^(1/3))
(3) 1/(3 + (8)^(1/4))
(4) 2/(3 + (8)^(1/4))

Correct Answer: 3/(1 + (8)^(1/4)).
View Solution

Question 27:

Let f(x) = ∫₀ˣ g(t) log((1 - t)/(1 + t)) dt, where g is a continuous odd function. If ∫(-π/2 to π/2) (f(x) x² cos(x)/(1 + e^x)) dx = π/2 - α, then α is equal to:
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

Correct Answer:(1) 2
View Solution

Question 28:

Consider a circle (x - α)² + (y - β)² = 50, where α, β > 0. If the circle touches the line y + x = 0 at point P, whose distance from the origin is 4√2, then (α + β)² is equal to:
(1) 100
(2) 150
(3) 50
(4) 200

Correct Answer:(1) 100
View Solution

Question 29:

The lines (x - 2)/1 = (y - 1)/(-1) = (z - 7)/8 and (x + 3)/4 = (y + 2)/3 = (z + 2)/1 intersect at the point P. If the distance of P from the line (x + 1)/2 = (y - 1)/3 = (z - 1)/1 is l, then 14l² is equal to:
(1) 108
(2) 120
(3) 100
(4) 150

Correct Answer: (1) 108.
View Solution

Question 30:

Let the complex numbers α and 1/α lie on the circles |z - z₀| = 2 and |z - z₀| = 4 respectively, where z₀ = 1 + i. Then, the value of 100|α|² is:
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 15

Correct Answer: (1) 20.
View Solution

Question 31:

The equation of state of a real gas is given by P + (a/V²)(V - b) = RT, where P, V, and T are pressure, volume, and temperature. The dimensions of a/b² are similar to:
(1) P
(2) PV
(3) RT
(4) R

Correct Answer: (1) P.
View Solution

Question 32:

The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J

Correct Answer: (3)  6232.5 J.
View Solution

Question 33:

The primary side of a transformer is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to secondary winding is 10:1. Load resistance on the secondary side is 46 Ω. The power consumed in it is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10.0 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12.0 W

Correct Answer: (3) 11.5 W.
View Solution

Question 34:

During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is:
(1) 5/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 7/5
(4) 9/7

Correct Answer: 3/2.
View Solution

Question 35:

The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is:
(1) 16 ×10¹⁵ Hz
(2) 16 ×10¹² Hz
(3) 1.6 × 10¹² Hz
(4) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz

Correct Answer: (1) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz.
View Solution

Question 36:

A current of 200 µA deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60°. The current to cause deflection through π/10 radians is:
(1) 30 µA
(2) 120 µA
(3) 60 µA
(4) 180 µA

Correct Answer: (3) 60 µA.
View Solution

Question 37:

The atomic mass of 6C¹² is 12.000000 u and that of 6C¹³ is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from 6C¹³, if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will be:
(1) 62.5 MeV
(2) 6.25 MeV
(3) 4.95 MeV
(4) 49.5 MeV

Correct Answer: (3) 4.95 MeV.
View Solution

Question 38:

A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme and lowest position are equal. The angle (θ) of deflection in the extreme position is:
(1) tan⁻¹(√2)
(2) 2tan⁻¹(1/2)
(3) tan⁻¹(1/2)
(4) 2tan⁻¹(1/√5)

Correct Answer: (2)  2tan⁻¹(1/2).
View Solution

Question 39:

Three voltmeters are joined as shown. When a potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are V₁, V₂, and V₃. Choose the correct option:
(1) V₁ = V₂
(2) V₁ = V₃ - V₂
(3) V₁ + V₂ > V₃
(4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃

Correct Answer: (4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃.
View Solution

Question 40:

The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J

Correct Answer: (3) 6232.5 J.
View Solution

Question 41:

Given that the angular speed of the moon in its orbit about the earth is greater than that of the earth around the sun, identify the reason.
(1) Shorter period of orbit
(2) Larger radius
(3) Higher mass of the moon
(4) Higher gravitational pull

Correct Answer: (1) Shorter period of orbit.
View Solution

Question 42:

The primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a turns ratio of 10:1. Load resistance is 46 Ω. The power consumed is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12 W

Correct Answer: (3) 11.5 W.
View Solution

Question 43:

During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv is:
(1) 5/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 7/5
(4) 9/7

Correct Answer: (2) 3/2.
View Solution

Question 44:

The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is:
(1) 16 ×10¹⁵ Hz
(2) 16 ×10¹² Hz
(3) 1.6 × 10¹² Hz
(4) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz

Correct Answer: (1) 1.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz.
View Solution

Question 45:

A current of 200 µA deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60°. The current to cause deflection through π/10 radians is:
(1) 30 µA
(2) 120 µA
(3) 60 µA
(4) 180 µA

Correct Answer: (3)  60 µA.
View Solution

Question 46:

The atomic mass of 6C¹² is 12.000000 u and that of 6C¹³ is 13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron from 6C¹³, if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will be:
(1) 62.5 MeV
(2) 6.25 MeV
(3) 4.95 MeV
(4) 49.5 MeV

Correct Answer: (3) 4.95 MeV.
View Solution

Question 47:

A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme and lowest position are equal. The angle (θ) of deflection in the extreme position is:
(1) tan⁻¹(√2)
(2) 2tan⁻¹(1/2)
(3) tan⁻¹(1/2)
(4) 2tan⁻¹(1/√5)

Correct Answer: (2) 2tan⁻¹(1/2).
View Solution

Question 48:

Three voltmeters are joined as shown. When a potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are V₁, V₂, and V₃. Choose the correct option.
(1) V₁ = V₂
(2) V₁ = V₃ - V₂
(3) V₁ + V₂ > V₃
(4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃

Correct Answer: (4) V₁ + V₂ = V₃.
View Solution

Question 49:

The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27°C is:
(1) 6845.5 J
(2) 5942.0 J
(3) 6232.5 J
(4) 5670.5 J

Correct Answer: (3) 6232.5 J.
View Solution

Question 50:

The primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a turns ratio of 10:1. Load resistance is 46 Ω. The power consumed is:
(1) 12.5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 11.5 W
(4) 12 W

Correct Answer: (3) 11.5 W.
View Solution

Question 51:

The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1 = 2m and R2 = 4m carrying current I = 4A as per figure given below is α× 10−7 T. The value of α is:

Correct Answer: 4.
View Solution

Question 52:

Two charges of −4µC and +4µC are placed at the points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2,−1, 5)m located in an electric field E⃗ = 0.20iV/cm. The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is 8√α× 10−5 Nm, where α = :

Correct Answer: 2.
View Solution

Question 53:

A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm, both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity of sound is:

Correct Answer: 294 m/s.
View Solution

Question 54:

A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of upper point A from the starting point is:

Correct Answer: 45 m.
View Solution

Question 55:

The reading of a pressure meter attached with a closed pipe is 4.5×104 N/m2. On opening the valve, water starts flowing and the reading of pressure meter falls to 2.0×104 N/m2. The velocity of water is found to be √V m/s. The value of V is:

Correct Answer: 50.
View Solution

Question 56:

A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the ratio of their kinetic energies is:

Correct Answer: 7.
View Solution

Question 57:

A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen, placed on its focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of:

Correct Answer: 30°.
View Solution

Question 58:

The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus (Z = 50) of radius 9×10−13 cm is ×106 V:

Correct Answer: 8.
View Solution

Question 59:

If Rydberg’s constant is R, the longest wavelength of radiation in Paschen series will be α×7R, where α = :

Correct Answer: 144.
View Solution

Question 60:

A series LCR circuit with L = 100π mH, C = 10−3 F, and R = 10Ω, is connected across an ac source of 220V, 50Hz supply. The power factor of the circuit would be:

Correct Answer: 1.
View Solution

Question 61:

The order of relative stability of the contributing structures is:

  1. I > II > III
  2. II > I > III
  3. I = II = III
  4. III > II > I
Correct Answer: (1) I > II > III.
View Solution

Question 62:

Which among the following halide(s) will not show SN1 reaction:
(A) H2C = CH - CH2Cl
(B) CH3 - CH = CH - Cl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), and (D) only
  2. (A) and (B) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (B) only
Correct Answer: (4) (B) only.
View Solution

Question 63:

Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?

  1. Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeled off.
  2. When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron does not take place.
  3. Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2 in water act as catalysts in the process of rusting.
  4. Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.
Correct Answer: (1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeled off.
View Solution

Question 64:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): In the Lanthanides, the formation of Ce4+ is favored by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II): Ce4+ is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state. Choose the correct option:

  1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
View Solution

Question 65:

Choose the correct option having all the elements with d10 electronic configuration from the following:

  1. Zn, Co2+, Ni, Fe2+, Cr
  2. Cu, Zn, Ag, Cd
  3. Pd, Ni, Fe2+, Cr
  4. Ni, Zn, Fe2+, Cu
Correct Answer: (2) Cu, Zn, Ag, Cd.
View Solution

Question 66:

Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:

  1. Phthalein dye test
  2. Lucas test
  3. Tollen’s test
  4. Carbylamine test
Correct Answer: (1) Phthalein dye test.
View Solution

Question 67:

The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is:

  1. C3H6O2
  2. C2H4O2
  3. CH2O
  4. C2H2O2
Correct Answer: (2) C2H4O2.
View Solution

Question 68:

The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substance is:

  1. Fractional distillation
  2. Fractional distillation under reduced pressure
  3. Distillation
  4. Steam distillation
Correct Answer: (4) Steam distillation.
View Solution

Question 69:

The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is a mixture of:

Correct Answer: (4)

Correct Answer: H2N-(CH2)4-NH2.
View Solution

Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II:

Correct Matching: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II).
View Solution

Question 71:

Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of:
Correct Answer: (4)

Correct Answer: H2N-(CH2)4-NH2.
View Solution

Question 72:

The bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
Correct Answer: (4)

Correct Answer: HOCH(CN)2.
View Solution

Question 73:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only -2 oxidation state.
Statement (II): Down the group 16, stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state increases. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
View Solution

Question 74:

Identify from the following species in which d2sp3 hybridization is shown by the central atom:

  1. [Co(NH3)6]3+
  2. BrF5
  3. [PtCl4]2−
  4. SF6
Correct Answer: (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+.
View Solution

Question 75:

Identify the product formed in the following reaction: Cl-(CH2)4-Cl excess NH3 → A, NaOH → B + H2O + NaCl
Correct Answer: (2)

Correct Answer: H2N-(CH2)4-NH2.
View Solution

Question 76:

The quantity which changes with temperature is:

  1. Molarity
  2. Mass percentage
  3. Molality
  4. Mole fraction
Correct Answer: (1) Molarity.
View Solution

Question 77:

Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?

  1. Primary
  2. Tertiary
  3. Secondary
  4. Quaternary
Correct Answer: (1) Primary.
View Solution

Question 78:

Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?

  1. N3−
  2. SO42−
  3. BrO3
  4. MnO4
Correct Answer: (1) N3−.
View Solution

Question 79:

The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:

  1. Ethane has an infinite number of conformations
  2. The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is 60°
  3. Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation
  4. The conformations of ethane are inter-convertible to one another
Correct Answer: (3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation.
View Solution

Question 80:

Identify the incorrect pair from the following:

  1. Photography - AgBr
  2. Polythene preparation - TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
  3. Haber process - Iron
  4. Wacker process - PtCl2
Correct Answer: (4) Wacker process - PtCl2.
View Solution

Question 81:

Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is:

Correct Answer: 4.
View Solution

Question 82:

The number of non-polar molecules from the following is:

Correct Answer: 4.
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Question 83:

Time required for completion of 99.9% of a first-order reaction is times of half life (t1/2) of the reaction:

Correct Answer: 10.
View Solution

Question 84:

The spin-only magnetic moment value of square planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is B.M. (Nearest integer):

Correct Answer: 0.
View Solution

Question 85:

For a certain thermochemical reaction M → N at T = 400 K, ∆H◦ = 77.2 kJ/mol, ∆S◦ = 122 J/K, log equilibrium constant (log K) is x × 10−1.

Correct Answer: 37.
View Solution

Question 86:

Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g/mol) which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is x × 10−1 dm3.

Correct Answer: 7.
View Solution

Question 87:

1 mole of PbS is oxidized by “X” moles of O3 to get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = ?

Correct Answer: 8.
View Solution

Question 88:

The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will be - x × 10−2 V.

Correct Answer: 18.
View Solution

Question 89:

9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100% completed is x × 10−1 g.

Correct Answer: 135.
View Solution

Question 90:

Total number of compounds with chiral carbon atoms from the following is:

Correct Answer: 5.
View Solution

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute To be updated
Resonance To be updated
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 4 April Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper