JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with answer key and solution pdf. NTA conducted the second shift on April 9, 2024, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, attempt any 5, 4 marks each (integer answer)
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question

JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 April 9 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

Let the foci of a hyperbola \( H \) coincide with the foci of the ellipse \( E : \frac{(x - 1)^2}{100} + \frac{(y - 1)^2}{75} = 1 \) and the eccentricity of the hyperbola \( H \) be the reciprocal of the eccentricity of the ellipse \( E \). If the length of the transverse axis of \( H \) is \( \alpha \) and the length of its conjugate axis is \( \beta \), then \( 3\alpha^2 + 2\beta^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 242
  • (2) 225
  • (3) 237
  • (4) 205

Question 2:

Let \( z \) be a complex number such that the real part of \[ \frac{z - 2i}{z + 2i} \] is zero. Then, the maximum value of \( |z - (6 + 8i)| \) is equal to:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) \(\infty\)
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 8

Question 3:

Let the range of the function \[ f(x) = \frac{1}{2 + \sin 3x + \cos 3x}, \, x \in \mathbb{R} \, \text{be } [a, b]. \] If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are respectively the arithmetic mean (A.M.) and the geometric mean (G.M.) of \( a \) and \( b \), then \( \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \( \sqrt{\pi} \)
  • (4) \( \pi \)

Question 4:

Let \[ \int_{0}^{x} \sqrt{1 - (y'(t))^2} \, dt = \int_{0}^{x} y(t) \, dt, \quad 0 \leq x \leq 3, \, y \geq 0, \, y(0) = 0. \] Then, at \( x = 2 \), \( y'' + y + 1 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 5:

Two vertices of a triangle \( \triangle ABC \) are \( A(3, -1) \) and \( B(-2, 3) \), and its orthocentre is \( P(1, 1) \). If the coordinates of the point \( C \) are \( (\alpha, \beta) \) and the centre of the circle circumscribing the triangle \( \triangle PAB \) is \( (h, k) \), then the value of \[ (\alpha + \beta) + 2(h + k) \] equals:

  • (1) 51
  • (2) 81
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 15

Question 6:

The integral \[ \int_{1/4}^{3/4} \cos\left( 2 \cot^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{1 - x}{1 + x}} \right) \, dx \] is equal to:

  • (1) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( -\frac{1}{4} \)

Question 7:

Let \( \alpha, \beta; \, \alpha > \beta \), be the roots of the equation \[ x^2 - \sqrt{2}x - \sqrt{3} = 0. \] Let \( P_n = \alpha^n - \beta^n, \, n \in \mathbb{N} \). Then \[ \left( 11\sqrt{3} - 10\sqrt{2} \right) P_{10} + \left( 11\sqrt{2} + 10 \right) P_{11} - 11P_{12} \] is equal to:  

  • (1) \( 10\sqrt{2}P_9 \)
  • (2) \( 10\sqrt{3}P_9 \)
  • (3) \( 11\sqrt{2}P_9 \)
  • (4) \( 11\sqrt{3}P_9 \)

Question 8:

If \( \log_e y = 3 \sin^{-1}x \), then \( (1 - x)^2 y'' - xy' \) at \( x = \frac{1}{2} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 9e^{\pi/6} \)
  • (2) \( 3e^{\pi/6} \)
  • (3) \( 3e^{\pi/2} \)
  • (4) \( 9e^{\pi/2} \)

Question 9:

If an unbiased dice is rolled thrice, then the probability of getting a greater number in the \( i \)-th roll than the number obtained in the \( (i-1) \)-th roll, \( i = 2, 3 \), is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{54} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{54} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{54} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{54} \)

Question 10:

\[ \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\int_{x^3}^{\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)^3} \left( \sin\left(2t^{1/3}\right) + \cos\left(t^{1/3}\right) \right) \, dt}{\left( x - \frac{\pi}{2} \right)^2} \] is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{9\pi^2}{8} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{11\pi^2}{10} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3\pi^2}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5\pi^2}{9} \)

Question 11:

The value of the integral \[ \int_{-1}^{2} \log_e \left( x + \sqrt{x^2 + 1} \right) \, dx \] is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{5} - \sqrt{2} + \log_e \left( \frac{9 + 4\sqrt{5}}{1 + \sqrt{2}} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} - \sqrt{5} + \log_e \left( \frac{9 + 4\sqrt{5}}{1 + \sqrt{2}} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{5} - \sqrt{2} + \log_e \left( \frac{7 + 4\sqrt{5}}{1 + \sqrt{2}} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2} - \sqrt{5} + \log_e \left( \frac{7 + 4\sqrt{5}}{1 + \sqrt{2}} \right) \)

Question 12:

Between the following two statements: {Statement-I: Let \[ \vec{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 3\hat{k} \quad \text{and} \quad \vec{b} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k}. \] Then the vector \( \vec{r} \) satisfying \[ \vec{a} \times \vec{r} = \vec{a} \times \vec{b} \quad \text{and} \quad \vec{a} \cdot \vec{r} = 0 \] is of magnitude \( \sqrt{10} \). {Statement-II: In a triangle \( \triangle ABC \), \[ \cos 2A + \cos 2B + \cos 2C \geq -\frac{3}{2}. \]

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Question 13:

If the variance of the frequency distribution is 160, then the value of \( c \in \mathbb{N} \) is: \[ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline x & c & 2c & 3c & 4c & 5c & 6c \\ \hline f & 2 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ \hline \end{array} \]

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 6

Question 14:

Let \[ B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 \\ 1 & 5 \end{bmatrix} \] and \(A\) be a \(2 \times 2\) matrix such that \[ AB^{-1} = A^{-1}. \] If \(BCB^{-1} = A\) and \[ C^4 + \alpha C^2 + \beta I = O, \] then \(2\beta - \alpha\) is equal to: 

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10

Question 15:

\(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{e - (1 + 2x)^{\frac{1}{2x}}}{x} \quad \text{is equal to:}\)

  • (1) e
  • (2) \( -\frac{2}{e} \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( e - e^2 \)

Question 16:

Consider the line \(L\) passing through the points \((1, 2, 3)\) and \((2, 3, 5)\). The distance of the point \[ \left( \frac{11}{3}, \frac{11}{3}, \frac{19}{3} \right) \] from the line \(L\) along the line \[ \frac{3x - 11}{2} = \frac{3y - 11}{1} = \frac{3z - 19}{2} \] is equal to: 

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 17:

The area (in square units) of the region enclosed by the ellipse \[ x^2 + 3y^2 = 18 \] in the first quadrant below the line \( y = x \) is: 

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3\pi} + \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3}\pi \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{3\pi} - \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{3\pi} + 1 \)

Question 18:

Let \( a, ar, ar^2, \dots \) be an infinite G.P. If \[ \sum_{n=0}^\infty ar^n = 57 \quad \text{and} \quad \sum_{n=0}^\infty a^3 r^{3n} = 9747, \] then \( a + 18r \) is equal to: 

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 38
  • (4) 31

Question 19:

The sum of the coefficients of \( x^{2/3} \) and \( x^{-2/5} \) in the binomial expansion of \[ \left( x^{2/3} + \frac{1}{2} x^{-2/5} \right)^9 \] is: 

  • (1) \( \frac{21}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{69}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{63}{16} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{19}{4} \)

Question 20:

Let \[ \vec{a} = 2\hat{i} + \alpha \hat{j} + \hat{k}, \quad \vec{b} = -\hat{i} + \hat{k}, \quad \vec{c} = \beta \hat{j} - \hat{k}, \] where \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are integers and \( \alpha \beta = -6 \). Let the values of the ordered pair \( (\alpha, \beta) \) for which the area of the parallelogram of diagonals \( \vec{a} + \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{b} + \vec{c} \) is \( \frac{\sqrt{21}}{2} \), be \( (\alpha_1, \beta_1) \) and \( (\alpha_2, \beta_2) \). Then \( \alpha_1^2 + \beta_1^2 - \alpha_2 \beta_2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 17
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 19

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \[ A = \{(x, y) : 2x + 3y = 23, \, x, y \in \mathbb{N}\} \] and \[ B = \{x : (x, y) \in A\}. \] Then the number of one-one functions from \( A \) to \( B \) is equal to _________ .


Question 22:

Let \( A, B, \) and \( C \) be three points on the parabola \( y^2 = 6x \), and let the line segment \( AB \) meet the line \( L \) through \( C \) parallel to the \( x \)-axis at the point \( D \). Let \( M \) and \( N \) respectively be the feet of the perpendiculars from \( A \) and \( B \) on \( L \). Then \[ \left( \frac{\text{AM} \cdot \text{BN}}{\text{CD}} \right)^2 \] is equal to ______ .


Question 23:

Consider the matrices: \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -5 \\ 3 & m \end{bmatrix}, \quad B = \begin{bmatrix} 20 \\ m \end{bmatrix}, \quad \text{and} \quad X = \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix}. \] Let the set of all \( m \), for which the system of equations \( AX = B \) has a negative solution (i.e., \( x < 0 \) and \( y <0 \)), be the interval \( (a, b) \). Then \[ 8 \int_a^b |\det(A)| \, dm \] is equal to _____ .


Question 24:

For a differentiable function \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \), suppose \[ f'(x) = 3f(x) + \alpha, \] where \( \alpha \in \mathbb{R} \), \( f(0) = 1 \), and \[ \lim_{x \to -\infty} f(x) = 7. \] Then \( 9f(-\log_2 3) \) is equal to __________ .


Question 25:

Consider the circle \( C : x^2 + y^2 = 4 \) and the parabola \( P : y^2 = 8x \). If the set of all values of \( \alpha \), for which three chords of the circle \( C \) on three distinct lines passing through the point \( (\alpha, 0) \) are bisected by the parabola \( P \), is the interval \( (p, q) \), then \( (2q - p)^2 \) is equal to ________ .


Question 26:

The square of the distance of the image of the point \( (6, 1, 5) \) in the line \[ \frac{x - 1}{3} = \frac{y}{2} = \frac{z - 2}{4}, \] from the origin is _____ .


Question 27:

Let the set of all values of \( p \), for which \[ f(x) = (p^2 - 6p + 8)(\sin^2 2x - \cos^2 2x) + 2(2 - p)x + 7 \] does not have any critical point, be the interval \( (a, b) \). Then \( 16ab \) is equal to _____ .


Question 28:

The number of integers, between 100 and 1000 having the sum of their digits equals to 14, is______ .


Question 29:

Let the inverse trigonometric functions take principal values. The number of real solutions of the equation \[ 2 \sin^{-1} x + 3 \cos^{-1} x = \frac{2\pi}{5}, \] is ______ .


Question 30:

If \[ \left( \frac{1}{\alpha + 1} + \frac{1}{\alpha + 2} + \dots + \frac{1}{\alpha + 1012} \right) - \left( \frac{1}{2 \cdot 1} + \frac{1}{4 \cdot 3} + \frac{1}{6 \cdot 5} + \dots + \frac{1}{2024 \cdot 2023} \right) \]


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

The effective resistance between A and B, if resistance of each resistor is R, will be

  • (1) \( \frac{2R}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8R}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5R}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4R}{3} \)

Question 32:

Logic gates
In the truth table of the above circuit the value of X and Y are

  • (1) 1,1
  • (2) 1,0
  • (3) 0,1
  • (4) 0,0

Question 33:

Two cars are travelling towards each other at a speed of \( 20 \, \text{m/s} \) each. When the cars are \( 300 \, \text{m} \) apart, both the drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at the rate of \( 2 \, \text{m/s}^2 \). The distance between them when they come to rest is:

  • (1) 200 m
  • (2) 50 m
  • (3) 100 m
  • (4) 25 m

Question 34:

A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two smaller nuclei with their masses in the ratio of 2:1. After disintegration they will move

  • (1) In opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 1:2 respectively
  • (2) In opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 2:1 respectively
  • (3) In the same direction with same speed.
  • (4) In opposite directions with the same speed.

Question 35:

A satellite of \( 10^3 \, \text{kg} \) mass is revolving in a circular orbit of radius \( 2R \). If \[ \frac{10^4 R}{6} \, \text{J} \] energy is supplied to the satellite, it would revolve in a new circular orbit of radius: \[ \text{(use } g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2, \, R = \text{radius of earth)}. \]

  • (1) 2.5 R
  • (2) 3 R
  • (3) 4 R
  • (4) 6 R

Question 36:

The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is \[ B_y = (3.5 \times 10^{-7}) \sin \left( 1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t \right) \, \text{T}. \] The corresponding electric field will be:

  • (1) \( E_y = 1.17 \sin \left( 1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t \right) \, \text{V/m} \)
  • (2) \( E_z = 105 \sin \left( 1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t \right) \, \text{V/m} \)
  • (3) \( E_z = 1.17 \sin \left( 1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t \right) \, \text{V/m} \)
  • (4) \( E_y = 10.5 \sin \left( 1.5 \times 10^3 x + 0.5 \times 10^{11} t \right) \, \text{V/m} \)

Question 37:

A real gas within a closed chamber at \( 27^\circ \text{C} \) undergoes the cyclic process as shown in the figure. The gas obeys \( PV^3 = RT \) equation for the path \( A \) to \( B \). The net work done in the complete cycle is (assuming \( R = 8 \, \text{J/mol K} \)):
Graph cycle

  • (1) 225 J
  • (2) 205 J
  • (3) 20 J
  • (4) -20 J

Question 38:

Five charges +q, +5q, –2q, +3q and –4q are situated as shown in the figure. The electric flux due to this configuration through the surface S is
charges

  • (1) \( \frac{5q}{\epsilon_0} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4q}{\epsilon_0} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3q}{\epsilon_0} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{q}{\epsilon_0} \)

Question 39:

UV light of 4.13 eV is incident on a photosensitive metal surface having work function 3.13 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons will be

  • (1) 4.13 eV
  • (2) 1 eV
  • (3) 3.13 eV
  • (4) 7.26 eV

Question 40:

The I-V characteristics of an electronic device shown in the figure. The device is
I-V Graph

  • (1) a solar cell
  • (2) a transistor which can be used as an amplifier
  • (3) a zener diode which can be used as voltage regulator
  • (4) a diode which can be used as a rectifier

Question 41:

The energy released in the fusion of 2 kg of hydrogen deep in the sun is \(E_H\) and the energy released in the fission of 2 kg of \(^{235}U\) is \(E_U\). The ratio \(\frac{E_H}{E_U}\) is approximately:

  • (1) 9.13
  • (2) 15.04
  • (3) 7.62
  • (4) 25.6

Question 42:

A hydrogen atom in ground state is given an energy of 10.2 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted due to transition of electrons ?

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 1

Question 43:

A proton and a deuteron (\( q = +e, \, m = 2.0u \)) having the same kinetic energies enter a region of uniform magnetic field \( \vec{B} \), moving perpendicular to \( \vec{B} \). The ratio of the radius \( r_d \) of the deuteron path to the radius \( r_p \) of the proton path is:

  • (1) 1 : 1
  • (2) \( 1 : \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 1 : 2 \)

Question 44:

The temperature of a gas is \(-78^\circ\text{C}\) and the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is \( K \). The temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of the same gas becomes \( 2K \) is:

  • (1) \(-39^\circ\text{C}\)
  • (2) \(117^\circ\text{C}\)
  • (3) \(127^\circ\text{C}\)
  • (4) \(-78^\circ\text{C}\)

Question 45:

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. The ratio between the volume of the first and the second bubble is :

  • (1) 1 : 9
  • (2) 1 : 3
  • (3) 1 : 81
  • (4) 1 : 27

Question 46:

A spherical ball of radius \( 1 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{m} \) and density \( 10^5 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \) falls freely under gravity through a distance \( h \) before entering a tank of water. If after entering in water the velocity of the ball does not change, then the value of \( h \) is approximately: \[ \text{(The coefficient of viscosity of water is } 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{N s/m}^2 \text{)} \]

  • (1) 2296 m
  • (2) 2249 m
  • (3) 2518 m
  • (4) 2396 m

Question 47:

The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass \( m \) and energy \( E \) is \[\lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}.\]The dimensional formula for Planck's constant is:

  • (1) \([ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\)
  • (2) \([ML^2T^{-1}]\)
  • (3) \([MLT^{-2}]\)
  • (4) \([M^2L^2T^{-2}]\)

Question 48:

A square loop of side 15 cm being moved towards right at a constant speed of 2 cm/s as shown in figure. The front edge enters the 50 cm wide magnetic field at t = 0. The value of induced emf in the loop at t = 10 s will be :

  • (1) 0.3 mV
  • (2) 4.5 mV
  • (3) zero
  • (4) 3 mV

Question 49:

A 1 kg mass is suspended from the ceiling by a rope of length 4m. A horizontal force 'F' is applied at the mid point of the rope so that the rope makes an angle of 45° with respect to the vertical axis as shown in figure. The magnitude of F is
Cieling

  • (1) \( \frac{10}{\sqrt{2}} \, \text{N} \)
  • (2) \( 1 \, \text{N} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{10 \times \sqrt{2}} \, \text{N} \)
  • (4) \( 10 \, \text{N} \)

Question 50:

The following figure represents two biconvex lenses \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) having focal lengths 10 cm and 15 cm, respectively. The distance between \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \) is:
bi convex lens

  • (1) 10 cm
  • (2) 15 cm
  • (3) 25 cm
  • (4) 35 cm

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

The resultant of two vectors \( \vec{A} \) and \( \vec{B} \) is perpendicular to \( \vec{A} \) and its magnitude is half that of \( \vec{B} \). The angle between vectors \( \vec{A} \) and \( \vec{B} \) is ________ .


Question 52:

An electric field \( \vec{E} = (2x \hat{i}) \, \text{N C}^{-1} \) exists in space. A cube of side \( 2 \, \text{m} \) is placed in the space as per the figure given below. The electric flux through the cube is __________ \( \text{N m}^2/\text{C} \).


Question 53:

To determine the resistance \( R \) of a wire, a circuit is designed below. The V-I characteristic curve for this circuit is plotted for the voltmeter and the ammeter readings as shown in the figure. The value of \( R \) is \( \dots \dots \dots \Omega \).
Resistance diagram
Graph


Question 54:

A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length \( l \). When it slips down the plane, it takes \( t \) s. When it rolls down the plane, then it takes \[ \left( \frac{\alpha}{2} \right)^{1/2} t \, \text{s}, \] where \( \alpha \) is __________ .


Question 55:

A force \( (3x^2 + 2x - 5) \, \text{N} \) displaces a body from \( x = 2 \, \text{m} \) to \( x = 4 \, \text{m} \). The work done by this force is _________ J.


Question 56:

A particle of mass \( 0.50 \, \text{kg} \) executes simple harmonic motion under force \( F = -50 \, (\text{N m}^{-1}) x \). The time period of oscillation is \( \frac{x}{35} \, \text{s} \). The value of \( x \) is \( \dots \dots \dots \dots \). \[ \text{(Given } \pi = \frac{22}{7} \text{)} \]


Question 57:

At room temperature \( 27^\circ\text{C} ,\) the resistance of a heating element is \(50 \, \Omega\). The temperature coefficient of the material is \(2.4 \times 10^{-4}\)  \(^\circ\text{C}^{-1} \). The temperature of the element, when its resistance is \(62 \, \Omega\) , is _________\(\degree C\).


Question 58:

A straight magnetic strip has a magnetic moment of \( 44 \, \text{A m}^2 \). If the strip is bent in a semicircular shape, its magnetic moment will be \( \dots \) A m\(^2\). \[ \text{(Given } \pi = \frac{22}{7} \text{)} \]


Question 59:

Monochromatic light of wavelength \( 500 \, \text{nm} \) is used in Young's double slit experiment. An interference pattern is obtained on a screen. When one of the slits is covered with a very thin glass plate (refractive index \( = 1.5 \)), the central maximum is shifted to a position previously occupied by the 4th bright fringe. The thickness of the glass plate is ___________ \( \mu \text{m} \).


Question 60:

A capacitor of reactance \( 4 \sqrt{3} \, \Omega \) and a resistor of resistance \( 4 \, \Omega \) are connected in series with an AC source of peak value \( 8 \sqrt{2} \, \text{V} \). The power dissipation in the circuit is ___________ W.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Chemical Reaction
In the above reaction product ’P’ is

  • (1) Product 1
  • (2) Product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) Product 4

Question 62:

The correct stability order of the following resonance structures of \( \text{CH}_3 - \text{CH} = \text{CH} - \text{CHO} \) is:

  • (1) II > III > I
  • (2) III > II > I
  • (3) I > II > III
  • (4) II > I > III

Question 63: Match List I with List II
List-I (Element)List-II (Electronic Configuration)
A. NI. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p5
B. SII. [Ne] 3s2 3p4
C. BrIII. [He] 2s2 2p3
D. KrIV. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 64:

The electronic configuration of Einsteinium is :(Given atomic number of Einsteinium = 99)

  • (1) [Rn] \( 5f^{12} 6d^0 7s^2 \)
  • (2) [Rn] \( 5f^{11} 6d^0 7s^2 \)
  • (3) [Rn] \( 5f^{13} 6d^0 7s^2 \)
  • (4) [Rn] \( 5f^{10} 6d^0 7s^2 \)

Question 65:

Which of the following compound can give positive iodoform test when treated with aqueous KOH solution followed by potassium hypoiodite.

  • (1) Compound 1
  • (2) Compound 2
  • (3) Compound 3
  • (4) Compound 4

Question 66:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The higher oxidation states are more stable down the group among transition elements unlike p-block elements.
Statement II : Copper can not liberate hydrogen from weak acids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Question 67:

Which of the following compounds will give silver mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate?
(A) Formic acid
(B) Formaldehyde
(C) Benzaldehyde
(D) Acetone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) C and D only
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) A only
  • (4) B and C only

Question 68:

Total number of stereo isomers possible for the given structure :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 3

Question 69: Match List I with List II
LIST-I (Cell)LIST-II (Use/Property/Reaction)
A. Leclanche cellIV. Reaction at anode Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
B. Ni-Cd cellIII. Rechargeable
C. Fuel cellI. Converts energy of combustion into electrical energy
D. Mercury cellII. Does not involve any ion in solution and is used in hearing aids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 70:

The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency \( 'A' \times 10^{12} \, \text{hertz} \) and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of \( \frac{1}{'B'} \, \text{watt per steradian} \). 'A' and 'B' are respectively:

  • (1) 540 and \( \frac{1}{683} \)
  • (2) 540 and 683
  • (3) 450 and \( \frac{1}{683} \)
  • (4) 450 and 683

Question 71: Match List I with List II
List-IList-II
A. Melting point [K]I. Tl > In > Ga > Al > B
B. Ionic Radius [M3/pm]II. B > Tl > Al ≈ Ga ≈ In
C. ΔiH1 [kJ mol-1]III. Tl > In > Al > Ga > B
D. Atomic Radius [pm]IV. B > Al > Tl > In > Ga

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 72:

Which out of the following is a correct equation to show change in molar conductivity with respect to concentration for a weak electrolyte, if the symbols carry their usual meaning

  • (1) \( \Lambda_m^2 C - K_a \Lambda_m + K_a \Lambda_m^{\circ 2} = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \Lambda_m - \Lambda_m^{\circ} + AC \frac{1}{2} = 0 \)
  • (3) \( \Lambda_m - \Lambda_m^{\circ} - AC \frac{1}{2} = 0 \)
  • (4) \( \Lambda_m^2 C + K_a \Lambda_m^{\circ 2} - K_a \Lambda_m^{\circ} = 0 \)

Question 73:

The correct increasing order for bond angles among \( \text{BF}_3, \, \text{PF}_3, \, \text{and} \, \text{CF}_3 \) is:

  • (1) \( \text{PF}_3 \, < \, \text{BF}_3 \, < \, \text{CF}_3 \)
  • (2) \( \text{BF}_3 \, < \, \text{PF}_3 \, < \, \text{CF}_3 \)
  • (3) \( \text{CF}_3 \, < \, \text{PF}_3 \, < \, \text{BF}_3 \)
  • (4) \( \text{BF}_3 \, = \, \text{PF}_3 \, < \, \text{CF}_3 \)

Question 74:

For a sparingly soluble salt \( \text{AB}_2 \), the equilibrium concentrations of \( \text{A}^{2+} \) ions and \( \text{B}^- \) ions are \( 1.2 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{M} \) and \( 0.24 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{M} \), respectively. The solubility product of \( \text{AB}_2 \) is:

  • (1) \( 0.069 \times 10^{-12} \)
  • (2) \( 6.91 \times 10^{-12} \)
  • (3) \( 0.276 \times 10^{-12} \)
  • (4) \( 27.65 \times 10^{-12} \)

Question 75: Match List I with List II
LIST-ILIST-II
A. K2[Ni(CN)4]I. sp3
B. [Ni(CO)4]II. sp3d2
C. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3III. dsp2
D. Na3[CoF6]IV. d2sp3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 76:

Match List I with List II

test observation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 77:

The incorrect statement about Glucose is :

  • (1) Glucose is soluble in water because of having aldehyde functional group
  • (2) Glucose remains in multiple isomeric form in its aqueous solution
  • (3) Glucose is an aldohexose
  • (4) Glucose is one of the monomer unit in sucrose

Question 78:

Major product of the following reaction is
Chemical Reaction

  • (1) Product 1
  • (2) Product 2
  • (3) Product 3
  • (4) Product 4

Question 79:

The coordination environment of \( \text{Ca}^{2+} \) ion in its complex with \( \text{EDTA}^{4-} \) is:

  • (1) tetrahedral
  • (2) octahedral
  • (3) square planar
  • (4) trigonal prismatic

Question 80:

The incorrect statement regarding ethyne is

  • (1) The C–C bonds in ethyne is shorter than that in ethene
  • (2) Both carbons are sp hybridised
  • (3) Ethyne is linear
  • (4) The carbon-carbon bonds in ethyne is weaker than that in ethene

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

Based on Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, the uncertainty in the velocity of the electron to be found within an atomic nucleus of diameter \( 10^{-15} \, \text{m} \) is \( \dots \dots  \times 10^9 \, \text{ms}^{-1} \) (nearest integer). \[ \text{[Given: mass of electron} = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \, \text{kg, Planck's constant (} h \text{)} = 6.626 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{Js]} \] \[ \text{(Value of } \pi = 3.14) \]


Question 82:

TLC
In the given TLC, the distance of spot \( A \) and \( B \) are 5 cm and 7 cm, from the bottom of the TLC plate, respectively. The \( R_f \) value of \( B \) is \( x \times 10^{-1} \) times more than \( A \). The value of \( x \) is _________ .


Question 83:

Number of compounds from the following which cannot undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions is :____
toluene, nitrobenzene, xylene, cumene, aniline, chlorobenzene, m-nitroaniline, m-dinitrobenzene


Question 84:

Total number of electrons present in \( (\pi^*) \) molecular orbitals of \( \text{O}_2 \), \( \text{O}_2^+ \), and \( \text{O}_2^- \) is __________ .


Question 85:

A transition metal 'M' among Sc, Ti, V , Cr, Mn and Fe has the highest second ionisation enthalpy. The spin only magnetic moment value of M+
ion is ______ BM (Near integer) (Given atomic number Sc : 21, Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr : 24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26)


Question 86:

Consider the following first-order gas phase reaction at constant temperature \[ \text{A(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{B(g)} + \text{C(g)} \] If the total pressure of the gases is found to be 200 torr after 23 sec. and 300 torr upon the complete decomposition of \( \text{A} \) after a very long time, then the rate constant of the given reaction is \( \dots \dots \times 10^{-2} \, \text{s}^{-1} \) (nearest integer). \[ \text{[Given: } \log_{10}(2) = 0.301 \text{]} \]


Question 87:

When \( \Delta H_{\text{vap}} = 30 \, \text{kJ/mol} \) and \( \Delta S_{\text{vap}} = 75 \, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1} \), then the temperature of vapour, at one atmosphere, is \( \dots \dots \dots \, \text{K} \).


Question 88:

Consider the following test for a group-IV cation. \[ \text{M}^{2+} + \text{H}_2\text{S} \rightarrow \text{A (Black precipitate)} + \text{byproduct} \] \[ \text{A + aqua regia} \rightarrow \text{B + NOCl + S + H}_2\text{O} \] \[ \text{B + KNO}_2 + \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} \rightarrow \text{C + byproduct} \] The spin-only magnetic moment value of the metal complex \( \text{C} \) is \( \dots \dots \dots \) BM. (Nearest integer)


Question 89:

The number of oxygen atoms present in chemical formula of fuming sulphuric acid is _______.


Question 90:

The vapour pressure of pure benzene and methyl benzene at \( 27^\circ \text{C} \) is given as 80 Torr and 24 Torr, respectively. The mole fraction of methyl benzene in vapour phase, in equilibrium with an equimolar mixture of those two liquids (ideal solution) at the same temperature, is \( \dots  \times 10^{-2} \) (nearest integer).

JEE Main 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Particulars Details
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Paper B.E./B.Tech
Medium of Exam 13 languages: English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Urdu
Duration 3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions (attempt any 5 of 10 per subject)
Total Marks 300 marks
Subjects Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Marking Scheme +4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions
Total Questions 90 Questions (30 per subject), 75 to be attempted
Eligibility Passed or appearing in Class 12 with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

Check JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 for other shifts.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 2 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Vedantu Download PDF
Reliable Institute To be updated
Resonance To be updated
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 2 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 9 April Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper