JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 question paper with solutions and answers pdf is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The memory-based JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the Feb 1 Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.
Related Links:

JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper PDF Download

JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper With Solution download icon Download Check Solution

JEE Main Question with Answer Key and Solution

Question 1:

A bag contains 8 balls, whose colours are either white or black. 4 balls are drawn at random without replacement and it was found that 2 balls are white and other 2 balls are black. The probability that the bag contains equal number of white and black balls is:

  • (1) 2/5
  • (2) 2/7
  • (3) 1/7
  • (4) 1/5
Correct Answer: (2) 2/7
View Solution

Question 2:

The value of the integral ∫ (from 0 to π/4) of x dx / (sin⁴(2x) + cos⁴(2x)) equals:

  • (1) √2π²/8
  • (2) √2π²/16
  • (3) √2π²/32
  • (4) √2π²/64
Correct Answer: (3) √2π²/32
View Solution

Question 3:

If A = [[√2, 1], [-1, √2]], B = [[1, 0], [0, 1]], C = ABAT, and X = AT C² A, then det(X) is equal to:

  • (1) 243
  • (2) 729
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 891
Correct Answer: (2) 729
View Solution

Question 4:

If tan A = 1 / √(x(x² + x + 1)), tan B = √x / √(x² + x + 1), and tan C = √(x³ + x² + x)1/2, 0 < A, B, C < π/2, then A + B is equal to:

  • (1) C
  • (2) π - C
  • (3) 2π - C
  • (4) π/2 - C
Correct Answer: (1) C
View Solution

Question 5:

If n is the number of ways five different employees can sit into four indistinguishable offices where any office may have any number of persons including zero, then n is equal to:

  • (1) 47
  • (2) 53
  • (3) 51
  • (4) 43
Correct Answer: (3) 51
View Solution

Question 6:

Let S = {z ∈ C : |z − 1| = 1 and (√2 − 1)(z + z̄) = (z̄ − z) = 2√2}. Let z₁, z₂ ∈ S be such that |z₁| = maxz∈S |z| and |z₂| = minz∈S |z|. Then √|z₁ − z₂|² equals:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (4) 2
View Solution

Question 7:

Let the median and the mean deviation about the median of 7 observations 170, 125, 230, 190, 210, a, b be 170 and 205/7 respectively. Then the mean deviation about the mean of these 7 observations is:

  • (1) 31
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 32
Correct Answer: (3) 30
View Solution

Question 8:

Let a⃗ = −5i⃗ + 3j⃗ − 3k⃗, b⃗ = i⃗ + 2j⃗ − 4k⃗ and c⃗ = ((a⃗ × b⃗) × i⃗) × i⃗. Then c⃗ · (−i⃗ + j⃗ + k⃗) is equal to:

  • (1) -12
  • (2) -10
  • (3) -13
  • (4) -15
Correct Answer: (1) -12
View Solution

Question 9:

Let S = {x ∈ R : (√3 + √2)x + (√3 − √2)x = 10}. Then the number of elements in S is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (3) 2
View Solution

Question 10:

The area enclosed by the curves ( xy + 4y = 16 ) and ( x + y = 6 ) is equal to:

  • (1) 28 − 30 log 2
  • (2) 30 − 28 log 2
  • (3) 30 − 32 log 2
  • (4) 32 − 30 log 2
Correct Answer: (3) 30 − 32 log 2
View Solution

Question 11:

The distance of the point (2, 3) from the line 2x − 3y + 28 = 0, measured parallel to the line √3x − y + 1 = 0, is equal to:
(1) 4√2
(2) 6√3
(3) 3 + 4√2
(4) 4 + 6√3

Correct Answer: (4) 4 + 6√3
View Solution

Question 12:

If sin(y/x) = ln|x| + α/2 is the solution of the differential equation x cos(y/x) dy/dx = y cos(y/x) + x, and y(1) = π/3, then α² is equal to:
(1) 3
(2) 12
(3) 4
(4) 9

Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution

Question 13:

If each term of a geometric progression a₁, a₂, a₃, ... with a₁ = 1/8 and a₂ ≠ a₁, is the arithmetic mean of the next two terms and Sₙ = a₁ + a₂ + ... + aₙ, then S₂₀ − S₁₈ is equal to:
(1) 2^15
(2) −2^18
(3) 2^18
(4) −2^15

Correct Answer: (4) −2^15
View Solution

Question 14:

Let A be the point of intersection of the lines 3x + 2y = 14 and 5x − y = 6, and B be the point of intersection of the lines 4x + 3y = 8 and 6x + y = 5. The distance of the point P(5, −2) from the line AB is:
(1) 13/2
(2) 8
(3) 5/2
(4) 6

Correct Answer: (4) 6
View Solution

Question 15:

Let x = m/n (m, n are co-prime natural numbers) be a solution of the equation cos(2 sin⁻¹ x) = 1/9, and let α, β (α > β) be the roots of the equation mx² − nx − m + n = 0. Then the point (α, β) lies on the line:
(1) 3x + 2y = 2
(2) 5x − 8y = −9
(3) 3x − 2y = −2
(4) 5x + 8y = 9

Correct Answer: (4) 5x + 8y = 9
View Solution

Question 16:

The function f(x) = x / (x² - 6x - 16), x ∈ R \ {−2, 8}, has:
(1) decreases in (−2, 8) and increases in (−∞, −2) ∪ (8, ∞)
(2) decreases in (−∞, −2) ∪ (−2, 8) ∪ (8, ∞)
(3) decreases in (−∞, −2) and increases in (8, ∞)
(4) increases in (−∞, −2) ∪ (−2, 8) ∪ (8, ∞)

Correct Answer: (2) decreases in (−∞, −2) ∪ (−2, 8) ∪ (8, ∞)
View Solution

Question 17:

Let y = ln((1 − x²) / (1 + x²)), −1 < x < 1. Then at x = 1/2, the value of 225(y' − y'') is equal to:
(1) 732
(2) 746
(3) 742
(4) 736

Correct Answer: (4) 736
View Solution

Question 18:

If R is the smallest equivalence relation on the set {1, 2, 3, 4} such that {(1, 2), (1, 3)} ⊆ R, then the number of elements in R is:
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 15

Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Question 19:

An integer is chosen at random from the integers 1, 2, 3, ..., 50. The probability that the chosen integer is a multiple of at least one of 4, 6, 7 is:
(1) 8/25
(2) 21/50
(3) 9/50
(4) 14/25

Correct Answer: (2) 21/50
View Solution

Question 20:

Let a unit vector u = xi + yj + zk make angles π/2, π/3, 2π/3 with the vectors p₁ = (1/√2)i + (1/√2)k, p₂ = (1/√2)j + (1/√2)k, and p₃ = (1/√2)i + (1/√2)j, respectively. If v = (1/√2)(i + j + k), then |u − v|² is equal to:
(1) 11/2
(2) 5/2
(3) 9
(4) 7

Correct Answer: (2) 5/2
View Solution

Question 21:

Let α, β be the roots of the equation x² − √6x + 3 = 0 such that Im(α) > Im(β). Let a, b be integers not divisible by 3 and n be a natural number such that αⁿ / β + α⁹⁹ + α⁹⁸ = 3ⁿ(a + ib), i = √−1. Then n + a + b is equal to:

Correct Answer: 49
View Solution

Question 22:

Let for any three distinct consecutive terms a, b, c of an A.P., the lines ax + by + c = 0 be concurrent at the point P, and Q(α, β) be a point such that the system of equations x + y + z = 6, 2x + 5y + αz = β, x + 2y + 3z = 4 has infinitely many solutions. Then (PQ)² is equal to:

Correct Answer: 113
View Solution

Question 23:

Let P(α, β) be a point on the parabola y² = 4x. If P also lies on the chord of the parabola x² = 8y whose midpoint is (1, 5/4), then (α − 28)(β − 8) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 192
View Solution

Question 24:

If ∫ π/3 π/6 √1 − sin 2x dx = α + β√2 + γ√3, where α, β, γ are rational numbers, then 3α + 4β − γ is equal to:

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution

Question 25:

Let the area of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ x ≤ 3, 0 ≤ y ≤ min(x² + 2, 2x + 2)} be A. Then 12A is equal to:

Correct Answer: 164
View Solution

Question 26:

Let O be the origin, and M and N be the points on the lines:
x−5/4 = y−4/1 = z−5/3 and x+8/12 = y+2/5 = z+11/9,
respectively, such that MN is the shortest distance between the given lines. Then OM · ON is equal to:

Correct Answer: 9
View Solution

Question 27:

Let f(x) = √lim(r→x) [2r²(f(r²) − f(x))f(r)/(r²−x²) − r²e^(f(r)/r)] be differentiable in (−∞, 0) ∪ (0,∞) and f(1) = 1. Then the value of eᵃ, such that f(a) = 0, is equal to:

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 28:

Remainder when 64³²³² is divided by 9 is equal to:

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Question 29:

Let the set C = {(x, y) | x² − 2y = 2023, x, y ∈ N}. Then ∑(x, y)∈C(x + y) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 46
View Solution

Question 30:

Let the slope of the line 45x + 5y + 3 = 0 be 27r₁ + 9r₂² for some r₁, r₂ ∈ R. Then:
lim(x→3)∫(x to 3)(8t²/(3r₂x² − r₂x² − r₁x³ − 3x))dt is equal to:

Correct Answer: 12
View Solution

Question 31:

Two sources of light emit with a power of 200 W. The ratio of the number of photons of visible light emitted by each source having wavelengths 300 nm and 500 nm respectively, will be:
(1) 1:5
(2) 1:3
(3) 5:3
(4) 3:5

Correct Answer: (4) 3:5
View Solution

Question 32:

The truth table for the given circuit is:
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 33:

A physical quantity Q is found to depend on quantities a, b, c by the relation Q = a⁴b³/c². The percentage error in a, b, c are 3%, 4%, and 5% respectively. Then, the percentage error in Q is:
(1) 66%
(2) 43%
(3) 34%
(4) 14%

Correct Answer: (3) 34%
View Solution

Question 34:

In an a.c. circuit, voltage and current are given by V = 100 sin(100t) V and I = 100 sin(100t + π/3) mA, respectively. The average power dissipated in one cycle is:
(1) 5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 2.5 W
(4) 25 W

Correct Answer: (3) 2.5 W
View Solution

Question 35:

The temperature of a gas having 2.0×10²⁵ molecules per cubic meter at 1.38 atm (Given, k = 1.38×10⁻²³ JK⁻¹) is:
(1) 500 K
(2) 200 K
(3) 100 K
(4) 300 K

Correct Answer: (1) 500 K
View Solution

Question 36:

A stone of mass 900 g is tied to a string and moved in a vertical circle of radius 1 m making 10 rpm. The tension in the string, when the stone is at the lowest point, is:
(1) 97 N
(2) 9.8 N
(3) 8.82 N
(4) 17.8 N

Correct Answer: (2) 9.8 N
View Solution

Question 37:

The bob of a pendulum was released from a horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is 10 m. If it dissipates 10% of its initial energy against air resistance, the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowest point is:
(1) 6√5 m/s
(2) 5√6 m/s
(3) 5√5 m/s
(4) 2√5 m/s

Correct Answer: (1) 6√5 m/s
View Solution

Question 38:

If the distance between an object and its two-times magnified virtual image produced by a curved mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must be:
(1) 15 cm
(2) −12 cm
(3) −10 cm
(4) 10/3 cm

Correct Answer: (3) −10 cm
View Solution

Question 39:

Two particles X and Y having equal charges are being accelerated through the same potential difference. Thereafter, they enter normally in a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii R₁ and R₂, respectively. The mass ratio of X and Y is:
(1) (R₂/R₁)²
(2) (R₁/R₂)²
(3) R₁/R₂
(4) R₂/R₁

Correct Answer: (2) (R₁/R₂)²
View Solution

Question 40:

In Young’s double slit experiment, light from two identical sources is superimposing on a screen. The path difference between the two lights reaching a point on the screen is 7λ/4. The ratio of intensity of the fringe at this point with respect to the maximum intensity of the fringe is:
(1) 1/2
(2) 3/4
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/4

Correct Answer: (1) 1/2
View Solution

Question 41:

A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27 identical liquid drops. If the surface tension is T, then the work done in the process will be:
(1) 8πR²T
(2) 3πR²T
(3) 1/8πR²T
(4) 4πR²T

Correct Answer: (1) 8πR²T
View Solution

Question 42:

A bob of mass ‘m’ is suspended by a light string of length ‘L’. It is imparted a minimum horizontal velocity at the lowest point A such that it just completes a half-circle reaching the topmost position B. The ratio of kinetic energies (K.E.)A : (K.E.)B is:
(1) 3:2
(2) 5:1
(3) 2:5
(4) 1:5

Correct Answer: (2) 5:1
View Solution

Question 43:

A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one end. If its other end is pulled by a force F, its length increases by l. If the radius of the wire and the applied force are both reduced to half of their original values, keeping the original length constant, the increase in length will become:
(1) 3 times
(2) 3/2 times
(3) 4 times
(4) 2 times

Correct Answer: (4) 2 times
View Solution

Question 44:

A planet takes 200 days to complete one revolution around the Sun. If the distance of the planet from the Sun is reduced to one-fourth of the original distance, how many days will it take to complete one revolution?
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 20

Correct Answer: (1) 25
View Solution

Question 45:

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 35 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction. At a particular point (in space and time), E = 9.6 j V/m. The value of the magnetic field at this point is:
(1) 3.2×10⁻⁸ kT
(2) 3.2×10⁻⁸ iT
(3) 9.6 jT
(4) 9.6×10⁻⁸ kT

Correct Answer: (1) 3.2×10⁻⁸ kT
View Solution

Question 46:

In the given circuit, the current in resistance R₃ is:
(1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 2.5 A

Correct Answer: (1) 1 A
View Solution

Question 47:

A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position x as a function of time t is given as x = (t³ − 6t² + 20t + 15) m. The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is:
(1) 4 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

Correct Answer: (2) 8 m/s
View Solution

Question 48:

N moles of a polyatomic gas (f = 6) must be mixed with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that the mixture behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N is:
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Question 49:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Most of the mass of the atom and all its positive charge are concentrated in a tiny nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is Rutherford’s model.
Statement II: An atom is a spherical cloud of positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a special case of Rutherford’s model.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution

Question 50:

An electric field is given by E = (6i + 5j + 3k) N/C. The electric flux through a surface area 30i m² lying in the YZ-plane (in SI units) is:
(1) 90
(2) 150
(3) 180
(4) 60

Correct Answer: (3) 180
View Solution

Question 51:

Two metallic wires P and Q have the same volume and are made up of the same material. If their areas of cross-section are in the ratio 4:1 and force F₁ is applied to P, an extension of Δℓ is produced. The force required to produce the same extension in Q is F₂. The value of F₁/F₂ is:
(1) 16
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 52:

A horizontal straight wire 5 m long extending from east to west falls freely at a right angle to the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field 0.60 × 10⁻⁴ Wb/m². The instantaneous value of emf induced in the wire when its velocity is 10 m/s is:
(1) 3 × 10⁻³ V
(2) 6 × 10⁻³ V
(3) 9 × 10⁻³ V
(4) 2 × 10⁻³ V

Correct Answer: 3 × 10⁻³ V
View Solution

Question 53:

Hydrogen atom is bombarded with electrons accelerated through a potential difference V, which causes excitation of hydrogen atoms. If the experiment is performed at T = 0 K, the minimum potential difference needed to observe any Balmer series lines in the emission spectra will be α/10 V, where α is:
(1) 121
(2) 150
(3) 135
(4) 110

Correct Answer: 121
View Solution

Question 54:

A charge of 4.0 µC is moving with a velocity of 4.0 × 10⁶ m/s along the positive y-axis under a magnetic field B of strength 2k̂ T. The force acting on the charge is xî N. The value of x is:
(1) 32 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 16 N

Correct Answer: 32 N
View Solution

Question 55:

A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A and a time period 6π seconds. Assuming the oscillation starts from its mean position, the time required by it to travel from x = A to x = √3/2 A will be π/x seconds, where x is:
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution


Question 56:

In the given figure, the charge stored in a 6µF capacitor, when points A and B are joined by a connecting wire, is µC:

Correct Answer: 36 µC
View Solution

Question 57:

In a single slit diffraction pattern, a light of wavelength 6000 Å is used. The distance between the first and third minima in the diffraction pattern is found to be 3 mm when the screen is placed 50 cm away from the slits. The width of the slit is ×10⁻⁴ m:

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Question 58:

In the given circuit, the current flowing through the resistance 20Ω is 0.3A, while the ammeter reads 0.9A. The value of R₁ is Ω:

Correct Answer: 30
View Solution

Question 59:

A particle is moving in a circle of radius 50 cm in such a way that at any instant the normal and tangential components of its acceleration are equal. If its speed at t = 0 is 4 m/s, the time taken to complete the first revolution will be 1/α [1 − e⁻²π] seconds, where α is:

Correct Answer: 8
View Solution

Question 60:

A body of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform speed 3√2 m/s in the X-Y plane along the line y = x + 4. The angular momentum of the particle about the origin will be kg·m²/s:

Correct Answer: 60
View Solution

Question 61:

The ascending acidity order of the following H atoms is:
(1) C < D < B < A
(2) A < B < C < D
(3) A < B < D < C
(4) D < C < B < A

Correct Answer: (1) C < D < B < A
View Solution

Question 62:

Match List I with List II:
List I (Bio Polymer) | List II (Monomer)
A. Starch   |   I. Nucleotide
B. Cellulose   |   II. α-glucose
C. Nucleic acid   |   III. β-glucose
D. Protein   |   IV. α-amino acid
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Correct Answer: (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

Question 63:

Match List I with List II:
List I (Compound) | List II (pKa value)
A. Ethanol   |   II. 15.9
B. Phenol   |   I. 10.0
C. m-Nitrophenol   |   IV. 8.3
D. p-Nitrophenol   |   III. 7.1
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Correct Answer: (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View Solution

Question 64:

Which of the following reaction is correct?
(1) Incorrect reaction
(2) Correct reaction
(3) Partially correct reaction
(4) Not a valid reaction

Correct Answer: (2) Correct reaction
View Solution

Question 65:

According to IUPAC system, the compound is named as:
(1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
(2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Correct Answer: (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
View Solution

The compound contains a double bond and an alcohol group. Numbering starts from the alcohol group to give it the lowest locant.


Question 66:

The correct IUPAC name of K₂MnO₄ is:
(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)
(2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
(3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII)
(4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)

Correct Answer: (2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
View Solution

Question 67:

A reagent which gives a brilliant red precipitate with Nickel ions in a basic medium is:

Correct Answer: (4) Dimethyl glyoxime
View Solution

Question 68:

Phenol treated with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, followed by hydrolysis with acid, results in:

Correct Answer: (4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
View Solution

Question 69:

Match List I with List II:
List I (Spectral Series for Hydrogen) | List II (Spectral Region)
A. Lyman   |   I. Infrared region
B. Balmer   |   II. UV region
C. Paschen   |   III. Infrared region
D. Pfund   |   IV. Visible region
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
View Solution

Question 70:

On passing a gas, ‘X,’ through Nessler’s reagent, a brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is:

Correct Answer: (3) NH₃
View Solution

Question 71:

The product A formed in the following reaction is:

Correct Answer: (3) Chlorobenzene
View Solution

Question 72:

Identify the reagents used for the following conversion:
(1) A = LiAlH₄, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH₂NH₂/KOH
(2) A = LiAlH₄, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl
(3) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH₂NH₂/KOH
(4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl

Correct Answer: (4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl
View Solution

DIBAL-H selectively reduces esters to aldehydes. NaOH(alc) facilitates aldol condensation, and Zn/HCl performs Clemmensen reduction to produce hydrocarbons.


Question 73:

Which of the following acts as a strong reducing agent? (Atomic numbers: Ce = 58, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Lu = 71)
(1) Lu³⁺
(2) Gd³⁺
(3) Eu²⁺
(4) Ce⁴⁺

Correct Answer: (3) Eu²⁺
View Solution

Question 74:

Chromatographic technique(s) based on the principle of differential adsorption is/are:
A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
(1) B only
(2) A only
(3) A & B only
(4) C only

Correct Answer: (3) A & B only
View Solution

Question 75:

Which of the following statements are correct about Zn, Cd, and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +1 and +2.
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd, and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd, and Hg are called soft metals.
(1) B, D only
(2) B, C only
(3) A, D only
(4) C, D only

Correct Answer: (1) B, D only
View Solution

Question 76:

The element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is:
(1) Si
(2) Al
(3) N
(4) C

Correct Answer: (3) N
View Solution


Question 77:

Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by reaction with:

  1. NaCN
  2. NH₄CN
  3. KCN
  4. AgCN
Correct Answer: (4) AgCN
View Solution

Question 78:

Which one of the following will show geometrical isomerism?

  1. CH₃CH=CHCH₃
  2. CH₂=CBr₂
  3. CH₃CH=CHBr
  4. Cyclohexane
Correct Answer: (3) CH₃CH=CHBr
View Solution

Question 79:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fluorine has the most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II: Oxygen has the least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution

Question 80:

Anomalous behavior of oxygen is due to its:

  1. Large size and high electronegativity
  2. Small size and low electronegativity
  3. Small size and high electronegativity
  4. Large size and low electronegativity
Correct Answer: (3) Small size and high electronegativity
View Solution

Question 81:

The total number of antibonding molecular orbitals formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a diatomic molecule is:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 82:

The oxidation number of iron in the compound formed during the brown ring test for NO₃⁻ ion is:

  1. +3
  2. +2
  3. +1
  4. 0
Correct Answer: +1
View Solution

Question 83:

The equilibrium constant for the formation of NH₃ from N₂ and H₂, given [N₂] = 2×10⁻² M, [H₂] = 3×10⁻² M, [NH₃] = 1.5×10⁻² M at 500 K, is:

  1. 417
  2. 4170
  3. 41.7
  4. 4.17
Correct Answer: 417
View Solution

Question 84:

The molality of a 0.8 M H₂SO₄ solution with density 1.06 g/cm³ is:

  1. 815 × 10⁻³ m
  2. 0.815 m
  3. 1.5 m
  4. 0.5 m
Correct Answer: 815 × 10⁻³ m
View Solution

Question 85:

The amount of NaOH in 50 mL of a solution neutralized by 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is:

  1. 4 g
  2. 2 g
  3. 8 g
  4. 16 g
Correct Answer: 4 g
View Solution

Question 86:

The total number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in 2-formylhex-4-enoic acid is:

  1. 22
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 25
Correct Answer: 22
View Solution

Question 87:

The half-life of radioisotopic bromine-82 is 36 hours. The fraction that remains after one day is:

  1. 0.63
  2. 0.5
  3. 0.75
  4. 0.25
Correct Answer: 0.63
View Solution

Question 88:

Standard enthalpy of vaporization for CCl₄ is 30.5 kJ/mol. Heat required for vaporization of 284 g of CCl₄ at constant temperature is:

  1. 56 kJ
  2. 45 kJ
  3. 65 kJ
  4. 60 kJ
Correct Answer: 56 kJ
View Solution

Question 89:

A constant current was passed through a solution of AuCl₄⁻ ions between gold electrodes. After 10 minutes, the increase in the cathode’s mass was 1.314 g. The total charge passed through the solution is:

  1. 2 F
  2. 4 F
  3. 6 F
  4. 8 F
Correct Answer: 2 F
View Solution

Question 90:

The total number of molecules with zero dipole moment among CH₄, BF₃, H₂O, HF, NH₃, CO₂, and SO₂ is:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 5
Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Feb 1 Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper