The GATE 2026 Geology and Geophysics (GG1) question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. GATE 2026 GG was conducted by IIT Guwahati on February 7, 2026 (morning session), and the paper carried 65 questions worth 100 marks in 3 hours.

GATE 2026 Geology and Geophysics (GG1) Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

GATE 2026 Geology and Geophysics (GG1) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Suresh said, "I did it yesterday." Which one of the following options is the correct form of this sentence in indirect speech?

  • (A) Suresh said that I did it yesterday.
  • (B) Suresh says I did it yesterday.
  • (C) Suresh says that he did it the day before.
  • (D) Suresh said that he had done it the day before.

Question 2:

To continue the sequence of tiles shown, the tile indicated by the question mark should be

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 3:

Consider an art gallery whose walkways are shown as lines in the diagram. A black dot represents a junction of two walkways. A guard may be placed at a junction to watch over the walkways that join at that junction. The minimum number of guards needed to watch all the walkways is ________.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 4:

The 2nd of June is a Thursday in a certain year. Which day of the week is the 3rd of July in that year?

  • (A) Thursday
  • (B) Friday
  • (C) Saturday
  • (D) Sunday

Question 5:

A coin with heads facing up is shown as H and a coin with tails facing up is shown as T.
Six coins are placed in the Starting Arrangement, as shown in the figure below. A "step" is defined as interchanging a pair of adjacent coins without flipping them. The minimum number of steps needed to go from the Starting Arrangement to the Final Arrangement, as shown in the figure, is ________.

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 12

Question 6:

Exacerbate : Mitigate :: ___________
Choose the option with the correct pair of words to fill the blank.

  • (A) Aggravate : Alleviate
  • (B) Alleviate : Precipitate
  • (C) Aggravate : Precipitate
  • (D) Emancipate : Exonerate

Question 7:

A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?

  • (A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.

Question 8:

In a population, patients who have high cholesterol also have high blood pressure (BP). Some patients with high BP also have diabetes. There are no patients who have both high cholesterol and diabetes. Furthermore,
1. the total number of patients with at least one of these conditions is 75,
2. the number of patients with high cholesterol is 10,
3. the number of patients with high BP is 45, and
4. the number of patients with only high BP and no other conditions is 20.
Then the number of patients who have both diabetes and high BP is _______

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 10

Question 9:

Four people P, Q, R, and S, of different ages, make the following observations.
P: I am younger than S.
Q: I am neither the youngest nor the oldest.
R: P is older than me.
Based on these observations, the youngest person is ______.

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 10:

Circles \(C_1\), \(C_2\), and \(C_3\), with centers \(O_1\), \(O_2\), and \(O_3\), and radii \(r_1\), \(r_2\), and \(r_3\), respectively, touch each other as shown in the following figure. Given \(r_1 = 2\) cm, \(r_2 = 1\) cm and the angle \(\angle O_1 O_3 O_2\) is 90 degrees, \(r_3 =\) _____ cm.

  • (A) \( \dfrac{1}{2}\left(-3+\sqrt{17}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{1}{2}\left(3+\sqrt{17}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{1}{2}\left(-2+\sqrt{17}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{1}{2}\left(-3+2\sqrt{17}\right) \)

Question 11:

Which one of the following increases over time when the soil is fully saturated?

  • (A) Infiltration
  • (B) Runoff
  • (C) Porosity
  • (D) Permeability

Question 12:

In which one of the following layers inside the Earth, the velocity of the P-wave exceeds 13 km/s?

  • (A) Upper mantle
  • (B) Outer core
  • (C) Lower mantle
  • (D) Inner core

Question 13:

Which one of the following is NOT a volcanic igneous rock?

  • (A) Dacite
  • (B) Syenite
  • (C) Trachyte
  • (D) Komatiite

Question 14:

If \(r_1\) and \(r_2\), respectively, denote the equatorial and polar radii of a reference ellipsoid, then the radius, \(R\), of its equivalent sphere is given by

  • (A) \( \left(r_1 r_2^2\right)^{2/3} \)
  • (B) \( r_1 r_2^2 \)
  • (C) \( \left(r_1^2 r_2\right)^{1/3} \)
  • (D) \( r_1^2 r_2 \)

Question 15:

Which of the following sources is/are used in land seismic surveys?

  • (A) Vibrosis
  • (B) Dynamite
  • (C) Airgun
  • (D) Thumper

Question 16:

A pebble has an average diameter of 8 mm. Its \(\phi\)-value on the Udden-Wentworth scale is ___________ (answer in integer).


Question 17:

A quartz vein in a granitic outcrop has an initial length of 20 cm. If it undergoes uniform stretching resulting in a longitudinal strain of 0.45, the length of the vein post deformation is _________cm (answer in integer).


Question 18:

Which one of the following is the CORRECT pair of radioactive parent isotope and the corresponding radiogenic daughter isotope?

  • (A) \(^{87}\text{Rb} \rightarrow {}^{86}\text{Sr}\)
  • (B) \(^{147}\text{Sm} \rightarrow {}^{143}\text{Nd}\)
  • (C) \(^{235}\text{U} \rightarrow {}^{206}\text{Pb}\)
  • (D) \(^{238}\text{U} \rightarrow {}^{207}\text{Pb}\)

Question 19:

Which one of the following pairs of geophysical signatures most commonly indicates volcanogenic massive sulphide deposits?

  • (A) High gravity and low resistivity
  • (B) Low gravity and high resistivity
  • (C) Low gravity and low resistivity
  • (D) High gravity and high resistivity

Question 20:

Which one of the following is a physical weathering process?

  • (A) Oxidation
  • (B) Hydrolysis
  • (C) Exfoliation
  • (D) Carbonation

Question 21:

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT according to the laws of electromagnetic induction in the Earth?

  • (A) Current density in a region of finite conductivity is solenoidal
  • (B) Magnetic vector potential is irrotational
  • (C) Magnetic field is solenoidal
  • (D) Curl of electric field is negative time rate of change of curl of magnetic vector potential

Question 22:

Which of the following is/are REE-bearing mineral(s)?

  • (A) Monazite
  • (B) Natrolite
  • (C) Spodumene
  • (D) Gibbsite

Question 23:

Which of the following pair(s) of well logs does/do NOT exhibit crossover for gas-bearing zones in hydrocarbon reservoirs?

  • (A) Neutron and density
  • (B) Caliper and resistivity
  • (C) Neutron and self-potential
  • (D) Caliper and gamma-ray

Question 24:

If the diameter of a scaled-down model of the Earth is 45 cm, then the equivalent length on the surface of the Earth for 1 cm on the model is _____________ km (rounded off to two decimal places).
[Use: Radius of the Earth = 6371 km]


Question 25:

The wavelength of a certain portion of the electromagnetic spectrum ranges from 2000 nm to 3000 nm. The highest frequency associated with the above portion of the spectrum is____________\(\times10^{8}\) MHz (rounded off to one decimal place).


Question 26:

Consider that the upper continental crust is 10 km thick and made up of granitic rock having density of 2800 kg/m\(^3\). The surface heat flow due to radiogenic heat from the granitic rock having heat production value of \(10^{-9}\) W/kg is______________ mW/m\(^2\) (answer in integer).


Question 27:

Which one of the following stereographic projections represents a reclined fold?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 28:

A mineral has X = c, Y = b, Z = a, where X, Y, Z denote optical directions and a, b, c denote crystallographic axes. If X is the fast vibration direction and the mineral is optically positive, a {001} section will show which one of the following interference figures?

  • (A) Obtuse bisectrix
  • (B) Acute bisectrix
  • (C) Centered uniaxial
  • (D) Off-centered uniaxial

Question 29:

Which one of the following minerals is NOT formed by chemical weathering?

  • (A) Limonite
  • (B) Kaolinite
  • (C) Graphite
  • (D) Gibbsite

Question 30:

Which one of the following is NOT a diagnostic parameter in identifying a crystalline phase using powder X-ray diffraction data?

  • (A) Peak width at half-maximum
  • (B) Relative intensity
  • (C) Fluorescence
  • (D) Peak position

Question 31:

If a dextral strike-slip fault system has a right step-over, which one of the following features will develop?

  • (A) Zone of reverse fault
  • (B) Releasing bend
  • (C) Restraining bend
  • (D) Contractional duplex

Question 32:

Which of the following biostratigraphic zones is/are depicted in the figure below?

  • (A) Concurrent range zone
  • (B) Interval zone
  • (C) Assemblage zone
  • (D) Acme zone

Question 33:

Which of the following fossils was/were completely extinct by the end of Permian?

  • (A) Favosites
  • (B) Phacops
  • (C) Aulacopleura
  • (D) Lingula

Question 34:

Which of the following microfossils has/have a geological range from Cambrian to Recent?

  • (A) Foraminifera
  • (B) Diatoms
  • (C) Radiolaria
  • (D) Dinoflagellates

Question 35:

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT in terms of dentition in bivalves?

  • (A) Teeth are numerous, sub-parallel, or radially arranged in taxodont
  • (B) Small simple teeth near the edge of the valve characterize dysodont
  • (C) Teeth have many parallel grooves normal to axis of tooth in isodont
  • (D) Teeth are very reduced or absent in desmodont

Question 36:

Which of the following deposits is/are linked to magmatic-hydrothermal fluids derived from granitic plutons?

  • (A) Mississippi Valley-type (MVT) Pb-Zn deposit
  • (B) Ophiolite-hosted chromite deposit
  • (C) Komatiite-hosted Ni-Cu sulfide deposit
  • (D) Greisen related Sn-W deposit

Question 37:

Which of the following statements related to crystal defects is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Screw dislocation is a type of planar defect
  • (B) Edge dislocation is a type of line defect
  • (C) Stacking fault is a type of line defect
  • (D) Cation vacancy is a type of point defect

Question 38:

Choose the CORRECT factor(s) from the following, which affect(s) the \(^{18}O/^{16}O\) isotopic ratio in foraminifera growing in an ocean.

  • (A) Temperature
  • (B) Oxygen isotopic composition of water
  • (C) Growth of continental ice sheets
  • (D) Continental detritus input

Question 39:

Which of the following sedimentological processes lead(s) to time averaging of fossil record?

  • (A) Bioturbation
  • (B) Erosion and redeposition of sediments
  • (C) Compaction
  • (D) Formation of pellets

Question 40:

A sandstone bed has an orientation of 360/45W. If the true thickness of the bed is 50 m, the width of the outcrop exposed on a flat surface is _________ m (rounded off to one decimal place).


Question 41:

For a chemical system with 5 phases at the invariant point, the number of possible univariant reactions in pressure-temperature space is ____ (answer in integer).


Question 42:

Two tectonic plates, P and Q, move in opposite directions along a transform fault boundary. If the plate velocity of P is 8 cm/year and of Q is 6 cm/year with respect to a fixed reference frame, the relative velocity between P and Q is _______ cm/year (answer in integer).


Question 43:

If the atomic mass units of \(^{85}\text{Rb}\) and \(^{87}\text{Rb}\) are \(84.912\) and \(86.901\), respectively, then the abundance of \(^{87}\text{Rb}\) is _________ % (rounded off to nearest integer).
[Use: Average atomic mass of Rb = \(85.467\) amu]


Question 44:

A mineral under crossed nicols displays second order greenish-yellow (\(M = 740\) nm) interference colour. On introduction of a gypsum plate (\(A = 550\) nm) along the length of the mineral orientation, first order grey interference colour is displayed. The net retardation is _________ nm (answer in integer).


Question 45:

Which one of the following mineral reactions will result in the formation of a diagnostic granulite facies assemblage during regional metamorphism of a pelite?

  • (A) muscovite + staurolite + chlorite = biotite + kyanite + quartz + H2O
  • (B) muscovite + quartz = K-feldspar + sillimanite + melt
  • (C) biotite + sillimanite + quartz = cordierite + garnet + K-feldspar + melt
  • (D) staurolite + quartz = garnet + sillimanite + H2O

Question 46:

The given table shows modal volume percentage of quartz, alkali feldspar and plagioclase in coarse-grained rocks, X and Y. Which of the following rock names of X and Y are CORRECT according to the IUGS classification?
MineralX (volume %)Y (volume %)
Quartz1525
Plagioclase2060
Alkali feldspar6515

  • (A) X - Alkali feldspar granite; Y - Tonalite
  • (B) X - Granodiorite; Y - Granite
  • (C) X - Alkali feldspar granite; Y - Quartz monzonite
  • (D) X - Quartz syenite; Y - Granodiorite

Question 47:

The ternary diagram given below shows phase relations for the Anorthite-Diopside-Forsterite system at 1 bar pressure. Broken lines represent isotherms with temperature in °C. If 'P' is the initial melt composition, which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of crystallization assuming equilibrium between crystal and melt?

  • (A) [Fo] -> [Fo + Di] -> [Fo + Di + An]
  • (B) [Fo] -> [Fo + An] -> [Fo + An + Di]
  • (C) [Fo] -> [Fo + Sp] -> [Fo + Sp + An]
  • (D) [Fo] -> [Fo + An] -> [Fo + An + Sp]

Question 48:

Accumulation of which one of the following minerals can explain positive Eu and positive Sr anomalies in the primitive mantle-normalized multielement pattern of an igneous rock?

  • (A) Orthoclase
  • (B) Apatite
  • (C) Orthopyroxene
  • (D) Olivine

Question 49:

Match the minerals in Group I with the corresponding elements in Group II.
Group-IGroup-II
P. Smithsonite1. Lead
Q. Azurite2. Iron
R. Crocite3. Zinc
S. Marcasite4. Copper

  • (A) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
  • (B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
  • (C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
  • (D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

Question 50:

Match the stratigraphic Formations in Group I with the corresponding Geologic Periods in Group II.
Group-IGroup-II
P. Kopili Shale1. Permian
Q. Raniganj Formation2. Eocene
R. Quilon Formation3. Cretaceous
S. Dalmiapuram Formation4. Miocene

  • (A) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
  • (B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
  • (C) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
  • (D) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4

Question 51:

Which one of the following chrons of Neogene and Quaternary geomagnetic polarity time scale is arranged in the order from oldest to youngest?

  • (A) Brunhes → Matuyama → Gauss → Gilbert
  • (B) Matuyama → Brunhes → Gauss → Gilbert
  • (C) Brunhes → Gauss → Gilbert → Matuyama
  • (D) Gilbert → Gauss → Matuyama → Brunhes

Question 52:

Match the mineral names in Group I with corresponding space groups in Group II.
Group-IGroup-II
P. Diamond1. P63/mmc
Q. Coesite2. R\(\bar{3}\)c
R. Graphite3. Fd\(\bar{3}\)m
S. Calcite4. C2/c

  • (A) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1
  • (B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
  • (C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
  • (D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

Question 53:

Choose the marked climate zones P, Q, R and S in the figure CORRECTLY from the following options.

  • (A) P - Glacial; Q - Arid; R- Tropical; S - Semiarid
  • (B) P - Arid; Q - Semiarid; R- Tropical; S - Glacial
  • (C) P - Glacial; Q - Arid; R- Semiarid; S - Tropical
  • (D) P - Tropical; Q - Arid; R- Semiarid; S - Glacial

Question 54:

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describe(s) a parallel fold?

  • (A) Inner and outer arcs of the folded layer have same curvature
  • (B) Dip isogons are parallel to the axial plane
  • (C) Orthogonal thickness of the folded layer is constant
  • (D) Dip isogons converge towards core of the fold

Question 55:

A hydrothermal solution contains dissolved ions of Ca\(^{2+}\) and SO\(_4^{2-}\). If the Saturation Index (SI) of the solution is negative, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT if gypsum is added to the solution?

  • (A) Gypsum will precipitate from the solution
  • (B) Gypsum will dissolve in the solution
  • (C) The concentration of Ca\(^{2+}\) will increase and SO\(_4^{2-}\) will decrease in the solution
  • (D) The concentrations of both Ca\(^{2+}\) and SO\(_4^{2-}\) will increase in the solution

Question 56:

The given schematic diagram shows different stages of development of S\(_2\) foliation after the formation of S\(_1\) foliation. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY interpret(s) the relationships of porphyroblasts W, X, Y and Z with the matrix?

  • (A) 'W' formed at an early stage of S\(_2\) foliation
  • (B) 'W' formed after the growth of porphyroblast 'Y'
  • (C) 'X' and 'Z' are post-tectonic to S\(_2\) foliation
  • (D) The sequence of porphyroblast growth is W → Y → X and Z

Question 57:

In remote sensing, the parameter(s) that can be estimated in the Thermal Infrared region (3 - 14 \(\mu\)m) is/are

  • (A) Forest fire
  • (B) Rainfall pattern
  • (C) Ground surface temperature
  • (D) Emissivity

Question 58:

Which of the following is/are diagnostic morphological feature(s) of brachiopods?

  • (A) Skeleton has pentameral symmetry
  • (B) Dorsal valve
  • (C) Thoracic segments
  • (D) Deltidial plate

Question 59:

Which of the following is/are diagenetic process(es)?

  • (A) Dolomitization
  • (B) Flocculation
  • (C) Neomorphism
  • (D) Cementation

Question 60:

The figure below shows an infinite-slope model. If \(\tau\) and SS denote the driving shear stress and the resisting shear strength, respectively, then \(\tau\) along the failure plane is \(\times 10^3\) kg/ms\(^2\) (round off to two decimal places).
[Use: \(d = 2\) m; \(\rho_{soil} = 2.0\) g/cm\(^3\); \(g = 9.8\) m/s\(^2\)]


Question 61:

An oblique-slip normal fault dipping \(60^{\circ}\)E shows a net slip of 100 m. If the net slip vector has a pitch of \(30^{\circ}\), then the heave of the fault is m (answer in integer).


Question 62:

A mafic magma with 'Sr' concentration of 400 ppm has undergone 60% fractional crystallization. If 'Sr' is incompatible in the mineral assemblage that crystallizes from the magma with a bulk distribution coefficient of 0.2, the concentration of 'Sr' in the residual liquid is ppm (rounded off to nearest integer).


Question 63:

The Fe-Mg exchange reaction between olivine and spinel is the following:

\[ \mathrm{Mg_2SiO_4 + 2FeAl_2O_4 \rightleftharpoons Fe_2SiO_4 + 2MgAl_2O_4} \]
(Forsterite) (Fe-spinel) (Fayalite) (Mg-spinel)

Assuming ideal solid solutions, the temperature of equilibration between olivine and spinel using the following data is \(^{\circ}\text{C}\) (round off to nearest integer).

[Assume that \(\Delta H_r^{0}\) and \(\Delta S_r^{0}\) are independent of P and T, and \(K_d\) is independent of P]

\[ K_d = \left[\frac{(X_{Fe}^{Ol})(X_{Mg}^{Sp})}{(X_{Mg}^{Ol})(X_{Fe}^{Sp})}\right]^2 \]

ΔH0r (kJ/mol)ΔS0r (J/mol.K)KdR (J/mol.K)
-10.91-3.903.0248.314


Question 64:

The bore hole distribution of a massive sulphide deposit represented in the form of an equilateral triangular pattern is given below. If the average thickness of the ore body is 30 m, the tonnage in the shaded area is million tons (rounded off to two decimal places).

[Use: Bulk density of ore body = 4400 kg/m3]


Question 65:

An aquifer has a surface area of 100 km2. With no recharge, assume that pumping out \(2 \times 10^{7}\) m3 of ground water resulted in a drop of the water table by 6 m. If the aquifer has a specific retention of 15%, then the porosity of the aquifer is % (rounded off to one decimal place).

GATE 2026 GG1 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

As per the information bulletin on the official GATE 2026 website (gate2026.iitg.ac.in), the Geology and Geophysics paper is a computer-based test split into a common Part A and a subject-specific Part B.

  • Total questions: 65 across General Aptitude (GA), Part A (compulsory for both Geology and Geophysics candidates), and Part B Section I (Geology-only, GG1)
  • Duration: 3 hours
  • Total marks: 100 (GA 15, Part A 25, Part B Geology 60)
  • Marking scheme: 1/3 mark cut for a wrong 1-mark MCQ, 2/3 mark cut for a wrong 2-mark MCQ, no negative marking on MSQ or NAT questions
  • Question types: single-correct MCQ, multiple-correct MSQ, and Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions with no options

High-Weightage Topics in GATE 2026 GG1 to Focus On First

Going through the solved paper, Petrology and Structural Geology carried the most questions in the Geology-specific Part B, so start your revision there.

  • Petrology (igneous, metamorphic, and general) made up 6 of the 39 Part B questions, from ternary phase diagrams to granulite-facies reactions
  • Structural Geology followed with 5 questions, covering fold classification on stereonets, dip isogons, true-to-apparent thickness, and fault heave
  • Crystallography and Economic Geology each carried 3 questions, testing crystal defects, space groups, and ore-forming deposits
  • Palaeontology and biostratigraphy together accounted for 4 questions, including a concurrent-range-zone figure and Permian extinction fossils
  • Across the full paper, 10 questions were General Aptitude, 16 were common Part A questions shared with Geophysics candidates, and 39 were Geology-only Part B

GATE 2026 GG1 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: SOURAV SIR'S CLASSES

How to Use the GATE GG1 Question Paper for Practice

Treat this as a full 3-hour mock before you look at a single solution, then use the solved PDF to find exactly where marks slipped.

  • Attempt all 65 questions in one 3-hour sitting under real exam conditions first
  • Mark every question you were unsure of, then check it against the step-by-step solution PDF
  • Redo the NAT questions on paper - GG1 2026 had 16 numerical questions across Part A and Part B, and small unit-conversion slips there cost marks
  • Revisit MSQ questions separately - GG1 2026 carried 15 multiple-correct questions, and partial selection earns zero credit

GATE GG Cutoff Trend to Set Your Target Score

  • The General category qualifying cutoff for GG has stayed in the 30-32 mark range over recent years
  • Use this as your practice target when you total your score on this paper
  • The official GATE 2026 cutoff is released by IIT Guwahati after the result declaration, alongside category-wise scores

GATE 2026 GG1 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. Where can I download the GATE 2026 Geology and Geophysics (GG1) question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. You can download it from the table above on this Collegedunia page, which has both the questions-only PDF and the full solutions PDF. The official question paper and answer key are also available on gate2026.iitg.ac.in.

Ques. How many questions were there in the GATE 2026 GG1 (Geology) paper and how are they split?

Ans. The paper had 65 questions for 100 marks: 10 General Aptitude questions worth 15 marks, 16 Part A questions common to Geology and Geophysics worth 25 marks, and 39 Geology-only Part B questions worth 60 marks.

Ques. Which topics had the highest weightage in GATE 2026 GG1?

Ans. Petrology led with 6 of the 39 Part B questions, followed by Structural Geology with 5. Crystallography and Economic Geology carried 3 questions each, and palaeontology-related topics added up to 4 questions.

Ques. Is there negative marking in the GATE GG1 paper?

Ans. Yes, for MCQs only. A wrong 1-mark MCQ costs 1/3 mark and a wrong 2-mark MCQ costs 2/3 mark. Multiple-correct MSQ questions and Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions carry no negative marking.

Ques. What is a good score to aim for in GATE GG based on past cutoffs?

Ans. The General category cutoff for GG has held in the 30-32 mark range in recent years. Use this range as your benchmark when you score yourself on this solved paper.

Ques. Are GATE GG1 questions repeated from previous years?

Ans. The exact questions are not repeated, but the same core topics - fold and fault mechanics, phase diagrams, optical mineralogy, and biostratigraphic zones - come back nearly every year, so solving multiple years of GG1 papers builds real pattern recognition.